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Similitude
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   Posted 1/25/2009 8:51 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Tom: Ah, I see. I didn’t know this was where you were going.

The problem here is that I want to say that compatibilistic goodness in finite humans has to be the result a process of libertarian “becoming” (unlike God). It’s one thing to say that God is a final cause of choices that are necessarily loving because no ‘other’ non-God factors determine which choices God makes. He’s still self-determining. It’s the idea that our choosing rightly would be guaranteed by factors other than ourselves that I resist.

Jeff: Having thought a bit more, I think I'd have to say that Jesus' right-relating, when that entailed suffering, was actually some kind of FC3. It had components of both FC1 and FC2. The only way I can explain it is by positing that God and Christ's teleological perspectives are perfect at all times, though I can't fully explain it.

Part of what I'm trying to do for Zach, is demonstrate how we can be final causes in other senses than FC1 so as to avoid the notion that we will one day be "compatibilisticly" loving. Compatibilism means compatible with determinsm. I think we want to avoid true determinism insomuch as determinism seems to deny final causes of every conceivable kind. E.g., philosophers even distinguish between indeterminism and determinism even when they posit that indeterministic events may not even BE caused.

 

Tom: If God guarantees that all ultimately choose God by simply closing the epistemic gap and so precluding the possibility of a psychologically viable rejection of God, the process of becoming required by finite creatures like us is by-passed. That, I don’t think, can result in loving relations.

Jeff: That is certainly correct if, by loving relations, we mean loving relations of the kind that require FC1. But that is exactly what I think persons of the godhead do NOT have. I think they have either FC2 or FC3. Thus, for the sake of argument, I'm merely arguing that it is a mere logical possibility that loving relationality of the kind that involves FC1 may have truly been intended for the temporal ends of the creational project, and yet still be irrelevant after the TIME that those ends have been attained. This is not proveable. It's just a logical possibility.

But even you and D argue that something changes about epistemic distance or something, post-mortem, to render rejection of God MUCH less probable, right? Otherwise, our open theism would compel us to believe that post-mortem chances of rejecting God are the same as now. And that would seem to refute UR.

Tom:  Necessary being can “be” necessarily loving—i.e., doesn’t have to “become” loving.

Jeff: But I'm not sure that a necessary being needs to be loving at all merely because it is a necessary being. That's why I'm arguing that the love of the godhead is non-deterministic simply because it functions lovingly according to FC2 and FC3, rather than FC1.

Tom: But contingent being has to “become” loving. So our being finally compatibilistically loving doesn’t undermine our also being final causes of our choices only because we also determined ourselves libertarianly over time to ‘become’ that. It’s still the case that no ‘other’ non-Tom factors entailed my choosing rightly. But I don’t think God can just—poof—overwhelm us with information sufficient to exclude our being psychologically/intellectually able to imagine some reason to reject God. In removing the libertarian nature of choice at that point God would also close to door to our being/becoming “loving.”

Jeff:  I agree that God can't just POOF us into a loving relationship, even if it is merely an FC2/FC3 one. But what I mean by that is that each person must at least fulfill the temporal end of their existence, which is to SOMEHOW give glory/honor to the Son. Christ said that all judgment was given to him that he MIGHT BE HONORED. Thus, I envision the judgment resulting in an intellectual assent associated with ALL confessing with the tongue and bowing the knee. I.e., the judgment may bring the minds of those who were not yet subject to God into an FC2 relationship with God/Christ that was accomplished, in that process, by true intellectual assent and, hence, repentance.

And this is where degree is involved in my eschatology. God PREFERRED that there had never been a Fall or rejection of Himself at all. But all He can do now, given that those SOFA's are now impossible, is act unto the highest DEGREE of honor and glory for the Son. God prefers VOLUNTARY loving suffering with Christ, and we will receive a finite, but age-abiding, glory that renders that suffering UNWORTHY to be compared with those voluntary sufferings. But He will take the intellectual repentance associated with judgment if that's all He can get. And that will cause each person to fulfill, however minimally, the temporal end of their existence. Thus, God will have been perfectly competent in bringing about the end(s) of creation--for all the temporal suffering will have been WORTH it for all once the project "is finished."

Hence, the relevance of DEGREE in the final evaluation of the competence of the Designer. God can not be considered incompetent because more suffering occured than He had wished. He is competent because He will successfully bring the project to fruition in such a way that ALL will be glad that the project occured!! And this is joy itself to a perfectly sympathetic being like God.

I'm not saying this view is proveable. I'm just saying that it, too, seems like a logical possibility. And I'm trying to see if Zach can see that UR doesn't have to rule out non-determinism in either my case or yours. Once we posit any post-mortem state that is not revealed perspicuously in scriptural texts (and virtually all Christians do), I say go for the gusto on what seems most consistent with God's benevolence and scripture. And for me, that gusto means UR.


 

Post Edited (Similtude) : 1/25/2009 8:04:21 AM (GMT-6)

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Tom
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   Posted 1/25/2009 9:52 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Jeff: Part of what I'm trying to do for Zach, is demonstrate how we can be final causes in other senses than FC1 so as to avoid the notion that we will one day be "compatibilisticly" loving. Compatibilism means compatible with determinsm.

Tom: Right. I was using "compatibilistically" to describe a freedom that is not open with respect to evil (it can only go good) but yet is nevertheless consistent with an agent's still being self-determined. One's actions ARE determined. They're just not determined by anyone other than one's self (libertarianly, over time, via solidification). LFW over time gives way to CFW.

