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|  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 7/12/2009 4:54 AM (GMT -6) |   | Let's do this.
Jeff has pointed out to me that the Copenhagen school (which interprets quantum indeterminacy as describing the way the world really is as opposed to just how our limited measurements are able to discover) is meaningless nonsense in that it denies realism.
I know both Greg and Alan (and for that matter Sir John Polkinghorne, a member of the Royal Academy for crying out loud) are realists and both embrace the non-determinisic interpretation of indeterminacy of quantum behavior as descriptive of the objective world, so I'm wondering if they're aware that their beliefs are meaningless nonsense (just rubbing it in Jeff! ;o))
Alan?
Any scientists out there?
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 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 7/12/2009 8:13 AM (GMT -6) |   | Other realists who believed nature was not deterministic--Whitehead and Hartshorne. Whitehead for goodness sakes!
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 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 7/12/2009 11:04 AM (GMT -6) |   | JEFF, I hope you don't mind my posting there here for others to jump in on.
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Copenhagen interpretation from: http://www.answers.com/topic/copenhagen-interpretation
Philosophy Dictionary: Copenhagen interpretation The anti realist interpretation of quantum mechanics championed by the physicist Niels Bohr (1885-1962) who worked in Copenhagen, and the subject of extended debate with Einstein. According to Bohr, there is no deep quantum reality, no world of electrons and photons. There is only description of the world in these terms: quantum mechanics affords us a formalism that we can use to predict and manipulate events described in everyday languages, or the language of classical physics, but it is misguided or senseless to postulate a quantum reality answering to the description. Problems such as the wave-particle duality, or the problem of Schrödinger's cat, suggest that there is no reality behind our observations.
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Jeff: Note, Tom, that the Copenhagen view is
1) an INTERPRETATION
2) contra REALISM
3) implies there is no REALITY behind our observations.
Tom, that is SHEER NON-SENSE. I got in a debate with a European quantum theorist on a forum. He said "to exist is to be observed." I asked him what an observation was. Because to me, an observation is an activity of an OBSERVER which is a BEING which EXISTS. Hence, I could see a possible infinite regress entailed in his view of QT. He surprised me though. He said an observation was a state of affairs that warrants an inference. Thus, to be observed it is to be state-of-affair'ed. SHEER NON-SENSE to my mind. I have no idea what that means. It is literally unintelligible to my mind.
All we know is that there are mathematical equations, probabilistic in nature, that enable us to relatively successfully predict certain aspects of material attributes for very small particles. But as the late Tom Van Flandern said, for all we know, there are entities smaller than the wavelength of light that travel faster than light that are causing these effects in ways that we can't observe. Ways that may very well be deterministic, ultimately. It can not be proven that reality is metaphysically indeterminate at the physical level. It is also not intuitive to me that it IS. Thus, it is speculative for me to base conclusions on what, to me, is a speculative hypothesis. Nor do I see anything in scripture that makes more sense IF the physical world is indeterministic. In the meanwhile, people behave as IF nature is predictable--i.e., deterministic. Otherwise, we could not function self-DETERMININGLY with respect to our BODIES.
According to Paul Davies, most run of the mill physicists and engineers believe there is an explanation for the seeming anti-realism aspects of QT that we just don't know. From what I've read, the rest of them tend to be very positivistic. And logical positivism is about as intellectually bankrupt of a philosophy as they come. No one can live consistently with it. But for us , it is meaningless, because it denies teleology. Tom, most hard-core scientists have radically wierd metaphysics that we're not even close to. They don't separate their science from their metaphysics any more than we do. It's not possible.
So consensus science is NOT what you want to build theology on. There are observations and there is math that models the observations. All else is laden with metaphysics. And those scientists who deny it are either knaive or or are trying to fool the public to keep their funding coming. Besides, consensus science has been consistently wrong, just as we would expect. Science isn't metaphysics. So it changes with new observations. The most plausible/parsimonious explanation of a given set of data will NOT necessarily be the most plausible/parsimonious explanation given a greater SUPER-set of data generated from better telescopes, microscopes, etc. Thus, scientific explanations ALWAYS keep changing with new data. It's the metaphysics that grounds those interpretations that theologians need be concerned with. | | Back to Top | | |
  |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 7/12/2009 12:48 PM (GMT -6) |   | You seem to equate "realism" with "deterministic causation" and thus assume QT denies deep reality. But the denial of "hidden variables" simply says we've gone as far down as we can go when we stipulate the wave packet of possibilities describing the quantum event in its superposition. Possibilities are the ultimate description of reality at this level. The wavefunction (or waveform) is REAL.
