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451
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   Posted 10/8/2011 7:08 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Similitude said, "I dare say there have been plenty of believers who have lived and died with no knowledge of the Chalcedonian claims and without ever even thinking about what they convened to discuss. Why do I think that? Because I had never heard of or conceived of that claim until I read it right here on this forum. I don't think it would have ever dawned on me to posit dual conscious states of the Son during his incarnation. Nor am I aware of what scriptural texts require that explanatory route or are even more plausibly explained that way."


I think this is an important point and has been throughout the history of the theological discussion. We cannot be responsible for what we do not know. The culpability is confined to those who understand and deny truth. There is a different culpability for those who refuse to learn, of course.
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Similitude
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   Posted 10/9/2011 3:35 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
451: We cannot be responsible for what we do not know. The culpability is confined to those who understand and deny truth. There is a different culpability for those who refuse to learn, of course.
 
Jeff: True. But learning tradition is not the same thing as learning THAT it is true. I can learn the Talmud without having any obligation to believe it. So teach me how you know the tradition in question is true. Then and only then am I obligated to believe it.


 

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One Love
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   Posted 10/10/2011 11:17 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
http://www.wesleyantheology.com/did-jesus-operate-as-god.html
 
--------------------------------------------------
 
The Character of the Theandric Union

The character of the theandric union necessitates a dual functioning of Christ’s two natures: the divine and human natures participates in every action of Christ. This concept is important to defend the biblical teaching that Christ is the enfleshed revelation of God.

Following are a few verses that emphasize the truth of the incarnation, that Christ was God manifested in the flesh.

Jesus was called Emmanuel, which means “God with us” (Matt 1:23).

“Without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh…” (I Timothy 3:16a).

For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily (Colossians 2:9).

God had become flesh in the person of Jesus. The fullness of the Godhead dwelled in Christ bodily; the human nature indwelled the divine nature as the divine nature indwelled the human. The expression “all the fullness of the Godhead dwells in him bodily” is never used of a mere prophet or apostle. For Him to have all the fullness of God dwelling in Him bodily means that He Himself is fully God, and is expressing Himself as both fully human and fully God.

“Paul taught that ‘in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form’ (Col. 2:9). Church teaching interpreted this to mean that the divine nature penetrates and perfects every aspect of the human, and human is pervaded by the divine (John of Damascus...). This was powerfully conveyed by the term perichoresis.…

“The perichoresis or active intermingling of the natures was that abundant interpenetration…by which the divine nature of the Son pervaded inwardly the human nature so as fully to impart his divinity to his humanity and his God-manhood to every aspect of his action…. In this way the deity participated in the Passion of the humanity and the humanity in the majesty of the deity without blurring or confusing either.”

If this perichoretic participation of both natures really took place, the deity of Christ was active during Christ’s temptations and his miracles. The Logos was not dormant during those times in Christ’s life, nor at any other time.

“Some challengers to ecumenical Christology have persisted in holding that the Logos has become reduced to the limits of human nature, disavowing eternality, destitute of divine attributes. They say that the divine nature became dormant, paralyzed, or even nonexistent during Christ’s earthly ministry.

“There is no exegetical warrant for this conclusion, for in Scripture it is precisely the Word that has become flesh to dwell among us, not the Word that ceased to be in becoming flesh. The New Testament does not imply that the Logos in becoming flesh temporarily quit being Logos and began being merely a man. Rather ‘the Word became flesh and dwelt among us’ (John 1:14). The central point is that God became flesh without contradiction or negation of either deity or humanity (I Tim. 3:16; I John 4:2; John 1:14).”

Consistency with Orthodox Christology

If one’s view is to be accepted as tenable, it must not only line up with Scripture, but also with the major ecumenical creeds and councils of the church (insofar as they are consistent with Scripture). I have found no good reason to reject what the church has always taught regarding the nature of Christ. In fact, it can be dangerous to reject orthodox Christology:

“The saving mediatorial work becomes impossible if one separates the two natures of Christ, as Nestorius did, or if one only ascribes to Him one divine nature, like the Monophysites, or if one curtails one part of human nature, like Apollinarius, or if one only sees in Him a single divine will and operation, like the Monothelites.”


Lord Jesus Christ, Son of God, have mercy on me, a sinner.