If we want to save CFW to describe divinely determined creaturely behavior, that's cool. I'll have to find another word for what I'm talking about. ;o)

T
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Sahid
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   Posted 1/25/2009 11:32 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
I think I follow you. But my point is about LFW. It is UR's case that God created us with no possibility of irrevocably rejecting salvation. If you want to speak in terms of final causes, there it is. Our salvation is finally caused before we even exist. At best any final causation on our part is relegated to deciding the circumstances of that pre-destined inevitability. Monergism with decoration. But still monergism where it counts.
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Sahid
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   Posted 1/25/2009 11:40 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
"But what I mean by that is that each person must at least fulfill the temporal end of their existence, which is to SOMEHOW give glory/honor to the Son."

Here is the point where we part ways. I don't believe God is bound to ultimately force people into this. God is strong. He can do whatever he wants. He can even lie IF he wants. It's not his programing that we praise for being faithful but he himself - the person. If that takes the certainty out of faith, that's fine with me. If we can no longer claim to KNOW the truth of all prophecy, then I say it's good for us to come to this realization - it's better late than never. May God be gracious by destroying the false certitude which leaves no room for faith.
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Similitude
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   Posted 1/25/2009 12:30 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
OK, Zach. Let's get it down to the verse in Phillipians that says every knee shall bow and every tongue confess. Do you believe that's true? If so, will it be done volitionally or non-volitionally? If it's not true, you at least see my problem as one who accepts it as being as true as any other scripture. I'm trying to make sense of the verses in a coherent way. There has to be LFW, no doubt about it. But it doesn't follow that we can rule out different logical possibilities about the ROLE that LFW and final causes play in the creational project without evidence from revelation as to what that role IS.


 

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Similitude
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   Posted 1/31/2009 7:17 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Zach: I don't believe God is bound to ultimately force people into this. God is strong. He can do whatever he wants. He can even lie IF he wants. It's not his programing that we praise for being faithful but he himself - the person. If that takes the certainty out of faith, that's fine with me. If we can no longer claim to KNOW the truth of all prophecy, then I say it's good for us to come to this realization - it's better late than never. May God be gracious by destroying the false certitude which leaves no room for faith.

Jeff: We've covered the ground of God's power vs. motivation before. Because God has the sheer power to do a thing doesn't mean He can be motivated to do it. I have the power to walk in to my living room and kill my wife. But I can't be motivated to. Thus, I can't do it--even though I have the POWER to do it.

But as for faith, if whether God will, or already has, become evil is ultimately reduceable to a probability of 50%, I have no idea what it means to have faith in God. I have difficulty believing you even believe that either. And yet what can account for a difference in expectations of a person's volitions except the specific character you infer the person has, and the motivations that seem possible for such a character?



 

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Tom
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   Posted 2/1/2009 11:50 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Jeff: Our salvation is finally caused before we even exist.

Tom: Ouch. Wouldn't say it that way.

Jeff: At best any final causation on our part is relegated to deciding the circumstances of that pre-destined inevitability.

Tom: But we can only determine the 'when' of the circumstances if the 'choice' itself is equally left up to us. I can agree that irrevocably rejecting God isn't a real possibility, but that doesn't make meaningless the concept of an infinitely renewed rejection. Point is, when we make the choice, we're free at that moment to not make it. And THAT'S all need be the case for the choice to be free in the libertarian sense.

Jeff: Monergism with decoration. But still monergism where it counts.

Tom: Synergism within limits.

Do we have a deal? ;o)

Pax,
T
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Similitude
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   Posted 2/1/2009 1:15 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom, you were quoting Zach and attributing it to me. Didn't know if you were doing typo's or were actually confused as to who said what.

I think where Zach would disagree with "synergism within limits" has to do with the nature of free-will itself. If a bona-fide volition has a probability of the reciprocal of the number of possible choices, then you see how open theism would virtually rule out any warranted certainty as to a UR conditioned upon "synergism within limits."

IOW, we need to really get our definitions clear as a bell about how volition is related to epistemic distance and whether any future decreasing of epistemic distance by God will happen and whether it will be of the right kind to increase the probability of a volition UNTO God . It is a difficult subject to be sure. I can see how Zach is still confused about the details, because I still am. That's why I go with the minimalist position for now. That seems to work sufficiently to get me to UR. The whole DEGREE thang makes it seem conceivable to me.

The whole basis for me distinguishing between FC1 and FC2 (and a possibly divine FC3) is to account for a non-deterministic state of affairs that can allow for true final causality functioning in cases where the probability of an event is virtually 1, for all practical purposes. But insomuch as true final causality is involved, determinism is NOT the case in such states of affairs. This, if valid, undermines Zach's argument that God's acting as final cause entails a probability for any given divine choice of the reciprocal of the number of possible choices.

Indeed, taking a given divine choice as a mere possibility by virtue of the fact that God is STRONG and has the sheer POWER to do kazillions of things, it would seem that by Zach's probabilistic view, the probability that God chooses any particular action/event is 1 divided by a kazillion. Surely God's motivations, constrained as they must be, by His intended ENDS, render the probability of His acting in a manner FITTED to those ends to WAY higher than 1 divided by a kazillion.

Indeed, unless God is unwise or incompetent, the probability that God would choose in a manner FITTED to His own ends would be exactly 1. Of course, we could posit the possibility that He might have abandoned His previously purposed ends for some reason, but what would be the evidence for such an hypothesis? I can think of none. And this is where my epistemology constrains me. I seek the highest generalizations from the data at hand.