I'm NO expect. Nor am I knowledgeable enough to debate. But I took notes listening to one of the best--Polkinghorne. It becomes clearer if you smoke a joint (so Greg says!).
Tom | | Back to Top | | |
  |  JET Registered Member
 Date Joined Jun 2002 Total Posts : 397 | Posted 7/12/2009 5:57 PM (GMT -6) |   | I'm not well read on this stuff either, but it seems to me that quantum indeterminancy is a necessary (not sufficient, but necessary) condition for morally significant libertarian freedom to exist. My brain and central nervous system is the material "stuff" of which my "thoughts" are made, right? If there is no quantum indeterminancy, then there is no "place" in or upon which my spirit/mind may operate. My thoughts are represented by the various electronic/chemical synapses in the neurons in my brain, right? So if those material processes are deterministic, then my thoughts would be deterministic, right? Although quantum indeterminancy does not necessarily ENTAIL morally significant freedom (QI could mean only randomness), it seems quantum indeterminancy would be necessary to ALLOW for morally significant freedom. If we have reasons to believe in morally significant (libertarian) freedom, then it seems like we must posit quantum indeterminancy.
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 |  Similitude Registered Member
 Date Joined Apr 2004 Total Posts : 4968 | Posted 7/12/2009 8:33 PM (GMT -6) |   | Tom: Is it your view that ‘realism’ (metaphysical realism) entails ‘determinism’?
Jeff: Sorry Tom. Just saw this thread. Don't have much time. But the answer to the question is "no." But not all quantum theorists hold to the Copenhagen interpretation. Some hold to an interpretation that allows for realism--which is itself very wierd. They all recognize that the phenomena is indeterminate as far as humans can tell. But only positivism gets you to metaphysical uncertainty and metaphysical indeterminism. Van Flandern was right about that. There are other alternatives that would not be subject to test by the means of observation at our current disposal. But so what. Past generations didn't have the telescopes and microscopes we have now. God doesn't owe humans all details of how the world works. What He "owes" us is love--and that means the world must be characterized by a degree of predictability that allows us to meaningful act in a SELF-DETERMINING fashion using the LAWS of nature as MEANS to our ends.
Let me re-state what I said before, to make a point:
I got in a debate with a European quantum theorist on a forum. He said "to exist is to be observed." I asked him what an observation was. Because to me, an observation is an activity of an OBSERVER which is a BEING which EXISTS. Hence, I could see a possible infinite regress entailed in his view of QT. He surprised me though. He said an observation was a state of affairs that warrants an inference. Thus, to be observed it is to be state-of-affair'ed. SHEER NON-SENSE to my mind. I have no idea what that means. It is literally unintelligible to my mind.
To say that to exist is to be observed DOES create an infinite regress. These guys don't think through what they say. That's why the copenhagen interpretation is recognized by virtually everyone to be anti-realist.
But again, and really listen, here, because you still don't seem to get my epistemological approach on such matters: I agree with C.S. Lewis that "if nothing is obvious, nothing can be proved." Proof can be deductive, inductive, or abductive if you want to distinguish it from inductive. And inductive proofs are not proofs in the same way mathematical proofs are proofs. But the point is, all REAL knowledge is grounded in intuitions which are grounded, in another sense, in our categories of thought. And yet many of the most prominent scientists will tell you straight up that consensus science entails COUNTER-INTUITIVE claims like naturalism, materialism, temporal and spatial relativity (as opposed to Lorenztian relativity), atheistic-observer-dependent reality, and so on. If our intuitions are not the REAL grounds of our knowledge, C.S. Lewis is, IMO, right that NOTHING CAN BE PROVED OR KNOWN INTUITIVELY. It's over, epistemologically, at that point.
I see nothing intuitive about the idea that material particles are REALLY indeterministic in their motion and properties. Indeed, they can't be to God if your view of continual creation is true, because in that case God is PUTTING them continually exactly where they happen to be. They CAN be by my view, however, though they don't need to be to explain our experience.