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One Love
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   Posted 10/10/2011 4:39 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
This is a great visual analogy for how we are whoopin' the Ericksonian kenotic view.

Ha.


Lord Jesus Christ, Son of God, have mercy on me, a sinner.

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451
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   Posted 10/10/2011 6:16 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
There are two things in One Love's long quote/post that concern me, even though I think it is a good overall statement.
First, it is not really accurate to say that "God had become flesh in the Person of Jesus." This is why we use distinctives such as "the Logos" or "the Son." There is a branch of kenotic theology that teaches that God poured Himself out, that He no longer exists as separate deity, because of the Incarnation. In fact, the historical wording is almost always that the Logos "took on flesh." There was an addition of natures, not a subtraction.
Also, the perichoresis is an attempt to resolve the tension of the three Persons of the Godhead. It seems to me that it is not applicable to the dual natures in Jesus. I understand that the Trinitarians would have us think that somehow humanity was brought into God, into the eternal dance, and that all humanity is redeemed by that assumption. However, whatever tension the two natures of Jesus bring to the union is resolved not by a perichoresis, but by the simple fact that they are together in one Person. As a person, a thinking, willful, being, Jesus is able to harmonize whatever struggles or distinctions may be found.
Thus, the two natures maintain their reality, influence, and character - while not requiring us to identify or categorize their distinctions as we consider the person of Jesus.
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Similitude
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   Posted 10/10/2011 8:32 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
D: If one’s view is to be accepted as tenable, it must not only line up with Scripture, but also with the major ecumenical creeds and councils of the church (insofar as they are consistent with Scripture).

J: Catholics would say you're wrong about many things using the exact same kind of reasoning. Hence, such pontifications prove too much.
 
Here's what scripture gets us to. Jesus not only preexisted the creation, but the creation came into being through him and for him. Incarnation did not and could not have undone that historical fact. Nor can I see how incarnation, per se, would have jeopardized his maximally becoming the beneficiary of creation. In fact, scripture seems to indicate that his incarnation was actually a means to that very end. Thus, his deity (the fact that all things are through and for him) could not have been affected by his incarnation whether or not he was omniscient or omnipresent in any sense during his incarnation.

Creeds may define the deity of the Son in some other way that scripture never hints at. But that's irrelevant until those additional claims are confirmed with signs and wonders. Until then, we are told to not judge people over such matters and let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind.


 

Post Edited (Similitude) : 10/10/2011 8:42:19 PM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 10/10/2011 8:46 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
I'm interested, Jeff. What do you disagree with the Ecumenical Councils in particular? In other words, what is articulated in the Ecumenical Councils that is not biblically or theologically justifiable?


Lord Jesus Christ, Son of God, have mercy on me, a sinner.

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One Love
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   Posted 10/11/2011 7:54 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Well, they got it right, it seems.

"At the heart of the gospel of salvation is God’s incarnation in Jesus of Nazareth."

I'm tellin' ya. John Wesley is the CORRECTIVE for what ails evangelicalism.


Lord Jesus Christ, Son of God, have mercy on me, a sinner.

Post Edited (One Love) : 10/11/2011 7:59:55 AM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 10/11/2011 8:36 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Welcome, 451. ;-)

451:
I understand that the Trinitarians would have us think that somehow humanity was brought into God, into the eternal dance, and that all humanity is redeemed by that assumption. However, whatever tension the two natures of Jesus bring to the union is resolved not by a perichoresis, but by the simple fact that they are together in one Person. As a person, a thinking, willful, being, Jesus is able to harmonize whatever struggles or distinctions may be found.

1) I noticed that you said the "two natures of Jesus". IMO, I think that catches us up a lot. Because that type of thinking leads to trying to attribute both "fully" divine and human attributes solely to the human being, Jesus. Leads to confusing, non-helpful questions. It's like this: Jesus is the Co-Eternal Uncreated Word of the Transcendent God the Father become human flesh--He added fully human experience (ala Jesus) to his own (non-ceasingly hypostatic) uncreated experience...and the Uncreated, Eternal Word of God doesn't stop being so, simply because He's become incarnate in the humanity of Jesus. John 1:1 doesn't stop being true at the moment of Immaculate Conception...does it?

It's much better to say "Jesus is the Incarnate Word of God the Father by the power of the Holy Spirit."  Jesus is the Word (ala John 1:1) that has taken on our human nature in Jesus. 

