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Sahid
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   Posted 3/27/2008 8:13 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
D: Could freedom be "more important" to the discussion to Tom BECAUSE, to him, self-determing freedom grounds personhood? What do you think, Zach?

Z: Certainly. But, at least in my opinion, what is dangerous about what you've been saying lately is that your rationale, when followed consistently, is a denial of open theism itself - and therefore a denial of the only meaningful answer to the problem of evil of which I am aware. Fortunately (or unfortunately), I don't think you have extended your own logic to this point. Maybe I'm wrong, but you seem to change logical horses mid-stream: things like giving synergy two contradictory definitions at the same time.


D: If we are determining personhood by the criterion of "self-determining freedom", I really think we are going in the wrong direction...for the reasons I gave above.

Z: I'm not following you on your reasons for not speaking of personhood in terms of freedom. Maybe I just forgot (and I've got to go to work soon, so I can't look back right now). Regardless, "personhood" has been used in a very technical way - actually TWO very technical ways. So who cares which definition is used? A few weeks ago I tried to engage in this discussion on your terms, but I wasn't able because the terms were too "slippery." But if you or Tom can nail down ANY definition, who cares what it says? It's not as though we are using these terms as they are used in the Bible. It's not as though the "logos" discussed recently on this board is even vaguely similar to the logos used by John. It's not as though Galatians 2:20 has anything to say about classical Greek conceptions of ontology. This is an almost entirely synthetic debate (just as were so many of the ecumenical councils). So who cares how terms are defined? If we think these terms are meaningfully connected to their homonyms in the New Testament, we are kidding ourselves.

Take your Ephesians 2 quote. We were dead, but now alive. Yes! We all agree. But rather than read this in context, you act as though it's a quote from the Epistle to Mars Hill. This is the critical leap that you leave undefended. It's not an impossible leap; I make similar leaps myself. But you've got to defend yours. Why should I assume Paul was speaking about classical Greek ontology in this or any of his letters?


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Post Edited (Sahid) : 3/27/2008 3:48:25 PM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 3/27/2008 8:20 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Sahid:
Take your Ephesians 2 quote. We were dead, but now alive. Yes! We all agree. But rather than read this in context, you act as though it's a quote from the Epistle to Mars Hill. This is the critical leap that you leave undefended. It's not an impossible leap; I make similar leaps myself. But you've got to defend yours. Why should I assume Paul was speaking about classical Greek ontology in this or any of his letters?

In the form of a questions...

Was the author talking about SPIRITUAL DEATH? Dealing with the HUMAN SPIRIT's misrelationship to God?

What was "dead" in the mind of the author, as far as you can tell?

What was the "point of need" where we needed saving, according to Scripture?

Where is regeneration needed?


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

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One Love
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   Posted 3/27/2008 8:22 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Biblically, humans are only SPIRITUALLY ALIVE when we are "dead to sin" and "alive to God" through the Holy Spirit of Christ...being "one with the Lord in spirit", worshipping the Father "in spirit and truth", as our spirits are bearing witness with the Holy Spirit that we are indeed children of God.

Ain't this just right?


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

Post Edited ("I am-in-I Am") : 3/27/2008 8:52:55 AM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 3/27/2008 8:28 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
If Jesus didn't have a human spirit...

...the "organ of faith" and "natural congeniality with God" in the human being...

He could NEVER have saved us where we...SPIRITUALLY FALLEN HUMANS...needed it the most!

THIS is what Gregory the Theologian was saying!


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

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Tom
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   Posted 3/27/2008 10:25 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
D: I tell you this, bro. If you're gonna get a PhD in theology of all things, you'd probably better get more clarity on that before you go in. Try defending a dissertation saying that you're UNSURE of such things.

Tom: There are many things I don't know. But I do know that PhD's aren't about advertising one's ignorance (well, at least not the sort of PhD I want to do). So if I don't have something to say, I won't do a PhD and embarrass myself.

Thanks for the advice.

Tom


 

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Sahid
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   Posted 3/27/2008 1:03 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
D: Was the author talking about SPIRITUAL DEATH? Dealing with the HUMAN SPIRIT's misrelationship to God?