So it's not intuitive, and I can't see how to get there aposteriori. Best I can tell, it's nothing but an extremely positivistic approach to the world of sense that would cause someone to be dogmatic about it. Lightning SEEMS indeterministic, superficially. But that proves nothing. We don't have PERFECT OBSERVATIONAL PERSPECTIVE. No scientists became indeterminists over lightning as far as I know. So I would REALLY love to hear Alan's take on this one.
Post Edited (Similtude) : 7/12/2009 9:52:46 PM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 7/13/2009 5:52 AM (GMT -6) |   | |
Tom: Is it your view that ‘realism’ (metaphysical realism) entails ‘determinism’?
Jeff: Sorry Tom. Just saw this thread. Don't have much time. But the answer to the question is "no."
Tom: Then why are you a determinist with respect to the physical world? You spoke with some conviction about the deterministic relations of physical entities, claiming that the outcomes of physical events follow deterministically from previous events.
So, to ask again—what informs this conviction of yours? I thought it was just your ‘realism’ (because you claim the indeterminism of QM would undermine realism). But you say your determinism doesn’t have anything to do with your realism. So what is it that tells you all physical entities behave exclusively deterministically?
Already posted:
You obviously believe we are volitionally free. So it must be your belief that we are ‘spirit’ (and/or ‘mind’) and that ‘spirit’ (and/or ‘mind’) is sufficiently free of the determining influence of our bodies and the surrounding material world. This freedom of the spirit/mind from the material allows you to posit freedom of choice operative in/upon the physical world. Right? The ‘mind’ can determine the ‘body’, can act as a cause within the otherwise utterly deterministic system of the material universe without being itself caused by that system. Our ‘spirits’ and/or ‘minds’ aren’t subject to the causality, the determining influence, which defines the material universe (in your view).
I’m interested in knowing WHY you’re not a determinist with regard to the behavior of the immaterial, spiritual world. Physical entities can only behave deterministically, but spirits and minds may behave freely? Why?
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“To be is to be observed” is, I believe, true. Its truth is entailed in trinitarian theism, and without any threat of infinite regress. This is why I asked if your ‘realism’ is an all-inclusive theory, i.e., if you include ALL the reality you believe exists within “the real.” For example, would you include the triune God? If so, then there’s no danger of an infinite regress, for with a trinitarian God there is (necessarily) address and response, the God-defining act of ‘observer’ and ‘observed’, of fully apprehending and fully apprehended ‘difference’. Nothing can exist which is not observed. Some perceive this insight without knowing what it means, without having the trinitarian resources to explain it (which ought not surprise us as trinitarian theologians). Bohr and Heisenberg said some very ‘non-realistic’ things (because they didn’t always draw good philosophical conclusions from their science), but it doesn’t follow that one need deny ‘realism’ in order to affirm indeterminacy in the created physical order. God needs to be brought into the equation.
Maybe we should say just what we mean by ‘realism’?
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Jeff: I see nothing intuitive about the idea that material particles are REALLY indeterministic in their motion and properties.
Tom: Neither do I. I don’t get my belief that the physical world behaves on some level indeterministically from my “intuition.” I get it from science, partly, and from theology, partly.
Jeff: Indeed, they can't be to God if your view of continual creation is true, because in that case God is PUTTING them continually exactly where they happen to be.
Tom: Jeff, HOW do you account for the free exercise of the human ‘spirit’ (and/or ‘mind’) then? Surely God sustains our spirits. Surely our spirits are ontologically dependent upon God as the source and provider of their very existence just as the physical creation is. Unless you want to deny creation ex nihilo and claim that the immaterial world is self-existing, ‘absolutely’ cut off from ‘all’ involvement and sustaining activity from God, you do with the immaterial spiritual world (which you believe is free) exactly what I do with the physical—i.e., suppose that God sustains it in its freedom. You seem to have this idea that “God sustains X” means “God determines X” when it comes to physical entities but not when it comes to spiritual entities. What in the world tells you that? Science? Theology? Intuition?
God can sustain entities in their power to self-determine. If this were not true we COULD NOT be free in ANY sense.
Jeff: …because in that case God is PUTTING them continually exactly where they happen to be.