There are myriads of MERELY logical possibilities. The question is always, "Do we inductively argue as analogically as possible, or not?" And if not, "why not?" I'm clueless as to why we wouldn't. IOW, what more fundamental epistemological principle informs us as to WHEN to seek the most analogical/generic viable explanations if we are not to ALWAYS do so? I'm ignorant of any such principle by which to adjudicate that question unless it be the principle that any generalization that renders God malevolent or non-sympathetic is irrational.

For if God is not benevolent, we have no reason to believe we are designed to apprehend in the first place. But so long as greater generalizations do not contradict the benevolence of God, they are to be embraced as MORE rational than the less general alternatives. This is the essence of logical induction.


 

Post Edited (Similtude) : 2/1/2009 9:26:33 PM (GMT-6)

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Tom
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   Posted 2/2/2009 9:08 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Ha! Sorry about that confusion. I guess I should have been able to tell you and Zach apart, eh? ;o)

My internet is down and I'm borrowing, so I don't have the time to comment much now. Just this:

Jeff: I think where Zach would disagree with "synergism within limits" has to do with the nature of free-will itself. If a bona-fide volition has a probability of the reciprocal of the number of possible choices...

Tom: If you're offered vanilla ice cream and are free to accet it or reject it (and not make THAT choice), then you're libertarianly free WITH RESPECT TO THAT CHOICE whether or not you ALSO have chocolate and straberrry and rocky road to choose from. Multiple options y and z IN ADDITION TO THE MAKING OR NOT MAKING OF CHOICE x are not required to ground the LFW of choosing or not choosing x. Hell may not be a smorgasbord of choices, but so long as we are free to reject God any time we should choose to accept him, we're free in the required sense.

Epistemic distance. Yeah. Can say anything now. Gotta run.

T
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Similitude
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   Posted 2/7/2009 1:47 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
You do see what I'm saying about epistemic distance, don't you Tom? If there is no change in epistemic distance post-mortem, what would ground our confidence that the "becomings" of volitional humans would be any different, statistically speaking? That's what I don't understand. And I'm thinking the claim that "every mouth will be stopped" is evidence that there WILL be a change in epistemic distance. If not, it seems to mean that God merely FORCEFULLY shuts their mouth. What would a third meaning of that phrase be?


 

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Sahid
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   Posted 2/7/2009 2:53 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
J: OK, Zach. Let's get it down to the verse in Phillipians that says every knee shall bow and every tongue confess. Do you believe that's true? If so, will it be done volitionally or non-volitionally? If it's not true, you at least see my problem as one who accepts it as being as true as any other scripture. I'm trying to make sense of the verses in a coherent way. There has to be LFW, no doubt about it. But it doesn't follow that we can rule out different logical possibilities about the ROLE that LFW and final causes play in the creational project without evidence from revelation as to what that role IS.

Z: Yes. I'm an annihilationist. Those who remain in existance til the end will all worship God - voluntarily. What is incoherent about that? If annihilationism doesn't jive with this passage, then neither does UR.

J: We've covered the ground of God's power vs. motivation before. Because God has the sheer power to do a thing doesn't mean He can be motivated to do it. I have the power to walk in to my living room and kill my wife. But I can't be motivated to. Thus, I can't do it--even though I have the POWER to do it.

Z: Sure you can. There is nothing absurd or logically impossible about you being so motivated. 'Don't' doesn't equal 'can't'.


J: But as for faith, if whether God will, or already has, become evil is ultimately reduceable to a probability of 50%, I have no idea what it means to have faith in God.

Z: Without this openness you wouldn't have faith. What faith-counterfit you'd be left with would be equivalent to faith in an inanimate object continuing to just be. It's not personal faith. It's not faith in a personal God. Throw out faith and hope; replace them with knowledge and logical necessity - it works fine, but it denies the existence of a personal God.


J: I have difficulty believing you even believe that either.

Z: There is always the possibilty that I'm lying. I'm am a person after all even if God isn't.


J: And yet what can account for a difference in expectations of a person's volitions except the specific character you infer the person has, and the motivations that seem possible for such a character?

Z: God's character is not determined by anything other than his will. There is no higher principal that dictates to God. There's just dizzingly-free will. That fundamental undefinedness IS personhood.


J: I think where Zach would disagree with "synergism within limits" has to do with the nature of free-will itself. If a bona-fide volition has a probability of the reciprocal of the number of possible choices, then you see how open theism would virtually rule out any warranted certainty as to a UR conditioned upon "synergism within limits."

Z: Zach would say that to apply probabilty to choice is to deny free will. Dice and the will work differently.


J: ...it would seem that by Zach's probabilistic view...

Z: WHAT!?!?! Why do I bother trying? Have I been unclear? I might as well start addressing Jeff's Shitoism.


J: Surely God's motivations, constrained as they must be...

Z: right... Do I need to point out that this merely begs the question?


J: Indeed, unless God is unwise or incompetent, the probability that God would choose in a manner FITTED to His own ends would be exactly 1.

Z: Only according to JEFF'S "probabilistic view". Zach has consistently argued that applying probability to LFW only betrays the speaker's ignorance of at least one of the concepts.


J: For if God is not benevolent, we have no reason to believe we are designed to apprehend in the first place.

Z: Sure, but his happening to be benevolent has NOTHING to do with his hypothetical being constrained by whatever to be that way or the pretended certainty that he must continue to be benevolent.


J: But so long as greater generalizations do not contradict the benevolence of God, they are to be embraced as MORE rational than the less general alternatives. This is the essence of logical induction.