I know that's long..but that's true...right? And it helps people understand."  And it's all biblical.

"OHHHH. So Jesus is the human enfleshment of co-eternal, uncreated Word spoken of in John 1:1, huh? Hmmm... So He's always been (and always will be) with the God the Father, even while he was fully here with us in Jesus.  Hmm. That makes sense I guess. He can't stop being the "Word" that he is just because he was a baby in Mary's belly."

 

2) How do you define "person"?


Lord Jesus Christ, Son of God, have mercy on me, a sinner.

Post Edited (One Love) : 10/11/2011 8:43:29 AM (GMT-5)

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451
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   Posted 10/11/2011 10:14 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Thanks for the welcome! I did my PhD dissertation on the Kenosis, primarily because I struggled against the popular acceptance of the doctrine in denominational credentialing councils for 20 years before that. I was increasingly amazed at candidates from evangelical schools who readily accepted kenoticism simply because that's what they were taught. The primary topic at issue, as mentioned in this thread, was omnipresence. The question I asked was, "At what period of His ministry did Jesus speak the words of Matt. 18:20 ('For where two or three are gathered together in My name, I am there in the midst of them.')?" Obviously this was before the Resurrection, during the time they asserted He was either apart from or hiding His divine attributes. It usually caused them some consternation.

The error of Christology usually centers around the union of the two natures. Either we emphasize the human at the cost of the divine or the divine at the cost of the human. Or we lose both by asserting a new identity, or keep both so separate that we maintain two Persons. That seems to be the pattern through history.

I would never suggest that the name, Jesus, is simply the designation of the human nature. We don't say that the Logos added humanity through (or "ala";-) Jesus, but that the Logos became Jesus. To the divine nature, human nature was added in one Person, Jesus the Son of God. In Jesus the Logos dwells bodily with denial of neither deity or humanity. Somehow there is perfect harmony of the two. At the same time, the two are not mixed so as to lose attributes of either. Actually, I wonder whether we even have the language to describe the identify of Jesus. As I read what I wrote here, even to say that the Logos dwells in Jesus is a misstatement. The two are not and can never be separate. I like what you say: "Jesus is the Incarnate Word of God the Father by the power of the Holy Spirit."

"...one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, only begotten, to be acknowledged in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, but rather the property of each nature being preserved, and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons, but one and the same Son, and only begotten God (μονογενῆ Θεὸν), the Word, the Lord Jesus Christ;" - Definition of Chalcedon
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One Love
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   Posted 10/11/2011 10:44 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
451:
I would never suggest that the name, Jesus, is simply the designation of the human nature. We don't say that the Logos added humanity through (or "ala" Jesus, but that the Logos became Jesus. To the divine nature, human nature was added in one Person, Jesus the Son of God. In Jesus the Logos dwells bodily with denial of neither deity or humanity. Somehow there is perfect harmony of the two. At the same time, the two are not mixed so as to lose attributes of either. Actually, I wonder whether we even have the language to describe the identify of Jesus. As I read what I wrote here, even to say that the Logos dwells in Jesus is a misstatement. The two are not and can never be separate. I like what you say: "Jesus is the Incarnate Word of God the Father by the power of the Holy Spirit."

I don't think that we essentially disagree. Perhaps the language it too imprecise. My point with my language is simply that "Jesus" would not exist--even in theory--without the intentionality of the incarnation of the Uncreated, Eternal Logos/Word/Son of God the Father into creaturely (human) existence. "Jesus of Nazareth, son of Mary" only exists because of the free decision of the God to take on human particularity for the sake of our salvation. Right?  Human experience was "added" to God the Word's hypostatic self-understanding with "becoming" Jesus. Right?  Right.

Of course, I'd never say that there was any time of Jesus' existence that he was not HYPOSTATICALLY IDENTICAL to the Co-Eternal Word of God the Father...as if "Jesus" were just the human cultural "name" for the Logo's human "suit." As the Creed says, the Co-Eternal Word and Jesus are the same person. If that is your caution, consider it taken, my friend. :-)


Lord Jesus Christ, Son of God, have mercy on me, a sinner.

Post Edited (One Love) : 10/11/2011 10:47:10 AM (GMT-5)

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451
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   Posted 10/11/2011 11:08 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Yep. That's where I was going.