Tom: Does God PUT you wherever YOU decide to be? No. You think YOU’RE free. And you know that your existence depends upon God’s sustaining activity—whatever that activity is. You’re not ‘absolutely’ cut off from divine presence and activity. But with physical entities all of a sudden God CAN’T be so present to sustain and also make room for self-determination on any level as is the case with spiritual entities? I don't get it. You admit the spiritual can act as a cause within the physical world so the two have to be closely related; yet God can sustain one (the spiritual) in its freedom to act while the same sustaining activity upon the other (physical) ENTAILS determinism?
Jeff: They CAN be by my view, however, though they don't need to be to explain our experience.
Tom: Actually I don’t have any problem believing God determines the collapse of quantum particles, but that he does so freely, even randomly. I’ve even entertained the possibility that God IS the wavefunction. That probability wave just IS God’s sustaining presence, holding the material world in its course at the quantum level probabilistically. Why probabilistically? Because God’s creative. Because he likes to change things up. Because he likes variety. Because he’s free and freedom is what issues from him.
What experience do you have of the world that tells you all events in the material world follow deterministically (excepting the immaterial event of the human volition being a cause in the material world)?
T Post Edited (Tom) : 7/13/2009 6:04:35 AM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Similitude Registered Member
 Date Joined Apr 2004 Total Posts : 4968 | Posted 7/13/2009 6:23 AM (GMT -6) |   | TOM: “To be is to be observed” is, I believe, true. Its truth is entailed in trinitarian theism, and without any threat of infinite regress. This is why I asked if your ‘realism’ is an all-inclusive theory, i.e., if you include ALL the reality you believe exists within “the real.” For example, would you include the triune God? If so, then there’s no danger of an infinite regress, for with a trinitarian God there is (necessarily) address and response, the God-defining act of ‘observer’ and ‘observed’, of fully apprehending and fully apprehended ‘difference’. Nothing can exist which is not observed.
JEFF: You aren't meaning it the phrase they way they mean it. They mean reality is observer-dependent. I.e., maybe beings exist BECAUSE they are observed. But that is non-sense. You can't observe what doesn't exist. So maybe they mean the attributes of beings are what they are BECAUSE they are observed. But, Tom, SERIOUSLY, how could you possibly know that the attributes of the Son ARE WHAT THEY ARE because the Father observes him? And what does it mean to observe a non-3-dimensional entity? You haven't explained anything yet. You're being as elusive in meaning as they are.
TOM: Why probabilistically? Because God’s creative. Because he likes to change things up.
JEFF: But that's the point, Tom. CREATIVITY IS SELF-DETERMINISM. It is NOT non-intelligent randomness. Hence, there is nothing probabilistic about what matter does TO GOD per your view. There CAN BE with my view. Indeterminism and self-determinism are two different modes of eventuality.
Tom: What experience do you have of the world that tells you all events in the material world follow deterministically (excepting the immaterial event of the human volition being a cause in the material world)?
Jeff: None. Just like I have no experiences that tell me the world is indeterministic. There are no experiences that could POSSIBLY tell me either one. Nor do I have an intuition for either. That's why I simply don't posit either. But we do NEED some degree of predictability/determinism in the physical world to be able to use nature as MEANS to our ENDS. That's all I'm saying. I don't NEED the physical world to be UNPREDICTABLE except for providing my experience with novelty. But I don't experience the sub-atomic world in the first place--not directly to my senses, i.e. In short, neither metaphysical determinism of non-volitional beings nor metaphysical indeterminism of non-volitional beings is a metaphysical belief we can know APRIORI OR APOSTERIORI. The only reason to posit one over the other is to solve something you think needs to be solved. What is that per your approach?
All the time I have for now.
P.S. Again, to re-clarify, since you've forgotten apparently: I don't believe God has to sustain anything in existence once He creates it. He would have to ANNIHILATE a created entity for it to go out of existence. But given UR, I don't see why that would ever happen. ALL THINGS are redeemed. This is part of what it means for God to be FULLY COMPETENT--NOTHING IS WASTED.
And one more time: If it is God who is CAUSING the material entities to have the attributes they have, those attributes can NOT be indeterminant to GOD. And thus, metaphysical uncertainty/indeterminism IS FALSE. And whether your view is correct or not, it IS a logical possibility. And therefore there is no APOSTERIORI way to PROVE or DEMONSTRATE metaphysical uncertainty/indeterminism. It only SEEMS so to us--JUST LIKE LIGHTNING. But QT theorists tend to be atheistic AND positivistic. So if THEY don't have sufficient perspective, what they observe IS the way it is. The problem is, LIGHTNING!!!!!!!!! And a host of others!!!!!!!!!!!!!! These people are NOT CONSISTENT.