Z: And there it is. You base reason on induction; certitude on hope. The best we've got is hope. Hope that God has been, is, and will forever be benevolent. Certitude is just a fly in faith's soup. It doesn't belong, and it prompts customers to reject the soup altogether.

Post Edited (Sahid) : 2/7/2009 5:38:38 PM (GMT-6)

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Similitude
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   Posted 2/7/2009 7:59 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
J: Indeed, unless God is unwise or incompetent, the probability that God would choose in a manner FITTED to His own ends would be exactly 1.

Z: Only according to JEFF'S "probabilistic view". Zach has consistently argued that applying probability to LFW only betrays the speaker's ignorance of at least one of the concepts.

Jeff: What I meant by that was that you have previously argued that the only KIND of probability we could conceivably apply to free-will choices is the reciprocal of the number of possibilities. That's the kind of probability we apply to coin tosses, though we know that however the coin toss turned out, the probability that it land the way it does is 1 in another SENSE.

I'm actually agreeing with you that apart from a divinely-caused decrease in epistemic distance, post-mortem, that would account for a radical increase in the likelihood of "becoming" God-ward, a purely volitional UR SEEMS groundless.

J: I have difficulty believing you even believe that either.

Z: There is always the possibilty that I'm lying. I'm am a person after all even if God isn't.

Jeff: What I'm saying is that I think you believe in some kind of solidification process and that, therefore, motivations become more and more controlling. But to say that we are absolutely free, even from motivations constraining WHAT we could choose FROM, seems completely meaningless. Thus, to say that God can go from perfect holiness to a Satanic evil in one choice seems to go against any analogy of free-will that humans can conceive of. It is to posit for God something completely non-analogical to our EXPERIENCE of our own free-will.

It is much easier (because more analogical) to say that God simply is unchangeable in certain of His characteristics, as scripture claims. And why shouldn't we take scripture as the default position if we at least assume that they were written by men whose words God confirmed by signs and wonders. And if that much, even, is false, then why ever appeal to scripture at all?
 
If we're going to say that God is not unchangeable in His sympathetic motivations, we might as well say He is not unchanging in power or intellectual ability either. What would ground the latter but not the former? You constantly speak of God's power. How do you know you are not now more powerful than God? Your skepticism proves too much. There is no sense in even arguing if you can't accept anything as just a GIVEN with your opponent from which to argue.

We all agree that if foundationalism is false, there is no point in arguing for any position whatsoever. There is no reason to argue against determinism, even, in that case. All arguments are completely arbitrary and, hence, irrational, if blind faith is all there is.

J: But so long as greater generalizations do not contradict the benevolence of God, they are to be embraced as MORE rational than the less general alternatives. This is the essence of logical induction.

Z: And there it is. You base reason on induction; certitude on hope. The best we've got is hope. Hope that God has been, is, and will forever be benevolent.

Jeff: How do you even GET to the existence of God FROM induction. To my mind, induction ASSUMES teleology. And teleology is just the way humans categorically think. This is now the consensus position of academe, even. But no, it is not that I base reason on induction. Induction IS a SPECIES of reasoning. Deduction is another. But the premises of deduction are obtained from inductive reasoning--unless you want to argue that we're born conscious of some set of propositions from which we deduce all other propositions we CHOOSE to believe. But I have no memory of any original set of propositions. And the propositions I believe are either propositional expressions of my categorical modes of thought, or they are inductively inferred.

Consequently, my belief in the benevolence of God is grounded in the fact that I categorically think teleologically and that one particular telos seems obvious to me--that we are designed to avoid displeasure and seek pleasure. If reality was such that displeasure prevailed over pleasure to a degree that there was no way to render that intelligible, I would have to become a complete skeptic. But reality doesn't seem to require that an ultimately attainable end of a meaningful degree of pleasure is impossible (by meaningful degree of pleasure, I mean a degree of pleasure that renders whatever displeasure is experienced WORTH enduring). My induction and deduction, grounded as they are in my categories, infer a conceivable way that joy will prevail over sorrow to this meaningful extent for all sentient beings.

For you, the bottom line is freedom, with no regard for pleasure over displeasure. For me, freedom itself is conditioned by motivations which are pleasure-oriented and displeasure-averse. You can disagree with me. But for the life of me I can't see how you could prove me wrong. All views involve foundationalism and brute facts of one sort or another. There is no way around it. I just think my view allows for greater analogy/generalization than yours. Yours seems to entail unconditioned freedom for God at the cost of non-analogical thought (for we have no experience of UTTERLY unconditioned freedom). But, again, apart from thinking as analogously as possible, I don't know what should constrain our hypotheses amongst the infinite set of merely logical possibilities--including atheistic ones.


 

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Tom
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   Posted 2/8/2009 8:42 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Jeff: You do see what I'm saying about epistemic distance, don't you Tom? If there is no change in epistemic distance post-mortem, what would ground our confidence that the "becomings" of volitional humans would be any different, statistically speaking? That's what I don't understand.

Tom: Yeah, I see your point. Here’s a possible analogy. Think of the change in epistemic distance that occurs in, say, a criminal who when left undisturbed in public continues his criminal behavior without remorse. But when he’s thrown into prison, the discomfort and pain of incarceration creates a situation in which he does come to consider his actions. Prison closes the gap so to speak, and forces his consideration of life from a new perspective.

True, not all criminals are changed by prison life. Some are, some aren’t. The point is, suffering the painful consequences of wrong choices is remedial and instructive. If might not always have that effect in this life. But I can easily imagine hell being a suitable place that, given its potential unending nature, makes the eventual reformation of the wicked an inevitability.

