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a_theist
"Thy will be done."




Date Joined Dec 2002
Total Posts : 286
 
   Posted 4/7/2003 4:57 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
I recently heard it stated that in Aramaic, "Son of God" is used to mean God-like, but is not saying that Jesus was God. Does anyone know Aramaic well enough to contest the point that Jesus never believed himself to be God? Also, how much of the New Testament was written in Aramaic? Apparently, this guy feels that a good portion of it was, and has retranslated it from Aramaic.

Cleek me please

Blessings,
Paul

"The 'sovereignty' of God is not, I suggest, a very biblical idea, especially if one has a low opinion of the respect of sovereigns for the freedom of their subjects."
~Charles Hartshorne
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PotOnWheel
Registered Member




Date Joined Jul 2001
Total Posts : 9890
 
   Posted 4/7/2003 5:38 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Paul, sidestep that tangent with this: Four instances in the Bible where the The Son is present with the Father and the Son -- ALL THREE!

  • Creation

  • Incarnation

  • Baptism

  • Transfiguration


No doubt!!!
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Laika
Registered Member




Date Joined Mar 2003
Total Posts : 2433
 
   Posted 4/11/2003 2:42 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:

Does anyone know Aramaic well enough to contest the point that Jesus never believed himself to be God?



Read John 8. Jesus is teaching in the temple and the scribes and pharisees are testing him. He says their father is the devil!

quote:

8:56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw [it], and was glad.

8:57 Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham?

8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

8:59 Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.



If Jesus wasn't claiming to be God, why did they try and kill him? Remember they were sticklers for the law and even though he had called them children of the devil, they couldn't kill him out of anger at that. They needed him to break a statue in their law whose punishment was death. He claimed equality with Yahweh, punishable by death.

_________________________
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GregBoyd
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Date Joined Jul 2001
Total Posts : 1818
 
   Posted 4/13/2003 2:34 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
In ancient semetic culture in general, "son of" was a pretty fluid concept. For example, Judas is referred to as "a son of perdition" (Jn 13) meaning "fit for damnation." The term could mean "like another" or "representative of another" or "descendent of another" or "closely associated with another" or "has the nature of" etc... The content of the term, in other words, has to be determined by OTHER factors which give it a context.

It's clear to me that Jesus and the Gospel authors held that the Son of God represented God, was closely associated with God, and HAD THE NATURE of God.

He positions himself as God before others, talks like God, exercises the authority and power of God, and elicites a response from others that is only appropriate for God (worship).

Blessings
Greg

"The responsibility is with the chooser -- God is blameless." Plato, Republic, 10.
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