Post Edited (Similtude) : 7/13/2009 7:02:35 AM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 7/13/2009 7:07 AM (GMT -6) |   | Well, thanks for the convo Jeff! Appreciate it. We have a lot in common. But we differ on a WHOLE lot too.
Blessings, Tom | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Asher Registered Member
 Date Joined Apr 2003 Total Posts : 477 | Posted 7/13/2009 8:22 PM (GMT -6) |   | | I am constantly amazed by the great degree of agreement I can find with someone, only to scratch some other particular and find that I am in radical disagreement with them about that. | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Similitude Registered Member
 Date Joined Apr 2004 Total Posts : 4968 | Posted 7/13/2009 8:33 PM (GMT -6) |   | |
No problem, Tom. It's good to see where we differ so as to see why we take the routes we do. That way we know what to address.
But it's important to understand how different people use the language of QT. When a copenhagen adherent says we can't determine the location of a particle, if they are positivistic in their metaphysics, they basically MEAN the particle HAS NO location at that time. But I have no idea what a particle IS if it has no location. That doesn't compute to my mind at all. There is a reason why there is lots of debate about it even amongst the most prestigious scientists. Because their metaphysical approach dictates how they think about it. The observational data, per se, can't tell us the metaphysical truth about it. Because we have LIMITED perspective which MIGHT be insufficient to know how even SMALLER particles that move even FASTER play into the phenomena we can actually observe WITH LIGHT.
The late Tom Van Flandern told me by phone (I always had to call up to re-subscribe to his bulletin), because I inquired, that no scientists ever challenged his views on QT. I think the reason is simple. They know that their differences are philosophical and not APOSTERIORI. A very good book on the subject is "The Ghost in the Atom," co-authored by Paul Davies. There are some good websites that talk about the virtual unintelligible language of much of modern physics. Stuff like virtual particles.
The reason why this state of affairs has come about is because the math that models the observations has variables and constants that can't be easily attributed to any attributes the mind can conceive of. So physicists start making up words to assign to those variales/constants that really have no intelligible meaning to the human mind. But how else can they communicate to each other which variables/constants their talking about?
But if Van Flandern is right, there may very well be perfectly intelligible entities and attributes that those variables and constants correspond to, though we have no theory, as of yet, to explain it. But that's what science IS--the continual attempt to explain as simply (analogically) as possible what we, as yet, have no confirmed explanation for. Nothing to get worked up over, then. Science is always dealing with the UNKNOWN and the NOT YET UNDERSTOOD.
Van Flandern held to ideas I reject, too. He believed the universe was infinite in extent and scale. He pretty much had to posit that to avoid the problems with a finite universe since he was an atheist. But again, that shows how metaphysics CONSTRAINS our way of thinking. I try to explain things as analogously/parsimoniously as possible. To me that is the criteria to use. There is an infinte set of merely logically-possible solutions if you don't mind having to posit as many non-intuitive unknowables as it takes to render them coherent.
I allow for supra-categoral relations. These would be meaningless to me, since I couldn't think in terms of them. But they would not be contradictory to my categories. What I can't allow for, because to do so is to commit intellectual suicide, is that reality is COUNTER-categorical. To do that is to give up any way of meaningfully talking about open theism or anything else. "If nothing is obvious, nothing can be proved."
Post Edited (Similtude) : 7/13/2009 9:26:36 PM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 7/17/2009 9:39 AM (GMT -6) |   | This will disappoint Jeff, but I think I have to say that human were mortal (contingently so of course, for we shall become immortal) prior to the arrival of human sin. More specifically (in answer to your question Jeff), yes, I think babies did die prior to the Fall. That's not a problem-free view obviously. But it causes less problems for me, even if it makes me look silly.
Tom | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Similitude Registered Member
 Date Joined Apr 2004 Total Posts : 4968 | Posted 7/17/2009 2:23 PM (GMT -6) |   | |
Tom: This will disappoint Jeff, but I think I have to say that human were mortal (contingently so of course, for we shall become immortal) prior to the arrival of human sin.