During one of these councils I attended, a man asked me if I believed that the baby in Mary's womb had all the attributes of God, including that He was also present in Heaven. I said, "Of course!" Another man asked how Jesus could be here in the flesh with the disciples and also in Heaven. He suggested that no one else could do that. Obviously, I agreed with his second statement and I affirmed the truth, if not the easy explanation, of the first. He thought I was saying that Jesus was only partially here. My answer was something to the effect that we do not suggest that Jesus only "partially" listens when many of us pray at the same time. We had some interesting debates...

And that's my real concern with the idea of kenotic theology. If Jesus emptied Himself of the divine attributes, then how can He provide what I need? Does He really hear my prayers? Is He truly with me, as He said? To take away the attributes of God in Jesus is to take away the power of the Lord I need.
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One Love
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   Posted 10/11/2011 11:37 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
451:
that's my real concern with the idea of kenotic theology. If Jesus emptied Himself of the divine attributes, then how can He provide what I need? Does He really hear my prayers? Is He truly with me, as He said? To take away the attributes of God in Jesus is to take away the power of the Lord I need.

Some reasons I think some evangelicals like the kenotic theology.

1) It makes more superficial sense of Jesus' unity of person (and will) with respect to him still being ACTUALLY God in human flesh. It's easier to effectively collapse His divinity into his humanity (whether by saying it's His free choice or some metaphysical self-limitation)...and then say it's reflective of God's self-giving, kenotic nature...than it is for them to say that that Jesus was personally in the Andromeda Galaxy at the very same time that he was in the manager with Mary and Joseph. Basically, it's a case of being "offended" at the idea that God the Word/Son/Logos, fully Himself, can become fully human while not reliquishing any of his full Godhood.

2) The "kenotic view" of Jesus is seen the supreme example of a fully human being expressing God-defining love via the power of the Spirit. By limiting God the Son's activity solely to the human nature, then can be assured that everything Jesus did, we can do...because he was assured that he was merely human, like we are, empowered by the Spirit...like we CAN be. Being like Jesus then doesn't become an unreachable goal, but a true possibility (at least at they think of it.)

3) They view it as the ultimate kenosis, the ultimate exemplification of self-giving love. By God the Son only operating within the confines of his human nature...and choosing to give up all his godhood "advantages"...he supposedly is modeling to the infinite degree the incarnational self-giving heart that he is. Willingness to "give it all up" as it were to be like a supreme moral example idea, I guess.

4) They don't know how positing this drastically affects the whole redemption process.  As long as Jesus is "God enough" to show and tell them that they'll be saved for "heaven" by believing in His work...and that be meaningful...that's all they need.

What do you think, Tom?


Lord Jesus Christ, Son of God, have mercy on me, a sinner.

Post Edited (One Love) : 10/11/2011 11:47:05 AM (GMT-5)

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Tom
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   Posted 10/11/2011 12:15 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
I think Evangelicals overall, and over time, have come to dislike 'mystery' more and more and so more naturally (now) tend toward a theology void of it.

I'm OK with "adding" because that's how I take the verb "taking" in Phil. 2. And I do understand the name Jesus to designated the Son in his humanity. That would have to be IF the Son continues to be omnipresent throughout the earthly career of Jesus, since Jesus (i.e., the Son "in his humanity" ) is not omnipresent.

What's VERY interesting is the question of the NATURAL capacities of Jesus' glorified body/psyche. Because Greg ranted on and on about "finite spaciality" being ESSENTIAL to human being (i.e., nothing HUMAN could be omnipresent in ANY conceivable state), that would mean Jesus' glorified body is floating around somewhere, located at some specific point in the universe. I don't doubt that it CAN materialize at specific points on occasion. But if the glorified body of Jesus can be omnipresent in some transcendent sense (D and I have talked about how) by virtue of glorification, then what's that tell us about what's impossible for "human being" per se (and thus of Greg's argument)?