So yes, I agree with you. Hell has to amount to a significant change in epistemic distance if it makes inevitable what no change in distance or context in this world can make inevitable in this short life span. But I think it’s easy to imagine hell being just such a place. My only points are: a) libertarian free will is metaphysically required for creaturely becoming, period. So I can’t jettison that. And b) the exercise of freedom relative to good/evil requires some minimal epistemic distance. I can’t say how much is too much or too little. But I’m confident that it can become too much, in which case we’re overwhelmed with truth which is forced upon us and leaves us incapable of constructing any rational justification for freely rejecting God, nor can we be too deprived of truth, for then we’d have no way to construct a rational justification for freely choosing God. The distance has to constitute the “space” in which we determine ourselves freely. The question for UR is whether hell can be conceived as a place where such freedom is in place AND where we’re able to say with confidence that everybody will eventually exercise that freedom in choosing God.

If the BEST I can manage in the end is just saying, “Hey, God will continue to pursue the wicked eternally with no guarantee that all eventually choose him,” fine. I’ll say that. But I think this directly undermines the NT eschatological hope in the assured finality of God’s victory over evil. There doesn’t seem to be any doubt in the early Church’s mind that all creation will eventually be won (Phil 2 and Col. 1). In the absence of any clear proof that my hope in eventually UR as impossible, I’ll go with the NT and affirm that all creation will be redeemed through Christ.

Jeff: And I'm thinking the claim that “every mouth will be stopped” is evidence that there WILL be a change in epistemic distance. If not, it seems to mean that God merely FORCEFULLY shuts their mouth. What would a third meaning of that phrase be?

Tom: A third meaning might be simply that persons will eventually reason their way out of rejecting God and into choosing God (without having to suppose that the possibility of rejecting God has been precluded because God has overwhelmed us with the facts and made relating to him inescapable). The only reason we’d need to appeal to an absolute closure of epistemic distance to make rationally rejecting God impossible would be to secure the universal redemption of all humankind within a restricted period of time. But if God’s got all the time he needs, what’s the rush?

Some have objected that hell can’t possibly be anything BUT full epistemic disclosure, so rational libertarian choice regarding good/evil couldn’t possibly prevail. But why think that? I mean, think of Lucifer and the angels. They must have had a LOT of light and knowledge. Far more disclosure than we presently have as human beings. But still there was enough distance to make the wrong choice rationally possible. All that has to be true is for creatures to be limited in their perspectives or less than omniscient. That’s all.

I don’t have to points in mind, but I think several reputable scholars argue that Paul’s use of “bowing the knee” and “confessing Jesus as Lord” in Philippians refers exclusively to the free surrender of one’s will to God. In other words, to confess "Jesus is Lord" is not the confess the objective truth of the claim irrespective of one's personal relationship to Christ. To say "Jesus is Lord" is to say "Jesus is MY Lord," and given the nature of the relationship, it has to be freely embraced.

Tom

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Similitude
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   Posted 2/8/2009 9:47 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Jeff: And I'm thinking the claim that “every mouth will be stopped” is evidence that there WILL be a change in epistemic distance. If not, it seems to mean that God merely FORCEFULLY shuts their mouth. What would a third meaning of that phrase be?

Tom: A third meaning might be simply that persons will eventually reason their way out of rejecting God and into choosing God (without having to suppose that the possibility of rejecting God has been precluded because God has overwhelmed us with the facts and made relating to him inescapable). The only reason we’d need to appeal to an absolute closure of epistemic distance to make rationally rejecting God impossible would be to secure the universal redemption of all humankind within a restricted period of time. But if God’s got all the time he needs, what’s the rush?

Some have objected that hell can’t possibly be anything BUT full epistemic disclosure, so rational libertarian choice regarding good/evil couldn’t possibly prevail. But why think that? I mean, think of Lucifer and the angels. They must have had a LOT of light and knowledge. Far more disclosure than we presently have as human beings. But still there was enough distance to make the wrong choice rationally possible. All that has to be true is for creatures to be limited in their perspectives or less than omniscient. That’s all.

I don’t have to points in mind, but I think several reputable scholars argue that Paul’s use of “bowing the knee” and “confessing Jesus as Lord” in Philippians refers exclusively to the free surrender of one’s will to God. In other words, to confess "Jesus is Lord" is not the confess the objective truth of the claim irrespective of one's personal relationship to Christ. To say "Jesus is Lord" is to say "Jesus is MY Lord," and given the nature of the relationship, it has to be freely embraced.

 

Jeff: OK, I think we're on the same page about epistemic distance. My main concern is to render however we explain it consistent with open theism. As I've described FC2, true FC2 seems to be consistent with PRE-known probabilities of virtually one. But my FC2 doesn't seem to fit the post-mortem SOFA's we're talking about. So for now, I feel confident that Paul is right when he says all mouths WILL be stopped by a true change of mind, HOWEVER that happens. And that's enough to get me to a conceivable UR.



 

Post Edited (Similtude) : 2/8/2009 9:27:53 AM (GMT-6)

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Tom
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   Posted 2/8/2009 10:55 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Jeff: And this is where degree is involved in my eschatology. God PREFERRED that there had never been a Fall or rejection of Himself at all. But all He can do now, given that those SOFA's are now impossible, is act unto the highest DEGREE of honor and glory for the Son. God prefers VOLUNTARY loving suffering with Christ, and we will receive a finite, but age-abiding, glory that renders that suffering UNWORTHY to be compared with those voluntary sufferings. But He will take the intellectual repentance associated with judgment if that's all He can get. And that will cause each person to fulfill, however minimally, the temporal end of their existence. Thus, God will have been perfectly competent in bringing about the end(s) of creation--for all the temporal suffering will have been WORTH it for all once the project "is finished."

