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|  CalvinnHobbes Registered Member

Date Joined Jan 2003 Total Posts : 88 | Posted 3/4/2003 7:33 PM (GMT -6) |   | Alan,
You once had some interaction with an old friend of mine on this site (jlreed) over Aquinas' doctrine of analogy. I gathered from the thread that you've done some considerable homework on Thomas and yet reject much of what he had to say. If you wouldn't mind sharing your thoughts, can I ask you what keeps you from subscribing to the Thomistic system? Particularly, I'm interested in your thoughts on or objections to his epistemology and metaphysics. I've been working through a lot of Thomistic material off and on over the last several months just trying to make sense of what Aquinas and/or his more contemporary adherents have to say.
(Anyone who has studied Aquinas beyond a superficial level is more than welcome to chime in. I'm just asking Alan because I know this kind of stuff is in his backyard.)
"The longer I live, the more I read, the more patiently I think, and the more anxiously I inquire, the less I seem to know." ~President John Adams | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Alan Rhoda Registered Member

Date Joined May 2002 Total Posts : 680 | Posted 3/4/2003 10:11 PM (GMT -6) |   | Thomism in general is a big topic.
Let me say at the outset that I think much of what Aquinas has to say is very good. His Christian appropriation and refinement of Aristotelian ethics is excellent, as is his hylomorphic understanding of human nature, his understanding of the relation between faith and reason, his existence/essence distinction, etc.
What I primarily object to in Aquinas are two of his metaphysical assumptions, carry-overs from neo-Platonism and Aristotelianism. The first is that perfection requires absolute freedom from change. The second is that receptivity implies passivity. I think most of what open theists would object to in the Thomistic doctrine of God follows from those two ideas. I'll try to develop this point further in the next couple days.
There are also several minor things I disagree with--like his belief that time does not have to have a beginning, or his view that the souls of male infants are infused 40 days after conception while the souls of female infants are infused 80 days after conception. But these matters don't affect the core of his system.
That's all I got time for right now. Alan
Edited by - Alan Rhoda on 03/05/2003 03:12:22 AM | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Terry_Baxter Registered Member
 Date Joined Jan 2002 Total Posts : 187 | Posted 3/5/2003 4:14 AM (GMT -6) |   | (slightly OT)
Btw: Alan (or others), have you read Nussbaum's _The Fragility of Goodness_ or her other works? I have a higher regard for the Greek originals after reading her interpretation of Aristotle et al. Doesn't necessarily mean I hold Aquinas in lower regard, but I see his project as less necessary or revolutionary viz Ethics especially.
Nussbaum is the scholar I dream of being some day (although her political advocacy emphasizes the point I've made elsewhere that we hold to some beliefs despite what we know, see http://www.firstthings.com/ftissues/ft9406/opinion/opinion.html ).
Now back to the discussion of Thomistic epistemology and metaphysics... 
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 |  Electra Registered Member

Date Joined Feb 2002 Total Posts : 611 | Posted 3/5/2003 4:26 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote: Alan,
You once had some interaction with an old friend of mine on this site (jlreed) over Aquinas' doctrine of analogy.
Can someone point me to the url for this thread? Sounds interesting. Electra
Love in action is a harsh and dreadful thing. ~ Dostoevsky | | Back to Top | | |
 |  CalvinnHobbes Registered Member

Date Joined Jan 2003 Total Posts : 88 | Posted 3/5/2003 5:45 AM (GMT -6) |   | For Electra-- Their discussion of Thomas on analogy is under the subject, "From Geisler's Battle for God." It's one of the topics of the general OV forum. The person with whom Alan is discussing (Jason Reed) was, at that time, Geisler's research assistant at Southern Evangelical Seminary. He's currently pursuing his Ph.D in philosophy at the University of St. Louis, studying under the well-known Thomist, Eleanor Stump. He's a hard-core Thomist and would certainly reject the Open View due to his commitments to Aquinas' understanding of perfection.
Alan, it sounds like you accept some of the fundamentals of his system (essence/existence) but not some of his more particular conclusions. Do you also accept his understandings of "being" and the "act-potency" distinction, or do you think he makes some gratuitous leaps in his particular justification or conceptualization of these?
I know you reject Aquinas when he says that these metaphysical starting points necessarily imply his notion of God's perfection. I look forward to your development of the perfection issue and any other alleged implications of his metaphysical foundations.
"The longer I live, the more I read, the more patiently I think, and the more anxiously I inquire, the less I seem to know." ~President John Adams
Edited by - CalvinnHobbes on 06/14/2003 12:54:02 PM | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Alan Rhoda Registered Member