Greg is on the horns of a dilemma here, because HE insists both that a) omnipresence is definitionally impossible for human being given its embodied state (this is WHY he goes with kenoticism anyhow, to "fit" the divine Son "into" the constraints of what "being human" essentially requires), AND THAT b) post-resurrection this is all reversed and the Son/Logos was once again omnipresent. But HOW? Given Greg's reasons for going with kenoticism in the first place, and give the irrevocability of the union of God and humanity in Christ, how in the world can the Son in his glorified body transcend the DEFINITIONAL limitations of embodiment and be omnipresent again? For Greg, the Son MUST REMAIN forever bound to the constraints of the embodied Jesus because the union is irrevocable (so the Son is irrevocably human--in addition to being divine) and the finite limitation of human embodiment essential to being human (as Greg claims) so long as the Son is incarnate, which is forever. But if the Son somehow comes to transcend his embodiment as Jesus (as Greg admits) post-glorification, then Greg's contradicted his own metaphysics and logic.

Good stuff 451! Glad to have you contributing.

Tom


"The aesthetic value the world has for God is in expressing, not constituting, the aesthetic value God eternally finds within Godself." Greg Boyd

Post Edited (Tom) : 10/11/2011 12:21:36 PM (GMT-5)

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Similitude
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   Posted 10/11/2011 8:17 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
D: I'm interested, Jeff. What do you disagree with the Ecumenical Councils in particular? In other words, what is articulated in the Ecumenical Councils that is not biblically or theologically justifiable?
 
J: To me, what you're saying about the godhead doesn't explain anything in need of explanation. And as such, it seems to unnecessarily complicate the principle of individuation for spiritual beings. I think what Tom is saying about mystery works out just the opposite as he sees it. It seems that you guys think you're explaining something that needs to be explained when I don't know what that is. Because to me, the godhead is nothing more or less than that/those person(s) that account(s) for the ordered system of beings my mind is naturally designed to infer as an extra-ego world. Positing more knowledge and power for that/those being/beings than is necessary to do that seems to complicate things, not simply.
 
E.g., as I've argued before, I don't see how omnipresence explains anything about God's knowledge. To say it explains God's knowledge is to say we can deduce God's knowledge from certain propositions entailing the claim that He is omnipresent. But I don't know how to do that. Thus, to me, God's humanly knowable knowledge is simply precisely that which is required to account for non-divine reality and it's teleological relationality. And I'm not seeing how omnipresence explains that at all (indeed, omnipresence, like Einsteinian relativity, seems to undermine the principle of individuation for matter, even). Moreover, in that sense, knowledge, human and divine, is mysterious in the sense that we can't ground it all. There just are brute facts which are, therefore, mysterious in that sense. But that's equivalent to saying knowledge itself can not be grounded in a non-mysterious way. Intuition is the belief in brute, fundamental facts.
 
There are only two senses of mystery that I know of. One is brute fact. No one can get around brute fact(s). But needlessly multiplying them is no intellectual virtue. The other is that which can not be thought by humans--supra-intuitive relationality, e.g. But that kind of mystery, by definition, is irrelevant to philosophy and theology. Because it can't explain anything or be conceived of. Lewis and others, e.g., make the mistake of thinking they can deduce absolute omniscience from a supposed extra-temporalness of God. But that can not be done precisely because we can't even conceptualize timelessness to know what it means, much less what it would imply if possible.


 

Post Edited (Similitude) : 10/11/2011 9:17:52 PM (GMT-5)

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451
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   Posted 10/12/2011 9:46 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Hi Jeff!  This is a discussion topic that is close to my heart and I hope you don’t mind me barging in.  You prompted some thoughts.

 

J - To me, what you're saying about the godhead doesn't explain anything in need of explanation.

451 – I think you articulate here the general feeling of most evangelicals, even many of those trained in theology.  These things, I have been told, are so far from the real issues of the world and even the Christian life, that we shouldn’t spend time on them.  For the most part, I would agree.  However, we have the advantage of a long history of relatively defined doctrine.  Our theological thinking is based on the results of the battles fought long ago.  There certainly was a time when these things were important and the decisions had both practical and theological significance for believers.  We could also suggest that, partly because the battles were fought so long ago, we are in a day when traditions are not enough and we are re-visiting many of the same issues.  Thus, the discussion has relevance, not so much for those who have been brought up in traditional thinking, but for those who will learn the future doctrine of the church.

J - Because to me, the godhead is nothing more or less than that/those person(s) that account(s) for the ordered system of beings my mind is naturally designed to infer as an extra-ego world.