Tom: I forgot which thread I cut this quote of yours from! But I like this too. I think we’ve agreed on something like this before. God’s going for the “most glory/good achievable.” And at one time I argued that those who are reconciled to God via faith in Christ from hell, by the very nature of the degree of epistemic disclosure that defines hell (i.e., there's less distance in hell than there is in this world), necessarily have a narrower scope of perceived glory to enjoy consequent to their choice. Perhaps I should say that having come to God via fire, there’s less of them to reflect God’s glory back throughout creation. By choosing to come through judgment, they've permanently decreased their capacity to perceive, enjoy and reflect God's glory. An example might be Peter’s pronouncement of “blessing” upon “those who have never seen and yet believe.” See what I mean? What’s Peter describing if not the abiding consequences of believing from within relatively greater and lesser degrees of epistemic disclosure/distance? So I can get with what you’re saying.

When I talk about varying degrees of capacity for enjoyment of God (and thus reflection of glory) I think of degrees of music enjoyment. Some people, through study and exposure to music, have enlarged their capacity to enjoy music. Others enjoy it as they can, but their appreciation of it doesn't include the depth of perception characteristic of the former group. You see my point. So I've wondered if the context in which people come to faith and grow in faith is a kind of sowing, while their final capacity to enjoy/appreciate and reflect divine beauty is their reaping. Those who come to faith through the judgment of hell would represent the barest minimum in terms of human capacity for perception and thus appreciation and reflection of glory.

I balked at this for a while because it seemed unfair to say that, say, Hitler, saved by grace through faith, would be permanently handicapped--so to speak--in his capacity to perceive and enjoy God throughout eternity in comparison to, say, Mother Teresa. I'm undecided. But I have to admit that the NT does speak of rewards and endowments for service, of a greater blessing for those who "have not seen and yet believe," etc. So perhaps it's no denial of grace to admit such degrees. It would make UR more...palatable?

But STILL, for me, there’s a metaphysical line to be drawn with respect freedom and creaturely becoming. SOME minimal amount of epistemic distance is required for a minimally free choice regarding the Good. Remove all that distance—viz., dump full disclosure of the truth upon a person—and you remove the capacity for rationally rejecting love. And that in turn makes responsible, creaturely becoming impossible. So if you agree that this line has to be drawn, I can agree that there are degrees of disclosure that make available various degrees of experienced intensity and reflected glory possible for creatures.

T

Post Edited (Tom) : 2/8/2009 10:09:13 AM (GMT-6)

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One Love
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   Posted 2/9/2009 3:08 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:
Remove all that distance—viz., dump full disclosure of the truth upon a person—and you remove the capacity for rationally rejecting love. And that in turn makes responsible, creaturely becoming impossible.

Isn't this what happens when The Spirit of Truth (Spirit of Christ-the-Logos) indwells a believer by faith through Grace (God's very working)? The fulfillment of theosis? A TRUE being...a hypostasis in Christ, not an "individual" of mere existence...right?  When the Holy Spirit bears witness that we are "God's Sons and Daughters"

Christ is THE Truth and the perfect human image of that Truth, yes? ;-)


God is love. Whoever lives in love lives in God, and God in them.

"I love, therefore I am in I Am.  God is my life."

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Tom
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   Posted 2/9/2009 7:32 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom: Remove all that distance—viz., dump full disclosure of the truth upon a person—and you remove the capacity for rationally rejecting love. And that in turn makes responsible, creaturely becoming impossible.

D: Isn't this what happens when The Spirit of Truth (Spirit of Christ-the-Logos) indwells a believer by faith through Grace (God's very working)? The fulfillment of theosis?

Tom: Not following ya. When you ask, "Isn't this what happens when..." what are you referring to by "this"? The removal of all epistemic distance? The capacity to reject love? Creaturely becoming? What?

Do you want to apply this to the topic at hand (UR)?

T
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One Love
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   Posted 2/9/2009 11:45 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:
Do you want to apply this to the topic at hand (UR)?

Absolutely. Bascially what I'm saying is this: When a creaturely, spiritual being has fully self-emptied and "died to themselves", become "alive to God", transparently re-presenting Christ-the-Logos in their creaturely existences, it would seem that "Truth" (via the Spirit of Christ-the-Logos, the very self-knowledge and self-disclosing Power of God) then fully indwells their very core of relationality and that would meant that, for that particular spiritual being...
 
1) epistemic distance is removed (the created "known" knows the Uncreated "Knower" as he is known)
 
and
 
2) the capacity for rationally (freely) rejecting the Creator's love is negated, even as the sheer potential of power of choice for rejecting said love continues to exist (Christ's Love "energizes" and "compels" us)

Now...if the telos of all created things is "Godward" because all is truly inherent in the Logos' Hypostasis (Nesteruk)...AND this is an immovable Divine Personal Presence from Creation, then NO ONE can eternally "escape" from the Spiritus Creator's Presence...and it's implications. Not Satan. Not Hitler. Not any evil person. You said...