Date Joined May 2002 Total Posts : 680 | Posted 3/5/2003 12:18 PM (GMT -6) |   | | | |
 |  Electra Registered Member

Date Joined Feb 2002 Total Posts : 611 | Posted 3/5/2003 1:27 PM (GMT -6) |   | Thanks C&H and Alan, I’ll check it out. I read a lot of David Tracy (e.g. Blessed Rage, Analogical Imagination, etc.) this summer and learned some things about neo-Thomism. Unfortunately I have no background in Aquinas, but I would like to learn more.
Electra
p.s. C&H, thanks also for the link to xxxchurch on the porno thread. Cool site!
Love in action is a harsh and dreadful thing. ~ Dostoevsky | | Back to Top | | |
 |  rossfadeinout Registered Member

Date Joined Oct 2002 Total Posts : 428 | Posted 3/19/2003 3:31 AM (GMT -6) |   | hey all, I have just started reading A Summa of the Summa which is selections of Aquinas' Summa selected by Peter Kreeft. (He also adds significant notes to help the beginner like myself understand).
Alan said quote: Let me say at the outset that I think much of what Aquinas has to say is very good. His Christian appropriation and refinement of Aristotelian ethics is excellent, as is his hylomorphic understanding of human nature, his understanding of the relation between faith and reason, his existence/essence distinction, etc.
I would definitely agree! From my basic reading I feel like Aquinas had a good understanding in these subjects. One question I have is about his understanding of Theistic proofs, and about knowledge in general. I envy what appears to be a certanity in his thoughts about God. While Aquinas would be quick to say that there is much that we can't know of God and reality apart from revelation and faith, he does assert confidently that we can have sure knowledge of reality and God through our reason...
I do see that there are some flaws in his understanding of God's perfection and unchangability. But I wonder if we could still appropriate Thomas' understanding of epistemology and metaphysics. So I guess like CalvinHobbes I interested in any thoughts or objections to Thomistic thought on these subjests.
Ross
I believe in Christianity as I believe that the sun has risen, not only because I see it, but because by it I see everything else. - C.S. Lewis | | Back to Top | | |
 |  the_rickster Registered Member
 Date Joined Jan 2003 Total Posts : 19 | Posted 4/3/2003 5:37 AM (GMT -6) |   | Alan or whoever can explain-
Could you expand on what you mean when you say -
"What I primarily object to in Aquinas are two of his metaphysical assumptions, carry-overs from neo-Platonism and Aristotelianism... The second is that receptivity implies passivity." I've studied Thomism a little bit but am unsure of what you mean by the second sentence. Thanks, rickster
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 |  Alan Rhoda Registered Member