Jeff: I define the words differently. To me, mortal means you will most assuredly die. Or, as Genesis says, DYING THOU SHALT DIE. Immortal means, we will most assuredly NOT die. So what Adam was, IMO, was a being that could die, say if he didn't eat, but that did not HAVE to die in the way mortals do. And by eating of the tree of life, he could contine to live and "beat" whatever entropic processes would have led to death, otherwise.
Tom: More specifically (in answer to your question Jeff), yes, I think babies did die prior to the Fall.
Jeff: I think they COULD have died, but that it would have been due to human negligence rather than natural evil.
Tom: That's not a problem-free view obviously. But it causes less problems for me, even if it makes me look silly.
Jeff: Right. It's important to see that ALL world-views have aspects that SEEM to be problematic. That keeps us humble. I don't see your view as being less problematic than mine, of course. And it's not babies dying before the Fall, per se, that seems silly to me. What seems silly to me is saying that if the world was created as it is NOW, with all the existing natural evils, that the probability of even ONE fetus or infant dying is less than 1. To my mind, the probability of LOTS of infants and fetuses dying, given those conditions, is CLEARLY 1. Indeed, for you to say otherwise, IMO, seems to be just a deduction from an intuition about God. It has nothing to do with EMPIRICAL or APOSTERIORI reasoning.
And that's the point. We BOTH believe that God MUST be benevolent to even account for the competence of our APOSTERIORI and DISCURSIVE apprehensive abilities. All else is simply trying to work out a coherent way of explaining how that can be, given a world of seemingly "vain" suffering. If suffering didn't seem vain at all, for anyone, then there would be no perceived problem of evil at all.
I was reading Thomas Kuhn a while back. He made a great point. He said we're all trying to account for our experience in a way that seems most simple to us (I would add that we want it simpler if and only if simple is more SATISFYING!). And he added that that will always be relativistic ("in the eye of the beholder," IOW). That is true. We have different intellectual strengths and weaknesses that account for that relativity. In science, we supposedly come up with TESTS to rule out that relativistic bias. In philosophy, we can't. So consensus in philosophy is hard to attain.
What is important, then, is to realize that to argue against benevolent theism is to prove TOO MUCH. It proves that the premises of our very arguments were unknowable. Thus, to disbelieve in benevolent theism is to disbelieve in any CLAIM with certainty. For to be certain is to "see" intuitively that some TRUE criteria has been satisfied. As Lewis said:
1) If nothing is obvious, nothing can be proved.
2) We can't prove there are proofs.
3) We can't prove there are no proofs.
In reality, we just believe (NOT PROVE) that we are designed TO apprehend and that we can reason inferentially/discursively to valid conclusions, therefore. CORRELATIVE with that belief is the benevolence of God (just as finite is correlative with infinite). You can't have one without the other. So all we're really doing is arguing theodicy once we accept that to apprehend and reason inferentially implies the benevolence of our designer. Theodicy, i.e., in the sense that we're trying to explain HOW God is good, not WHETHER He is good. Right? We will make inferential errors about that just like scientists have been wrong historically on about everything. And yet we don't assume that science, PER SE, is bogus.
As for indeterminism, you say God knows where all entities are at any GIVEN time and what their other attributes are. Thus, nothing about the attributes of entities is unknown to God at any GIVEN time. That, alone, rules out absolute indeterminism. Thus, the Copenhagen view is just false, as most physicists believe it to be. The Copenhagen view, according to what I've read, is only held by a majority of ELITE scientists who tend to be atheists. Their opinion, to be consistent, has to be consistent with ATHEISM. And that's the problem. How do you get to an atheistic, observer-dependent reality? I don't see how unless you define "observation" as meaninglessly as some do to try to render it coherent. But then it's worthless as an explanation because the terms involved are meaningless.
Moreover, the plurality of the godhead doesn't help us there unless, by "observation," those scientists mean non-3D entities "knowing" about other non-3D entities. I have no reason to believe they mean any such thing. Furthermore, the plurality of the godhead, per se, doesn't entail the necessity that their existence DEPENDS on the awareness of each other. That would involve, it seems to me, the positing of a separate, non-intuitive, non-categorical, non-falsifiable, non-testable claim--which is what I'm trying to avoid. And if God is literally continuously creating 3-D particles, moment-by-moment, God truly does DETERMINE their attributes, moment-by-moment. That is not true of volitional beings. WE DETERMINE some of our attributes. We are SELF-DETERMINING, to some extent. So we truly are stuck with 2 categories of causality, per your view, as far as I can tell--deterministic (natural) and self-determining (volitional).