Because God is the telos of creation, is love, and is invariably present as love in all existent things sustaining them as the ground of their existence, include things in hell. So metaphysically speaking, it makes sense to me to believe that created entities can achieve a level of irrevocable solidification Godward (because it is within their natures to do so as creatures of God) while it’s quite impossible for them to achieve an irrevocable solidification in evil. Created being, having its existence in the ever-present creative act of infinite love, can develop ever upward, even irrevocably so, into the ground of its being. But how would it secure an irrevocable solidification away from the same? I recognize the argument from propotionality behind your view, Zach. Greg even argues it in SATPOE. But he's since abandoned it. Given the nature of the divine act that grounds a created entity's being, Godward become cannot be precluded from the realm of the possible by any creaturely act. It's tantamount to saying divine acts are self-negating, or the grounds for ultimate, metaphysical negation. I don't see it. On the contrary, a creature’s very existence constitutes the possibility of Godward becoming.

Between God's (Love's) immutable Presence, innate Eternity and continuous "Grace" of Creation, then the salvation of all creaturely spiritual beings seems functionally inevitable, given the nature of created spirit beings (with their Godward logoi and everything). And that immutable Presence ensures that, for a spiritual being, right-relationship with God cannot be eternally ignored or defied. Sure, on paper, it's logically possible for a created being to choose to reject the Truth of God unto an eternal existence of rejecting Divine Reality. But like you say, Tom, that's pretty much an extremely improbable possibility. A spiritual center of consciousness, no matter how formally depraved, can have no greater salvation than the personal love relationship with their Creator God they have through the indwelling Spirit. You don't get more "saved" than fully living in the Spiritus Creator...and that Spirit is literally in the "center" of  all things. No creaturely movement into self-destruction (the refusal to love) can remove God's Presence, Love, and Grace from themselves. And when all of Creation finally acknowledges this, then "every mouth would be stopped"...right?
 
 


God is love. Whoever lives in love lives in God, and God in them.

"I love, therefore I am in I Am.  God is my life."

Post Edited (One Love) : 2/9/2009 11:22:02 AM (GMT-6)

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One Love
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   Posted 2/9/2009 12:05 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Something about the "degrees"...
 
Let's take an example of Hitler and Mother Teresa...something Tom mentioned earlier. None of Hitler's works destroyed the "image of God" in him. None. And it's definitely the case that none of Hitler's evil self-conceptions and self-expressions did anything to remove the presence of the Spirit of Christ-the-Logos from his human constitution.  In this Hitler had no more or less "image of God" than Mother Teresa had.  Now, if all of his sense of no-thingness were purged from his soul by God's firey love...and he ended up with pure love relationship with the Triune God from the depth of is human heart/spirit/nous via the Spirit...then how would he be better off or worse off than Mother Teresa?  I can't see it. Both self-reflecting beings would be in perfect love relationship with God (and all others because of loving God) through their purified, clarified human "nouses."   God would be the ultimate prize here, nothing else.  And both Hitler and Mother Teresa would have that prise EQUALLY.  And we can see that, given who God is, it was only a matter of time and context  before the Eternal Truth within Hitler (and all Creation) would be revealed to himself and others.

I imagine Hiitler and Mother Teresa at the Consummation. Both would be self-reflecting, self-related beings in loving communion with God...who only see the deepest core of themeselves in God's Love. A true created spirit - Uncreated Spirit union in them...both experiencing divine life (the indwelling Trinity in the human soul)  So how would either be better off than the other in any meaningful type of way?  To me, this would be just like the parable with the workers...where Mother Teresa would be the person who worked "in the heat of the day", toiling for Christ in her eartly life and Hitler was the 11th hour servant, getting the Truth post-mortem.  What has been promised in this case was an eternal love relationship between the person and the Uncreated God. (the true day's wage)  Just because Mother Teresa enjoyed the reality of God's love longer in this life doesn't necessarily mean that the post-Consummation Hitler will be "worse off" for that.  They both have the same wage.
 
To me, the end of the epistemic distance is when creaturely beings TRULY INTERNALIZE the reality that everything...visible and invisible...is created, empowered, and sustained by God's Grace alone (inseparable from the Divine Presence via Holy Spirit) which demonstrates his unconditional, passionate love of Creation...and the creatures make all choices according to that immutable, undeniable reality.  If both Hitler and Mother Teresa live in this reality, they both have the same "gift" of the Holy Spirit.  How is Hitler eternally "crippled" by his former life, I'm wondering...


God is love. Whoever lives in love lives in God, and God in them.

"I love, therefore I am in I Am.  God is my life."

Post Edited (One Love) : 2/9/2009 11:19:12 AM (GMT-6)

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One Love
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   Posted 2/9/2009 12:26 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:
But STILL, for me, there’s a metaphysical line to be drawn with respect freedom and creaturely becoming. SOME minimal amount of epistemic distance is required for a minimally free choice regarding the Good. Remove all that distance—viz., dump full disclosure of the truth upon a person—and you remove the capacity for rationally rejecting love. And that in turn makes responsible, creaturely becoming impossible.

How does his apply to Jesus (who WAS the Truth!) and his FREE, HUMAN choice to die on the Cross? We do want to say that Jesus choice to give his life for humanity was a free, responsible, creaturely becoming choice that he made as a full human being.  Jesus wasn't a divine robot, right? At the same time, we want to say that, though Jesus had the SHEER HUMAN ABILITY to make the choice against God's love and will, it was still INEVITABLY the case that Jesus would not refuse to follow the Divine Will perceived of the Holy Spirit.  Right?
 
I'm not trying to jump hither and yon here.  I think all of this is tied together about the inevitability of freely choosing God, when one freely self-empties to be filled and rightly-related with the Omnipresent Holy Spirit of Christ-the-Logos.


God is love. Whoever lives in love lives in God, and God in them.