451 – What do you mean by this?  Are you suggesting that we only assert a godhead that our minds can “infer.”  Does our knowledge of God come from our inference?  If so, are you dismissing revelation? I am not insinuating anything, just trying to get a sense of where you are coming from.

J- . . . as I've argued before, I don't see how omnipresence explains anything about God's knowledge.

451 – This is fair.  For some, the omni formula is a logical construct where each “pillar” bears the weight of the whole.  IOW, one leads to the other and the second leads to the third, etc.  If one falls, the others are carried down with it.  To wit: If God is to know everything with full and perfect knowledge, then He must be eternal and He must be omnipresent because that perfect (read experiential) knowledge requires presence.  Of course, whether God has that kind of knowledge or whether that knowledge is in the realm of the possible is the debate of Open Theism.  It is also a debate of philosophy, where the concepts are defined and explained to minute degrees so that we can decide whether we agree or not.

J - The other [sense of mystery] is that which can not be thought by humans--supra-intuitive relationality, e.g. But that kind of mystery, by definition, is irrelevant to philosophy and theology.

451 – And that opens the door to my main comment.  What you describe above is what I might call revelation, the communication of that divine rationality in a way that our minds and hearts are able to receive.  I would agree that revelation is a problem for philosophy.  I might even further suggest that revelation is the bane of philosophy.  It answers questions not asked and creates more questions by its assertions.  Revelation, by its nature, inserts itself into the discussion and makes much of our debate look like foolishness.

OTOH, revelation is the very heart of theology.  Now, I know that some see theology as a branch of philosophy, where our reasoning power is exercised in discussions that interest us.  But, for Christians, human reasoning is quite irrelevant.  Who cares what I think must be the case?  What we ought to care about is what has been revealed.  Once we believe in a God who is real and active and personal, we care about what He says.

So, when I ask whether Jesus was omnipresent while He walked the earth, I have to look at the Scriptures.  Then I find passages where He tells Nicodemus that He “saw” him under the fig tree and He tells the disciples that wherever two or three of them are gathered He is there “in the midst of them.”  I assert these statements as revealed truth.  I also consider such things as the firm conviction throughout Scripture that God is omnipresent and Jesus is fully God.  These are the only kinds of real theological assertions I can make. 

There is no question that this leads me to certain apparent contradictions and to literal interpretation of verses that are uncomfortable for my preferred way of thinking.  When that happens, I have to stand on the mystery of the divine rationality that you mention.  I simply do not and probably cannot understand.  And for me to try to explain the mystery beyond the revelation opens me to the leading of my limited intellect and, by my definition, moves us into the realm of philosophical discussion. 

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451
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   Posted 10/12/2011 10:09 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Hi Tom!  Thanks for the welcome!  And thanks, One Love, for the comments!

Extrapolating from the human to the divine has always been a source of trouble in theological discussion.  We do it because we think we understand what it means to be human and because we certainly do not understand what it means to be divine.  Yet, the initiative of incarnation was from the divine to the human and any extrapolation, any understanding of how things work, will have to come from that side of the equation.  Of course, that necessarily ends in mystery.  We have what revelation we have, never enough to settle these things beyond statements drawn from faith in that limited revelation. 

I certainly understand that kenoticism answers some of the hard questions about Jesus.  The problem is that it creates many more and its assertions stand in contrast to facts revealed.  While we see Jesus asking who touched Him, as though He didn’t know, we also have Him telling the life story of the woman at the well whom He hadn’t met before.  Does He know some things and not others?  I suspect it is the desire to conceive a Jesus “just like us” and with whom we can readily identify that leads some people to the conviction that Jesus had limited knowledge.  At the same time, it is the desire to have a Jesus who is beyond us and able by that distinction to save and lead us that brings others to the conviction that Jesus knew all things.  (That and the statement from John 16:20 that Jesus knows all things. ;)

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One Love
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   Posted 10/12/2011 12:06 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
451:
Extrapolating from the human to the divine has always been a source of trouble in theological discussion. We do it because we think we understand what it means to be human and because we certainly do not understand what it means to be divine. Yet, the initiative of incarnation was from the divine to the human and any extrapolation, any understanding of how things work, will have to come from that side of the equation. Of course, that necessarily ends in mystery. We have what revelation we have, never enough to settle these things beyond statements drawn from faith in that limited revelation.