Z: Yes. But not according to your use/definition of 'Spirit' or 'human spirit'. Paul's "spirit" and the homonym you've been using are not equivalent.


D: What was "dead" in the mind of the author, as far as you can tell?

Z: The Ephesians. And the question is "Who was dead..." not "What...".


D: What was the "point of need" where we needed saving, according to Scripture?

Z: Again, "Who...?" Us. We are who needed saving. You, me, Tom, the Ephesians.


D: Where is regeneration needed?

Z: Same answer. No need to rephrase everything in terms of classical Greek ontology. It was written in koine after all.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Post Edited (Sahid) : 3/27/2008 3:44:34 PM (GMT-5)

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Sahid
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   Posted 3/27/2008 4:06 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
D: Biblically, humans are only SPIRITUALLY ALIVE when we are "dead to sin" and "alive to God" through the Holy Spirit of Christ...being "one with the Lord in spirit", worshipping the Father "in spirit and truth", as our spirits are bearing witness with the Holy Spirit that we are indeed children of God.

Ain't this just right?


Z: I can agree with all of this. What I can't agree with is what I expect you mean by "spirit". You think spirit is one of many components of... what... the person?... the human? Either way, I don't. I neither believe in a bipartite anthropology nor a tripartite nor a unified nor a six-part nor a seventeen-part anthropology. That's like asking how many pieces are in a pie. It depends how you cut it. Same with anthropology; it depends what sort of distinctions you wish to draw. In Ephesians Paul was using "alive" as he typically did, where 'alive' means Christlike or godly and 'dead' means Satanic or sinful. The terms 'spirit' and 'flesh' are similarly used independently of their classical Greek connotations.


D: If Jesus didn't have a human spirit...

...the "organ of faith" and "natural congeniality with God" in the human being...

He could NEVER have saved us where we...SPIRITUALLY FALLEN HUMANS...needed it the most!

THIS is what Gregory the Theologian was saying!


Z: Because Gregory had decided that the human spirit was an organ of faith and that God was impotent to save those with whom he is not consubstantial. If that's what works for him, fine. I just wouldn't call it 'monotheism' since I prefer to only consider him 'God' if he is omnipotent - that is, not bound by whatever rules of salvation Gregory happens to dream up.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Post Edited (Sahid) : 3/27/2008 4:23:30 PM (GMT-5)

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Tom
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   Posted 3/28/2008 1:11 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

D: Second of all, it seems that you don't believe that the ‘human spirit’ question with Jesus is a big deal at all.

 

Tom: I’d have to have some firm opinion on just what the human spirit is to say that. I’m totally open-minded D.

 

D: The human spirit/nous/heart, biblically speaking, is the arena of self-consciousness, self-understanding and freedom for human beings.

 

Tom: Really? Biblically speaking? Where does the Bible define the human ‘spirit’ in such terms? You reading that straight out of some text? Let me understand you rightly. You’re saying that in the NT, ‘pneuma’, ‘nous’ and ‘kardia’ are all equivalent, synonymous terms?

 

D: You, Tom, seem to link personhood more directly with the exercise of self-determining freedom...which deals implicitly with self-consciousness and self-understanding.

 

Tom: Here’s what I’d like to try to say. Where there is no self-determining exercise of a person’s will BY that person, there’s no person to speak of. Moreover, where’s there’s a determination of the will of one by another, the one is not a person-in-relation-to the other. Now, I don't know that I want to absolutely "ground" personhood in the exercise of the will, as you say I do. I'm not that smart. I'm just describing what I think has to be present for a 'person' to be present. I don't see how this much can't also apply to the Trinity. No one of the three persons absolutely determines what unique exercises of will define or qualify any other. We might not have to say there are three separate 'faculties' of will or 'centers' of willing (whatever that means). Perhaps we can say that each distinct person exercises one and the same faculty in ways unique to the distinct personal identity of each.

 

We aim our language at describing the divine reality. I don't know that we ever capture it precisely, without remainder. 