"I love, therefore I am in I Am.  God is my life."

Post Edited (One Love) : 2/9/2009 11:36:31 AM (GMT-6)

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Tom
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   Posted 2/9/2009 3:43 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
D: How does his apply to Jesus…?

 

Tom: The emergence of personal becoming (I mean the coming into being of a non-divine ‘person’) must be a libertarian journey. But there is no such ‘coming into being’ for the ‘person’ of the Son. My point, D, is just that personal becoming for non-divine persons requires libertarian freedom, and libertarian freedom with regard to such becoming can only be exercised within some minimal amount of epistemic distance. That’s my only point. How this applies to Jesus is a separate issue. You may want to say it describes the risky coming into being of the person of the Son. I wouldn't. It applies to US in terms of epistemic distance and free will because that's an aspect of a kind of personal becoming that can't possible be attributed to divine persons. But anyhow, these are issues we’re trying to reconcile with creaturely repentance in hell.

 

Tom

Post Edited (Tom) : 2/9/2009 4:07:08 PM (GMT-6)

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Asher
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   Posted 2/9/2009 6:09 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
One Love: I imagine Hiitler and Mother Teresa at the Consummation.


I immediately flashed to the scene from Return of the Jedi where Obi Wan Kenobi, Yoda and Darth Vader (redeemed back to Anakin) watch over Luke and the others as they celebrate victory over the second Death Star. :p
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One Love
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   Posted 2/9/2009 6:40 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
That's a perfect analogy, Asher. Perfect.  cheers

From wikipedia...

Force Ghost
The first appearance of a force ghost is in the film The Empire Strikes Back, although Obi-Wan's voice is heard after death in Star Wars. In the Return of The Jedi, the ghosts of Yoda and Anakin Skywalker are also seen. While the first two are seen to vanish upon death, it is unclear if Vader's body actually vanishes as he dies. It certainly does not disappear or dissolve onscreen (unlike those of Yoda or Obi-Wan Kenobi the other two Jedi to die in the original trilogy) and Luke Skywalker is later seen burning Vader's armor. There is no indication onscreen whether this armour still contains the Dark Lord's body or not.

Questions arose after the release of The Phantom Menace, when Qui-Gon Jinn's body did not vanish after his death fighting Darth Maul and, perhaps more importantly, none of the other characters expected it to. Qui-Gon's remains were burned on a Jedi funeral pyre on Naboo. In the film's DVD commentary Lucas indicated that this apparent discontinuity was a plot point that would be returned to[citation needed].

In Revenge of the Sith it is made known that the ability to return as a Force Spirit is not in fact something which happens to everyone, but a recently discovered and complex discipline. The late Qui-Gon Jinn is said to have discovered "..the path to immortality", the secret of how to retain his identity after death and absorption into the Force, a process which requires the attaining of a state of unconditional compassion. It is also stated that his spirit will instruct Yoda and Obi-Wan in this discipline during their exiles. This scene sets up the ability both characters demonstrate in later episodes.

George Lucas has since indicated (on the Episode III DVD commentary) that the appearance of Vader's former self, Anakin Skywalker, as a Force Spirit at the end of Episode VI is due to combination of Anakin's own latent Force ability, his achievement of a moment of unconditional compassion at his death and redemption and Yoda and Obi-Wan's spirits helping him extend his identity out of The Force.



-------------------------

God (I Am that I Am) is Love.

I love, therefore I am.


God is love. Whoever lives in love lives in God, and God in them.

"I love, therefore I am in I Am.  God is my life."

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One Love
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   Posted 2/9/2009 6:43 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Feelin' me, dawg? ;-)


God is love. Whoever lives in love lives in God, and God in them.

"I love, therefore I am in I Am.  God is my life."

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Tom
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   Posted 2/10/2009 2:44 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Heh. Science fiction. Wow.

I'm not offering the worker's complaint in your parable. If it's the case that Hitler and Mother Teresa (indeed all persons) wind up with the same capacities to reflect glory, and there are no abiding consequences of our use of freedom and character development, no rewards, fine. I'm not looking to "get more than" or end up "better off than" someone else as if that's the whole point. I'm just looking to "make sense" of the things we say about freedom/consequence, character solidification, and rewards.

Everybody will be equally redeemed and glorified. And we have to say we'll all be like him for we shall see his face. But it's clear that not all receive the same reward. And though little is said about rewards, we do know they're a part of the eternal Kingdom. And rewards are by definition discriminatory. That is, some get this and not that. Does this mean some are "better off" than others? Well, define "better" for me. "Better off..." than what? In what respect? Certainly those who receive a reward are not better off than those who don't in SOME respects. We're all redeemed and glorifed after all. But unless rewards are meaningless, those who receive ARE "better off" than those who don't in other respects, i.e., in respect to the substance of the rewards received.

Combining all these, it makes sense of why there even IS a hell, of the integrity of character solidification, and of the NT emphasis upon rewards to suppose that rewards are abiding, not ephemeral, and discriminating as opposed to equal across the board, and to suppose that rewards are keyed to character development as consequences of freedom (we have to say what rewards are a reward for). I'm suggesting that in a sense we BECOME our reward, or if you like, our rewards are the shape of our particularities. But if rewards are discriminatory, then we can't all BE the same thing, cookie cutter reproductions in terms of abilities, capacities, perceptions, etc., like Obi Wan, Annakin, and Yoda. That's Sci-fi. This is real life.

T

Post Edited (Tom) : 2/10/2009 2:46:01 AM (GMT-6)

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