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Open Theism Discussion Board > Public Forums > Theological Q&A > (No Subject)
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geebob
Registered Member
Date Joined Jul 2001
Total Posts : 94
| Posted 6/7/2002 4:16 PM (GMT -6) |   | A Jewish fella posted this verse arguing against Jesus' Fulfillment of the sacrificial law. Jesus was crucified once for all so I don't see how he can fulfill verse 18.
Supposing we go the openness route, I don't see God changing his mind regarding this later because I assumed he planned the sacrifice of his son long before Jeremiah was around and possibly as soon as Man first sinned.
Any ideas?
Jeremiah 33:17
For this is what the LORD says: `David will never fail to have a man to sit on the throne of the house of Israel,
18 nor will the priests, who are Levites, ever fail to have a man to stand before me continually to offer burnt offerings, to burn grain offerings and to present sacrifices.'"
I will gladly pay you teusday for a hamburger today.
-Wimpy | | Back to Top | | |
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PotOnWheel
Registered Member
Date Joined Jul 2001
Total Posts : 9890
| Posted 6/7/2002 6:02 PM (GMT -6) | | Hmmm....
You could throw at him the fact that Abraham received a promise from God BEFORE the Law was given. That is significant. The Temple practices came later.
But concider that Christ is CONTINUALLY before the Father as OUR HIGH PRIEST!
That is sufficient. | | Back to Top | | |
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