 

But if this means that I don't line up on the historical Orthodox position regarding the one will of God (at least as I understand it), I guess that'll just have to be. There may be a way to attribute to all three divine persons one and the same ‘faculty of will’ as it were which each person determines/exercises in self-determining ways (agreed upon by the others and allowed and desired by the others, but unique to each). If love doesn’t demand its own way, then perhaps this ought to mean something in terms of the trinity too, as the LOVE that God is. But I don’t see how there’s any room for a trinitarian version of ‘love not demanding its own way’ if there is not some  exercise of the divine will unique to each person, definitive of that person. Otherwise, WHO the Son is has absolutely nothing to do with the exercise of will, and that divorces 'person' from 'nature' too absolutely in my view. So it seems to me best to suppose some deference toward the other with respect to the disposing of the divine will.

 

I know I know, I'm a heretic. What else is new?

 

Just interested, D, do you think Father, Son, and Spirit ever ‘agree’ upon anything?

 

Tom


 

Post Edited (Tom) : 3/28/2008 6:08:51 AM (GMT-5)

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Tom
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   Posted 3/28/2008 2:41 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

D: From your perspective, there can only be ONE locus of self-determining freedom in ONE person.

 

Tom: That seems so to me, yes. The ‘self’, the true self, is a ‘person’, a subject, an agent. Would you prefer TWO selves/persons/agents/subjects doing the determining in Christ? How many self-determining selves would like to put into one person?

 

D: And if the human spirit/nous/heart is based upon God granting a human being a human "logos" which "grounds our created capacities for and development toward personhood" ...then you deduced (at that time) that Christ did NOT have a human "logos." You deduced that the Logos HIMSELF assumed the role/place of any human "logos" that would have formed a created locus of Jesus human "unity of consciousness" in any other human case.

 

Tom: OK, let me try this.

 

I take the ‘logos’ of created things to be simply God’s ‘speaking’ or ‘offering’ a range of free creativity to created things—“Be this!”—where there’s a measure of asymmetrical determination of the created by God which just is God’s ‘sustaining’ presence in created things. That has to be. Our sheer existence from one moment to the next can’t be the ‘effect’ of anything we do. Existence as such is God’s gift to us. But the shape, the becoming, and the experienced and enjoyed relatedness of personal existence (I’m talking human beings now), is not entirely asymmetrical. We do contribute, freely, creatively, synergistically to the shape of our becoming, our personal existence. So we have two distinct activities of God visa-a-vis creation: God's unilateral/asymmetrical sustaining of the existence of created beings (on the one hand) and God’s offering created entities a measure of self-determining freedom to become (on the other, with human being as the pinnacle of created being). In the former case, divine action is determinative. In the latter, God let’s go. So we have both the asymmetrical defining of our possibilities that are offered to us by God in the form of the gift of our existence per se (on the one hand), and the symmetrical/synergistic determining of the shape of the creative, expressive form which any particular human being takes (on the other). In the case of human beings, God desires a level of relational give-and-take, loving mutuality, personal enjoyment and relational intimacy. We are unique in this respect, like God, possessing the capacity to perceive and enjoy beauty and relational intimacy with personally distinct others.

 

This means that for ME, D, human personal existence, i.e., human personhood, created personhood, is not to be located under the God-determined asymmetrical column nothing of which can be the 'effect' of anything we do. I locate it in the right hand column under God-creature synergy. God's part is to offer us the only source and ultimate ground for our 'identity' (in Christ, sons of the same Father). Our part is to shape that identity in a unique and unrepeatable personal expression. Back to the music analogy: we freely render the themes of divine love. That's what it means to me to be 'personally' distinct from God--as distinct as Miles Davis is playing a Cole Porter tune. In THAT unique expression, the former expresses his natural capacities through a free interpretation of the latter's music. You see Porter IN Davis. But Porter is not (as you suggest) all we see. That's why in my view you underappreciate or devalue created diversity (in spite of your inisting on the contrary) when you say you look around at people and ALL you see is Christ. It's not all Christ sees when he looks around. It ought not be all we see. It sounds profound to say all you see is Christ perhaps. But it's still an underappreciation of created diversity.