I'm, frankly, quite unimpressed with the metaphysics of atheism. It is arbitrary at best, and downright incoherent and/or meaningless, at worst. They're trying to get something from nothing. Ain't doable.
P.S. To my mind, a physical particle, by definition, is 3-D. That means it is spatially extended, which means it takes up space. But that means it's SOMEWHERE, no matter what physicists say. Physicists can't trump definitions. If there is an entity which, at certain points of time, has no location, we are NOT talking about a physical particle, as I define it. I just listened to a guru lecture on the subject. He admitted FRANKLY that QT is COUNTER-INTUITIVE.
That's no way to do metaphysics. That degree of skepticism about intuitions/categories implies the impossibility of discursive/aposteriori knowledge as well, whether he's thought it through or not. Neo explained it to him, but he's too dense to get it. Other notables DO GET IT. Sir Martin Rees, e.g., realizes that atheism entails the possibility that he is just a simulation with no experience of "reality" as it "really is," blurring the "boundaries" between realism and idealism.
Great mathematicians (which is what a lot of physicists are) can be VERY BAD METAPHYSICIANS. Just like great metaphysicians may be elementary mathematicians. The difference is, an elementary mathematician can be RIGHT about the math he/she knows. But it is difficult to be a mediocre metaphysician and be right. When it comes to metaphysics, a little knowledge is dangerous. Because it's easier to make category mistakes in metaphysical speculation than about elementary mathematical relations. Indeed, that's why there is no real debate about elementary math.
One more thing. As for probability playing into volition, I think it clearly does with respect to what I called FC2--those directed modes of thought/action which have to do with recognizing and deploying means to PREVIOUSLY chosen ends. Given some "normal" set of conditions prevailing over some duration of time, we can speak probabilistically about that, meaningfully. But that ORIGINAL choice, that's something different altogether. I don't see how we can apply probability to that.
Post Edited (Similtude) : 7/17/2009 3:58:05 PM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Similitude Registered Member
 Date Joined Apr 2004 Total Posts : 4968 | Posted 7/19/2009 11:47 AM (GMT -6) |   | JEFF1: One more thing. As for probability playing into volition, I think it clearly does with respect to what I called FC2--those directed modes of thought/action which have to do with recognizing and deploying means to PREVIOUSLY chosen ends. Given some "normal" set of conditions prevailing over some duration of time, we can speak probabilistically about that, meaningfully. But that ORIGINAL choice, that's something different altogether. I don't see how we can apply probability to that.
JEFF2: Let me give an example. God, having chosen to create to attain certain ends, will, with a probability of 1, do what it takes to maximize the satisfaction of all sentient beings VIA that creation. But what was the probability that God chose to create? Was it .5 simply because creating and not creating constitute 2 possible SOFA's? Is there, analogously, a 50% chance that God will create anew at any given point of time for that same reason? If not, how is assinging a 50% chance to God's creating anything but a statement of our ignorance on the matter? Those kinds of original choices are hard to apply probability to. Once we make some original choice, however, what that "chooser" does thereafter can be relatively predictable GIVEN certain knowable NATURAL means to those ENDS.
Though, with God, even THAT can be virtually impossible to predict. Because the means to His ends involve knowledge of precise conditions we are not privy to--like what is the boundary of God's long-suffering, how many times can God intervene in history manifestly and still enhance satisfaction, etc. But if someone decides to go to college and major in some particular field of study, we can predict a great deal about what kinds of activities will be performed by that chooser, thereafter. Though we may not be able to pinpoint specific times and places for those KINDS of activities, since there are multiple options about some of those in some cases.
Post Edited (Similtude) : 7/19/2009 5:26:00 PM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Similitude Registered Member
 Date Joined Apr 2004 Total Posts : 4968 | Posted 7/19/2009 4:27 PM (GMT -6) |   | |
I found this interesting (from http://www.stat.berkeley.edu/~stark/SticiGui/Text/gloss.htm#probability_theories):
Probability, Theories of.
