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PotOnWheel
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Date Joined Jul 2001
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   Posted 8/14/2002 7:26 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Writerdad!

I thought of you this morning as I was reading a section of Lossky having to do with the dominion and kingship of God. You might say that the "classical" view goes beyond the "dominion" of God in the O.T. (The N.T. introduces the kingdom and kingship--wherein we are joint heirs.) to the First Necessity of philosophers in a God who does not risk. That "classical" view is not the God of the scritpures. Lossky pulls no punches criticizing that view.

This is what made me think of you, writerdad: ...of the dominion of God in Trinity of Persons, transcendent in His unknowable nature, immanent in His love. My reason for this post is to expand terms and concepts by 50%. I've seen here the terms transcendent and immanent. Isn't that where the battle lines have been pitched. But to talk about the Personal aspect of God, that risks, Lossky uses the term "dominion." (If you can find his book in a library or a good book store, check out page-215 in the chapter called "Dominion and Kingship", section-3)

It is in God's personal dominion that he loves others besides himself. God is not frozen in His transcendent nature, nor does he determine everything from the start--only then to be slave of tweaking bits and pieces due to contingencies. Lossky points out that "The Thought Which Thinks Itself" of Aristotle would never be called "Lord." But God has "dominion."

Here are two quotes from you, writerdad. I want to affirm what I see as the basic drive behind what you say. (Though, I make adjustments doe to the inclusion of the personal dominion of God.) I hope that I can explain.

quote:
I suppose, in essence, it boils down to whether or not a person believes God can be changed by what goes on "down here." A "change" in the Son (even by adding humanity), in my view, has to effect the whole of the Trinity in some way because of the closeness of the relationship of the Trinity, just as something profound happening to me would effect my wife, even though it didn't happen to her. Harold


writerdad: ...whether or not a person believes God can be changed by what goes on "down here...

Yes. God is Lord, and has dominion. This is of the personal aspect of God. In becoming Incarnate in Christ God did not become any less "unknowable in his essence/nature; but became intentionally more knowable in Christ's image of the Father.


writerdad: A "change" in the Son (even by adding humanity), in my view, has to effect the whole of the Trinity in some way

The personal "change" (How can we call it that when God loved us as much as the cross from eternity -- though I have NO idea whether it was a specific plan-in-the-works before Gen.1, and have no way of knowing!) would not just be confined to the actual incarnation, but would also include God's dominion (I'm going to use the word of the day...just because. ) in the purposing described in John 3:16. Aristotle's god could never "change" so much.


And in another post of yours...

quote:
I guess what I am striving to bring across is that I have a problem with the view that Jesus was incarnated and somehow that is "separate," in the sense that it happened and it doesn't effect his divinity. Because of his love for us, God is affected by us. Christ's incarnation affected the whole Trinity. But in saying this I don't mean the two mingled, or that they are not distinct in some way (although how you would separate a being who has two natures, one physical, one not of substance is another question). But I reject that his humanity didn't affect his divinity and visa versa.


writerdad: I have a problem with the view that Jesus was incarnated and somehow that is "separate," in the sense that it happened and it doesn't effect his divinity.

This would be a true problem if all that God does were defined and destined by his essence/nature, as in the god of Aristotle, and the god of the "classical view." But since that is not true, the problem just goes away of its own accord. By "divinity" the classical sense means the unchangableness--meaning unmovableness. But the God of scripture is also personal and has dominion. Will you simply let me say that both before and during/after the incarnation no change was necessary in the unchangable nature of God because as TriUne Persons it was God's dominion to "so LOVE the world..." (Which to Aristotle's god would be a dis-allowed change right there.)


writerdad: Christ's incarnation affected the whole Trinity

I know what you were trying to say. I think the above gives my opinion. But as a way of affirming the urge behind your post, let me point out that the "affect" can be charted on the other end of the story, the beginning. By backtracking we find that the incarnation was the plan and the love and the risk of the WHOLE Trinity. The invasiveness, the affectedness of the whole Trinity was true right from the start; and not something new caused at the Annunciation. So your statement is truly true in that respect.


writerdad: But I reject that his humanity didn't affect his divinity and visa versa.

Posts above with the Meph-man tax me to the end of my thoughts. I've had to consider how the Kenosis might have felt (Boy am I limited, both in my lack of deity and Christian spirituality.) to be not limited in deity but voluntarily capped-off by the dominion of One's will to be limited to human senses, experience, emotions, etc. Boy!!!

But where I think that the majority of my pondering belongs is in how the Kenosis of the Word affected the en-hypostasized humanity of God ON MY BEHALF. The essence of God did not become any less unknowable. The THE WAY that God can be known personally and directly was made for us. The change in the deified humanity of Christ, "for us men and our salvation" (Nicean Creed) is where my thoughts go.


Let me say that these two posts are good. And that, unless you think that I butchered them, I affirm the impetus I see behind them.


Shalom.



Edited by - Al2Si2H4O9 on 08/14/2002 10:23:59 PM
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writerdad
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   Posted 8/14/2002 2:12 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Al2: I will have to "digest" what you have written so give me a day to to think them through...I guess trying to "figureout" the incarnation has taxed me as well...

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writerdad
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Date Joined Jun 2001
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   Posted 8/15/2002 6:31 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
A question for Mephi and Al2: if Jesus learned and made mistakes in learning, when would his statements be considered trustworthy? Perhaps this is why he did not start teaching until 30. By then he was pretty well locked in to what he believed and what he knew. But if Jesus did learn and make mistakes (I got into this in a Bible study once with this guy who believed Jesus could do no wrong, that when he learned to be a carpenter, he never made a mistake, that he picked it all up right away), then how reliable is his word? For me, demons aren't just real because Jesus believed they were, but also because he acted as if they were and because they showed themselves. This is an interesting topic and reminds me of a debate we got into in another Bible study. When did Jesus know he was God? Fully. My own personal belief is that was one of the reasons he went into the desert (the temptation) right before the start of his ministry, so that this last revelation could be given to his humanity. I mean, obviously I don't think he knew coming out of the womb. So there must have been a time when it was fully revealed to him. Harold

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