 

It seems to me that in the case of human beings, the created ‘logos’ itself is the expressed desire of the divine will that a created entity be unique and unrepeatable, synergistically bound to God but personally distinct, for the conscious mind perceives the truth about its being a self-determining, freely creative co-creator. But in my view such behavior is irreducibly ‘personal’; it's part of what defines the unique and unrepeatable character of each human being. I can’t but call such a being a ‘personal’ being, and I have no concept of a higher, more beautiful form of existence which is personal if this is not personal. So I can't call such created beings '(mere) contingent expressions of God' (i.e., not personally distinct from God) because the shape of personal existence in our case is not determined BY God. It's determined by creaturely volition as well. See?

 

You have to argue that freely self-determining, self-conscious loving centers of experience who express love in creative ways, who perceive beauty and affirm and celebrate it in themselves and others are NOT persons. I think that's rediculous. I asked, "Well, what would you ADD to this to GET TO 'person'?" I got no answer.

 

I hope you understand me. I don't think God offered to the humanity of Jesus a ‘logos’ in the above sense, that is, I don't see God intending Jesus's humanity to be a freely self-determining co-creator who perceived himself as ‘personally-related-to-God’ in the sense God wishes us to be. There’s no such offer “to become a person-in-relationship-to God” that’s extended to the humanity of Jesus. God simply doesn’t wish THAT in his case. Jesus doesn’t instantiate a ‘logos’ for personal becoming that is “let go” by the Logos (as in our case) and then comes to stand in a personal realtionship to God in Christ. Jesus IS the offerer of ‘logoi,’ he IS the Logos. It doesn't make sense to say the Logos offers a 'logos' for his own personal human becoming in-relation-to the person of the Logos. But in my view, you have BOTH of these in Christ—the Logos AND an offer (a ‘logos’ let go) for personal becoming in-relation-to God to an individual human being. You have the Logos in Christ offering to a human being the same invitation to become a person-in-relation-to God that God offers us. And that’s not my understanding of who God incarnate is. Nor do I see why Jesus is ‘less human’ if no such offer is made for the coming into being of a non-divine personal existent (as IS the case with us). Instead, it makes more sense to say we have in Christ the Logos himself offering not ‘a logos’ of personal becoming to a human individual whom God/Logos wishes to relate to mutually and intimately (as he does with us), but rather offering ‘THE Logos’ in relation to us within human being.

 

Tom


 

Post Edited (Tom) : 3/28/2008 7:20:08 AM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 3/28/2008 8:13 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

D: From your perspective, there can only be ONE locus of self-determining freedom in ONE person.

 

Tom: That seems so to me, yes. The ‘self’, the true self, is a ‘person’, a subject, an agent. Would you prefer TWO selves/persons/agents/subjects doing the determining in Christ? How many self-determining selves would like to put into one person?

 
Jesus had TWO MINDS and two LOCI OF WILLING in one human being. One divine, one human.
 
Jesus' human will was FREELY OBEDIENT (6th Council) to the divine will.
 
FREE OBEDIENCE.
 
What do you think of this?
 
Actually, with the "Not MY will, but YOUR will be done"...
 
Please describe the locus of the "Not my will".  Is this not Jesus's HUMAN "freely self-determining, self-conscious loving center of experience who expresses love in creative ways, who perceive beauty and affirm and celebrate it in themselves and others."?


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

Post Edited ("I am-in-I Am") : 3/28/2008 8:16:04 AM (GMT-5)

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Tom
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   Posted 3/28/2008 10:48 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

I worked kinda hard on that post. Oh well. ;o)

 

Here’s where we are.

 

D: I think X.

 

Tom: I think Y.

 

D: X and Y can’t both be the case.

 

Tom: True.

 

D: X is logically possible.

 

Tom: So is Y.

 

D: Right. Well, X has biblical support.

 

Tom (laughing): Really? Show me the hard exegetical evidence.

 

D: Zzzzzz

 

Tom: D?

 

D: Zzzzzz

 

Tom: OK, OK. X is biblically plausible. Fine. But Y is biblically plausible too.

 

D: But I REALLY experience X.

 

Tom: I experience Y.

 

D: The experience of X has changed my life radically.

 

Tom: The experience of Y changed mine.

 

D: If X changed my life, it MUST be true!

 

Tom: Y changed my life. Must it be true?

 

D: X is philosophically plausible and makes sense.

 

Tom: Y is philosophically plausible and makes sense.

 

D: X fits together with Greg’s thesis!

 

Tom (ouch): Well, Greg actually agrees with me.