A theory of probability is a way of assigning meaning to probability statements such as "the chance that a thumbtack lands point-up is 2/3." That is, a theory of probability connects the mathematics of probability, which is the set of consequences of the axioms of probability, with the real world of observation and experiment. There are several common theories of probability. According to the frequency theory of probability, the probability of an event is the limit of the percentage of times that the event occurs in repeated, independent trials under essentially the same circumstances. According to the subjective theory of probability, a probability is a number that measures how strongly we believe an event will occur. The number is on a scale of 0% to 100%, with 0% indicating that we are completely sure it won't occur, and 100% indicating that we are completely sure that it will occur. According to the theory of equally likely outcomes, if an experiment has n possible outcomes, and (for example, by symmetry) there is no reason that any of the n possible outcomes should occur preferentially to any of the others, then the chance of each outcome is 100%/n. Each of these theories has its limitations, its proponents, and its detractors.
There is an obvious reason why "each of these theories has its ... proponents, and its detractors." Because "each ... has its limitations." There is no probabilistic theory, to my knowledge, than can be proved to correspond to the way the world really is. IOW, the world could be completely deterministic apart from volition and we couldn't prove otherwise. And in that case, probability is just a way of giving us something to go on that is not purely arbitrary. E.g., the theory "of equally likely outcomes" is non-arbitrary precisely because giving equal weights to possible outcomes uses the notion of analogy at the most basic level. I.e., it is to say that we have no reason to believe the outcomes are weighted, thus, by analogy, one outcome is LIKE the other in its likelihood of occurance.
At all times, the human mind is struggling to account for phenomena as analogically as is possible (Dembski's research is also quite worthwhile and suggestive on the topic of how we try, when possible, to replace the probabilitic with the analogical). But which analogical approach one uses has to do with which seems more intuitive to them and/or the relationships between the kind of experiences they've had and the way those experiences seem to indicate which analogies are most successful when applied to future predictions.
There is relativity here. No way around it. All we can do, IMO, with respect to the former, is to see whose intuitions explain things most parsimoniously and, with respect to the latter, compare experiences so as to INCREASE the data we are to account for analogically. It is this continual increasing of data that forces analogical-thinking scientists to constantly revise their theories.
The thing is, to reason analogically IS to think parsimoniously. By definition, to explain MORE data by what is already known/believed IS to explain more parsimoniously. It is to avoid the sui generis when possible. I can't even think of an example of what we mean by "more plausible" that doesn't, in some way, mean "more analogical."
It is not seeing the world "as it is" that is the goal of science. It is seeing the world as is best fitted to HUMAN ends as is possible (where little is given, little is required; where much is given, much is required). We may never know the smallest particles or the causes of all phenomena. But that doesn't stop us from 1) knowing as much as is analogically possible so as to predict the future successfully enough to deploy means to attain ends and 2) to see the forms, patterns, trENDS, and tENDencies that God has wrought for our wonder and aesthetic pleasure.
But there very well may be aspects of God's creation that we can not observe or understand which has nothing to do with any intrinsic randomness or unpredictability. This could be because of the requirements for parsimony or some other preferred feature of reality, or because they were meant for the observation and inspiration of angels, or because they were meant for the aesthetic pleasure of the Father/Son, or some combination of these. Positivists and atheists deny that any of these non-anthropocentric ends are real or possible.
But what do positivists and atheists know about the matter if theism is actually true? I have a video series on relativity. The lecturer admits that Lorentzian relativity is a possible explanation of Einstein's equations. If that is so, and positivism is false, then it is obvious why no one claimed that Van Flandern was wrong. All they claimed was that they disagreed with him. But Van Flandern told me that throughout his career scientists would disagree with him MERELY on the supposed "authority" of Einstein. But science has NOTHING TO DO with authoritarianism. To hold to authoritarianism in science is like trumping scripture with tradition. It is to turn the epistemological order of the sequence of discursive thought on its head.
Obviously, Einstein would have never blazed new territory had he stuck with authoritarianism. Science can't progress that way. When scientists remain in the theoretical straight-jacket of authoritarianism, they do what has actually BEEN done--they posit the counter-categorical/intuitive to "explain" the data without allowing for those explanatory possibilities (which are non-amenable to atheism, positivism, and authoritarianism) which render our categories/intuitions coherent with our experience.
Post Edited (Similtude) : 7/19/2009 7:28:12 PM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
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