Agreed. We simply cannot understand God's revelation without God's Spirit illumining us. And that requires humility to acknowledge divine mystery.


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451:
While we see Jesus asking who touched Him, as though He didn’t know, we also have Him telling the life story of the woman at the well whom He hadn’t met before. Does He know some things and not others? I suspect it is the desire to conceive a Jesus “just like us” and with whom we can readily identify that leads some people to the conviction that Jesus had limited knowledge. At the same time, it is the desire to have a Jesus who is beyond us and able by that distinction to save and lead us that brings others to the conviction that Jesus knew all things. (That and the statement from John 16:20 that Jesus knows all things. )


I'd say that following: Jesus' sense of knowledge was always contextualized from the capacities and categories of his human mind/brain throughout his body's maturation. In other words, the Incarnate Word's sense of knowledge would always be an irreducible bi-polar assymmetrical relational unity (James Loder)--empowered by the Holy Spirit--between the omniscience of the Co-Eternal Word's uncreated personal presence and nature (the Universal) and the  non-omniscience of the brain capacity of the Word's human body, part of the Word's assumption of created nature (the Particular). You cannot take either pole out of the equation without saying less the the whole reality of how the Incarnate Word knew what he knew. The Word/Son/Logos' personal presence transcends, yet includes his human nature...and the personal reality of the Word grounds, empowers, and supports all activity of his humanity even as his humanity contextualizes and expresses the personal reality of the Word. For example, for those who hold that the person of Jesus was omniscient when he was in the manger as a baby...they would never say that he immediately began speaking full complete sentences talking about microbiology. They would concede that the knowledge of the Incarnate Word could only be expressed as the development of Jesus' brain would allow.  Nor would they say the because of the Word's omnipresence, that Jesus' human brain was actually at all places at all times.  What I'm trying to show is that there is a irreducible RELATIONALITY between the two realities within the Incarnate Word--by the Holy Spirit's empowerment--that is necessary to explain how Jesus knew what he knew, taking all revelant factors into account.

This is an utterly unique inTRAhypostatic relationship within the two natures of the one person of Jesus, the Incarnate Word of God the Father by the Power of the Holy Spirit.


Lord Jesus Christ, Son of God, have mercy on me, a sinner.

Post Edited (One Love) : 10/12/2011 12:34:26 PM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 10/12/2011 12:16 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
"And the child grew and became strong; he was filled with wisdom, and the grace of God was upon him."

"And Jesus increased in wisdom and in stature and in favor with God and man."


Lord Jesus Christ, Son of God, have mercy on me, a sinner.

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One Love
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   Posted 10/12/2011 2:22 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
451:
I was increasingly amazed at candidates from evangelical schools who readily accepted kenoticism simply because that's what they were taught.
 
 
Yeppers.

Christian Theology by Millard Erickson is probably the best theology book that I have read. Dr. Erickson presented theology in an understandable way that even lay people can understand it and not just the seminary students.

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Posted elsewhere...

"Just as the runner...could unloose the tie, but chooses to restrict himself for the duration of the event, so Christ's incarnation was a voluntary self-chosen limitation. ... During that time, his deity always functioned in connection with his humanity."
Millard Erickson
Christian Theology, 2nd ed
page 752


Erickson's idea means that the Co-Eternal Word/Son chose to self-limit his personal activity and divine identity, effectively giving up exercise of "deity" (omnis, Creator-ness, uncreated)--at the time of Incarnation--limiting that activity to that of a zygote in Mary's womb. The Word/Son committed to only relate to God and others only in so far as a zygote in a womb can. At this point, God the Son is no loving perichoretic inter-personal relationships to God the Father or the Spirit whatsoever(for surely, a zygote is NOT capable of hypostatic activity)...thus leaves only the God the Father and the Spirit to "talk to" each other in the uncreated realm. As a PERSON, God the Word/Son ceases to exist. This effectively alters the whole trinitarian hypostatic process unto it's annihilation. It effectively denies the co-eternal uncreatedness of the Word WITH God...for it's says that co-eternal uncreatedness with God the Father is contingent, not necessary, to the Word's being who He is, such that he could just "give it up."

Millard Erickson's thought here is combined heresy of the gravest kind. And that was the held perspective of the author of our systematic theology textbooks.