 

D: X has been the traditional belief of Orthodox Christianity. If you don’t believe in X, you’re a heretic.

 

Tom: True. You have MORE people on your side. Political power wins!

 

OK, so treat me like a heretic then! ;o) Refuse to break bread with me. Refuse to acknowledge me as a ‘brother’ in Christ. Pursue my excommunication. Tie me to the steak, bring it on baby!

 

Tom


 

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One Love
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   Posted 3/28/2008 11:13 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:
I worked kinda hard on that post. Oh well. ;o)

My brief response/question was directly in response to your statement in your post. I was going to work. I was going to respond to other stuff later. What?

Anyways, I think the "my will" statement of the "Not my will, but Your will be done" refers to exercise of Christ-the-Logos' human center of willing that is, as you say, a "freely self-determining, self-conscious loving center of experience who expresses love in creative ways, who perceive beauty and affirm and celebrate it in themselves and others."

I wanted to know what YOU thought the "my will" referred to?


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

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One Love
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   Posted 3/28/2008 11:14 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
If that's how you see this discussion, Tom...

hey...that's an interesting perspective.

;-)


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

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Tom
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   Posted 3/28/2008 11:34 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Just my attempt at humor; a bit of point in it, yes. It's an oversimplification, but I do see the discussion as running along these lines. I guess stand up comedy won't pull me in any money.

T


 

Post Edited (Tom) : 3/28/2008 11:57:46 AM (GMT-5)

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Tom
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   Posted 3/28/2008 11:52 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

D: Anyways, I think the ‘my will’ statement of the “Not my will, but Your will be done” refers to the exercise of Christ-the-Logos’ human center of willing that is, as you say, a “freely self-determining, self-conscious loving center of experience who expresses love in creative ways, who perceive beauty and affirm and celebrate it in themselves and others.”

I wanted to know what YOU thought the "my will" referred to?

 

Tom: I think every exercise of will is either an attempt at or an expression of personhood. If Jesus said “my” will, then that “my” expresses personal ownership, the ‘who’ behind the choice, and there’s only one ‘who’ in Christ, the Son. I think the Son says these things. No one else. In the case of our freely determining creative expression once perfected, our will is exercised independently of the divine will (which in itself is the fulfilling of the divine will). So to me it seems that fulfilled human beings, in freely determining themselves, are expressing non-divine personhood, unlike Jesus.

 

Hope you have a good day at work. God use you and make you a blessing to others.

 

Your friendly neighborhood heretic,

Tom


 

Post Edited (Tom) : 3/28/2008 12:09:48 PM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 3/28/2008 12:18 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:
If Jesus said “my” will, then that “my” expresses personal ownership. the ‘who’ behind the choice, and there’s only one ‘who’ in Christ, the Son. I think the Son says these things. No one else.

The "center of willing" that said "my will" , in your view, is the God the Son/Logos/Word himself...with no mediation or anything.

Then the "Your Will" must be referring to God the Father's will, correct?

This means that, in your view, the "center of willing" for God the Son is DISTINCT and RELATIVELY AUTONOMOUS from the "center of willing" for God the Father...and from the "center of willing" for God the Holy Spirit.  One God with 3 "centers" of self-determination.  From my perspective, this is tritheism, straight up. There is only ONE "center of willing" in the Three-Personed God...and that lies in God the Father. The Divine Will of God the Son IS that of God the Father.

So, the "my will" of the human Jesus CANNOT be that of the God the Son HIMSELF without qualification...because the ONE will of the Logos IS the ONE will of the Trinity, God the Father's. It MUST refer to another will. The HUMAN "center of willing" of Jesus.

"NOT my will...but YOUR WILL be done."

------------------------------

Thanks for the work blessing.  And on the comedy...keep the day job. ;-)


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

Post Edited ("I am-in-I Am") : 3/28/2008 12:22:03 PM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 3/28/2008 2:52 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Good stuff on this...

www.willgwitt.org/Cyril.htm


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

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Tom
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   Posted 3/28/2008 3:25 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Nine weeks and I'm home.

Beat. Tired. Ready to party!

T


 

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PotOnWheel
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Total Posts : 9890
 
   Posted 3/28/2008 3:39 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom, check out the "Our Life In Christ" programs I'm going to post links to in "The Openness of God's Will and Tom's Daughter's Pottery." Dwayne, you check it out too--you might get something essential out of it.

B.


(o)

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One Love
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   Posted 3/29/2008 10:56 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:
I don't think God offered to the humanity of Jesus a ‘logos’ in the above sense, that is, I don't see God intending Jesus's humanity to be a freely self-determining co-creator who perceived himself as ‘personally-related-to-God’ in the sense God wishes us to be. There’s no such offer “to become a person-in-relationship-to God” that’s extended to the humanity of Jesus. God simply doesn’t wish THAT in his case. Jesus doesn’t instantiate a ‘logos’ for personal becoming that is “let go” by the Logos (as in our case) and then comes to stand in a personal relationship to God in Christ. Jesus IS the offerer of ‘logoi,’ he IS the Logos. It doesn't make sense to say the Logos offers a 'logos' for his own personal human becoming in-relation-to the person of the Logos. But in my view, you have BOTH of these in Christ—the Logos AND an offer (a ‘logos’ let go) for personal becoming in-relation-to God to an individual human being. You have the Logos in Christ offering to a human being the same invitation to become a person-in-relation-to God that God offers us. And that’s not my understanding of who God incarnate is. Nor do I see why Jesus is ‘less human’ if no such offer is made for the coming into being of a non-divine personal existent (as IS the case with us). Instead, it makes more sense to say we have in Christ the Logos himself offering not ‘a logos’ of personal becoming to a human individual whom God/Logos wishes to relate to mutually and intimately (as he does with us), but rather offering ‘THE Logos’ in relation to us within human being.

"Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is good—except God alone."

Please help me understand this phrase from the Incarnate Word, Christ-the-Logos.
 
Was Jesus making some veiled statement that he was God in this statement?
 
Or was Jesus declaring his SELF-UNDERSTOOD DIFFERENTIATION from God?
 
Tom, you're the exegetical expert.  Help me out.


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

Post Edited ("I am-in-I Am") : 3/29/2008 11:01:12 AM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 3/29/2008 11:08 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
For context...

As Jesus started on his way, a man ran up to him and fell on his knees before him. "Good teacher," he asked, "what must I do to inherit eternal life?"

"Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is good—except God alone. You know the commandments: 'You shall not murder, you shall not commit adultery, you shall not steal, you shall not give false testimony, you shall not defraud, honor your father and mother.' "

"Teacher," he declared, "all these I have kept since I was a boy."

Jesus looked at him and loved him. "One thing you lack," he said. "Go, sell everything you have and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven. Then come, follow me."

At this the man's face fell. He went away sad, because he had great wealth.

Jesus looked around and said to his disciples, "How hard it is for the rich to enter the kingdom of God!"

The disciples were amazed at his words. But Jesus said again, "Children, how hard it is to enter the kingdom of God! It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for the rich to enter the kingdom of God."

The disciples were even more amazed, and said to each other, "Who then can be saved?"

Jesus looked at them and said, "With human beings this is impossible, but not with God; all things are possible with God."

Then Peter spoke up, "We have left everything to follow you!"

"Truly I tell you," Jesus replied, "no one who has left home or brothers or sisters or mother or father or children or fields for me and the gospel will fail to receive a hundred times as much in this present age: homes, brothers, sisters, mothers, children and fields—along with persecutions—and in the age to come eternal life. But many who are first will be last, and the last first."


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

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One Love
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   Posted 3/29/2008 11:10 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Brief Hebrews 5 thought...

During the days of Jesus' life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with fervent cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission. Son though he was, he learned obedience from what he suffered and, once made perfect, he became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him and was designated by God to be high priest in the order of Melchizedek.


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

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Similitude
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   Posted 3/29/2008 11:31 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
TOM: Nine weeks and I'm home.

Beat. Tired. Ready to party!

Jeff: I can imagine. Get yourself home. I can't wait to hear of your experience.


 

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Tom
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   Posted 3/29/2008 11:32 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

D: “Why do you call me good?” Jesus answered. “No one is good—except God alone.” Please help me understand this phrase from the Incarnate Word, Christ-the-Logos. Was Jesus making some veiled statement that he was God in this statement? Or was Jesus declaring his SELF-UNDERSTOOD DIFFERENTIATION from God?