Lord Jesus Christ, Son of God, have mercy on me, a sinner.

Post Edited (One Love) : 10/12/2011 3:06:42 PM (GMT-5)

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451
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   Posted 10/12/2011 3:07 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

So much I could say, and might later...

Erickson's view is regurgitated Strong. Many forget today that Strong, probably the greatest of the evangelical theologians, was convinced of the reliability of historical criticism and did not see inerrancy as a necessary doctrine. While he rejected the classic teachings of kenoticism from Thomasius and Dorner, et al., he attempted to provide a "compatible" theory that incorporated evangelical and modernist thinking.

“(a) In that act of the preexistent Logos by which he gave up his divine glory with the Father, in order to take a servant-form.  In this act, he resigned not the possession, nor yet entirely the use, but rather the independent exercise, of the divine attributes.

(b) In the submission of the Logos to the control of the Holy Spirit and the limitations of his Messianic mission, in his communication of the divine fullness of the human nature which he had taken into union with himself.

(c) In the continuous surrender, on the part of the God-man, so far as his human nature was concerned, of the exercise of those divine powers with which it was endowed by virtue of its union with the divine, and in the voluntary acceptance, which followed upon this, of temptation, suffering, and death.” (Systematic Theology, 1907, p. 703)

 
 

“Omniscience gives up all knowledge but that of the child, the infant, the embryo, the infinitesimal germ of humanity.  Omnipotence gives up all power but that of the impregnated ovum in the womb of the Virgin.  The Godhead narrows itself down to a point that is next to absolute extinction.” (ibid.)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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One Love
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   Posted 10/12/2011 4:32 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Here.
 
The second heresy is in the words "Emptied Himself of all but love" which is the error of kenoticism, that Christ laid aside either the possession or exercise of divine attributes at the incarnation.
 
 
 


Lord Jesus Christ, Son of God, have mercy on me, a sinner.

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451
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   Posted 10/12/2011 5:03 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Love that song! I have consistently spoken to the error, however, and have suggested that we sing "emptied Himself because of love" instead.

Perhaps it should be said someplace in this discussion that the Scriptures may not teach kenosis at all like it has been taught.  Almost certainly Paul is echoing the words and sentiments of Isaiah 53 as he writes to the Philippians.  Note:


Therefore I will divide Him a portion with the great, And He shall divide the spoil with the strong, Because He poured out His soul unto death, And He was numbered with the transgressors, and He bore the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.  Isaiah 53:12


but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men. And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death, even the death of the cross.  Philippians 2:7-8

 

These passages are remarkably similar, both in words used and in the point of the message.  In fact, the concept of “emptied Himself” and “poured out His soul” are plainly parallel.  I seriously doubt that Paul had any intention of communicating a lessening of divine attributes, however we want to explain the idea.

 

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One Love
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   Posted 10/12/2011 5:18 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Erickson acknowledges that his view is a 'species of kenotic theology', but in my A New Systematic Theology of the Christian Faith, I demonstrate exegetically that there is no basis in Philippians 2:6-7 for thinking that in the act of incarnation Christ 'empties' himself of anything. The "emptying" referred to there refers, not to his incarnation, but to his 'pouring himself out' in death in his role as our heavenly High Priest (see Isa. 53:12). Erickson's entire argument is thus based on faulty exegesis.

If Erickson, a reputable theologian, blunders in this way, it is not surprising when on several occasions I have asked gatherings of evangelical pastors the question 'After the incarnation had occured, did the Second Person of the Godhead still possess and exercise the attribute of omnipresence, or was he confined to the human body he had assumed?' that many have opted for the latter construction: 'After all,' they say, 'is this not what the word "incarnation" means?' They did not seem to realize that the necessary implication of this choice is that in the incarnation God the Son divested himself of his attribute of being always and everywhere immediately present in his created universe."

Robert L. Reymond
"Classical Christology's Future in Systematic Theology"
from "Always Reforming: Explorations in Systematic Theology" by
Andrew Thomson Blake McGowan

Page 107-108.


Lord Jesus Christ, Son of God, have mercy on me, a sinner.

Post Edited (One Love) : 10/12/2011 5:33:02 PM (GMT-5)

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451
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   Posted 10/12/2011 5:49 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Great quote! Yes, yes, uh huh, yep, AMEN!
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