 

Tom: I’ve always understood this in the first sense, as a claim by Christ to be more than merely human. The guys calls him ‘good’, and Jesus (perhaps seeing through his agenda and wanting to confront him immediately with more ultimate issues and the question of his identity), says, “Oh, really? You call me good? OK, you sure you realize what that means? You know that only God is really ‘good’. Still wanna call me ‘good’?” Jesus is challenging him to think about the implications of what he’s just said and recognize that if only God is good, and Christ is good, then Christ is God. That’s how I’ve read this for as long as I can remember.

 

Note that Jesus doesn’t reject the attribution. He doesn’t say, “Look, I’m just a human ego periphery talking right now, and I’m not the good one. Only the divine person I’m perichoretically related to is good. Which would you like to talk to?” Is that how you read it?

 

Jesus’ “self-understood differentiation from God”? What ‘self’? A self is an identity, right? The ‘who’ that somebody believes they are. As such, it’s either an attempt at or an expression of genuine personhood. But there is no  ‘personal differentiation’ between the human and the divine in Christ; hence there is no ‘self-understood differentiation from God’ that obtains in Christ. The human self-understanding of Jesus and the divine self-understanding of the Logos are one and the same self-understanding. ONE person, one self, one agent, one subject.

 

I know you object to this on the basis of Jesus’ cry in the Garden, “Not my will but yours.” The calculus is, God only has one will. But Jesus’ cry assumes a differentiation of wills (mine and yours). So this cry has to be the human agent/self. It can’t be God the Logos saying to God the Father, “Not my will but yours.” But then you have a human, self-perceiving, self-determining, non-divine center of experience relating itself personally (free and responsible choices are the activity of PERSONAL beings) to God the Logos. That’s not my understanding of the incarnation. I say, if the Logos has assumed a human will, then God [the Logos] no longer has only one will, does he? Hmmm? I guess not. Now God has two wills. Now the self-same God the Logos has to dispose of his identity/person (the divine person) through the exercise of a human will, something he’s never had to do before. Why cannot the Garden cry be this ONE divine person, God the Logos, telling the Father, “Not my [human] will, but your (speaking to the Father) [divine] will”? I’m happy to work on this some more.

 

T


 

Post Edited (Tom) : 3/29/2008 11:43:37 AM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 3/29/2008 11:42 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:
I know you object to this on the basis of Jesus’ cry in the Garden, “Not my will but yours.” The calculus is, God only has one will. But Jesus’ cry assumes a differentiation of wills (mine and yours). So this cry has to be the human agent/self. It can’t be God the Logos saying to God the Father, “Not my will but yours.” But then you have a human, self-perceiving, self-determining, non-divine center of experience relating itself personally (free and responsible choices are the activity of PERSONAL beings) to God the Logos. That’s not my understanding of the incarnation. I say, if the Logos has assumed a human will, then God [the Logos] no longer has only one will, does he? Hmmm? I guess not. Now God has two wills. Now the self-same God the Logos has to dispose of his identity/person (the divine person) through the exercise of a human will, something he’s never had to do before. Why cannot the Garden cry be this ONE divine person, God the Logos, telling the Father, “Not my [human] will, but your (speaking to the Father) [divine] will”? I’m happy to work on this some more.

In your perspective, the PERSON of God the Logos says "not my will" through through the human will taking on by the Logos taking on human nature.  From your perspective, the "my" is representative of PERSONAL ownership such that God the Logos' "owns" the human will of Jesus. And you say that the "Your Will" representative of God the Father's PERSONAL ownership of the divine will prehended by Jesus.

This means that God the Logos (A DIVINE PERSON), in your view, is the "center of willing" is DISTINCT and RELATIVELY AUTONOMOUS from the "center of willing" of God the Father (ALSO A DIVINE PERSON) such that God the Logos can actually DENY his own will...his own SELF-DETERMINATION...to TAKE UPON HIMSELF the Father's will.

Do you see the implicit tritheism there?


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

Post Edited ("I am-in-I Am") : 3/29/2008 11:45:13 AM (GMT-5)

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