Date Joined May 2002 Total Posts : 680 | Posted 4/3/2003 2:46 PM (GMT -6) |   | Rick,
By objecting to the idea that "receptivity implies passivity" I mean that orthodox Thomism's way of cashing out the act/potency distinction implies that to be receptive is to be in potency (thus "passive" in some respect), not act. Thus a God who is Pure Act cannot in any way be receptive toward his creatures. Impassibility follows.
I object to this because, as some modern Thomists like Norris Clarke have pointed out, receptivity does not necessarily imply potency/passivity. Clarke's counterexample, which I find persuasive, is that in "welcoming" we are both receptive and active at the same time. In welcoming I actively open myself up to be influenced by another. My point is that this should not be seen as compromising God's status as Pure Act because God's responsiveness to us is an active posture on his part. Thus orthodox Thomism is wrong in supposing that impassibility is a necessary consequence of God's perfection.
Make sense?
Alan | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Boyoms Registered Member
 Date Joined Dec 2002 Total Posts : 4 | Posted 4/4/2003 11:58 AM (GMT -6) |   | Alan I have been following this thread and have something to ask following up on your response to the rickster.
You said "What I primarily object to in Aquinas are two of his metaphysical assumptions, carry-overs from neo-Platonism and Aristotelianism... The second is that receptivity implies passivity."
Let me spell out what I think you are saying. 1.You agree the God is pure act. So you must hold that He has no potency (which is implied by or is identical to impassibility). So you agree that God is impassible/(has no potency) but still want to maintain that he is receptive.
In short, God has no potency yet is receptive.
You then try to argue for this or clarify this with the example: 1. in "welcoming" we are both receptive and active at the same time.
it seems that this is irrelevant to the issue. It was never objected to that we can be receptive and active at the same time. Humans obviously are, as the example illustrates. We have act and potency. I do want to clarify something though. Welcoming is an act. But in that act we invite others to influence us (to actualize a potency we may have). Welcoming is not at the same time an act and a potency, this makes no sense. Welcoming is an act. But this act happens to be an act in which an invitation is given to others to change us (actualize a potency we have). Sorry if I am being redundant, I just want to make sure I am understood. So this really isn't an argument that God can be pure act and yet also be receptive. A classical Thomist would hold that God does "welcome" us (whatever that may mean. maybe make salvation and a relationship with him available through revelation), but would object that that act of welcoming is one in which God invites us to actualize a potency of his, because he has none. Maybe i missed what you meant by receptive. Please define it if I did.
2. In welcoming I actively open myself up to be influenced by another. My point is that this should not be seen as compromising God's status as Pure Act because God's responsiveness to us is an active posture on his part.
You still have not shown that God can open himself up to be influenced (actualized in some way) by another. You just said that YOU can. But, being a human, you can open yourself up, whereas a classical theist says God cannot.
I think it all comes down to how you show that you can be influenced (be receptive) without having potency. What does receptive/influenciable mean without potency? Looking forward to your response. Boyo
Edited by - Boyoms on 04/04/2003 6:22:58 PM
Edited by - Boyoms on 04/06/2003 8:08:10 PM | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Alan Rhoda Registered Member

Date Joined May 2002 Total Posts : 680 | Posted 4/7/2003 3:21 PM (GMT -6) |   | Thanks for the thoughtful response, Boyoms. You raise some good questions that show that I need to better clarify my position. I'll try to get back to you in a few days as soon as I get a chance to think through my response.
God bless, Alan | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Boyoms Registered Member
 Date Joined Dec 2002 Total Posts : 4 | Posted 4/15/2003 4:45 PM (GMT -6) |   | Im waiting for your response, Alan. I really want to know if it is possible to accept a basic thomistic metaphysic and still be an open theist. Still looking forward to your response.
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 |  CalvinnHobbes Registered Member

Date Joined Jan 2003 Total Posts : 88 | Posted 6/3/2003 4:41 PM (GMT -6) |   | Any chance of picking this discussion back up, Alan?
"The longer I live, the more I read, the more patiently I think, and the more anxiously I inquire, the less I seem to know." ~President John Adams | | Back to Top | | |
 |  rossfadeinout Registered Member

Date Joined Oct 2002 Total Posts : 428 | Posted 6/4/2003 3:17 AM (GMT -6) |   | I'd be interested in following the renewed discussion...
Ross
"Let us remember how common the folly is of going from one faulty extreme into the opposite." -Thomas Reid | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Alan Rhoda Registered Member

Date Joined May 2002 Total Posts : 680 | Posted 6/4/2003 5:41 AM (GMT -6) |   | I've been working off and on on a response to Boyoms. The difficulty I kept running into was trying to define the act/potency distinction precisely without conflating it with the active/passive distinction, which doesn't seem to me to be the same thing. What does it mean to say that God is "Pure Act"? Thoughts anyone? I'll try to post today or tomorrow a couple definitional suggestions.
However defined, my thinking is that the Pure Act doctrine (under any recognizably Thomistic construal) is incompatible with Open Theism because the latter implies that God change in some respects.
Alan | | Back to Top | | |
 |  CalvinnHobbes Registered Member

Date Joined Jan 2003 Total Posts : 88 | Posted 6/4/2003 7:16 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote: The difficulty I kept running into was trying to define the act/potency distinction precisely without conflating it with the active/passive distinction, which doesn't seem to me to be the same thing.
Norris Clarke makes a distinction between "passive potency" and "active potency." Passive potency refers to "the capacity to receive some actual perfection . . . which implies some incompleteness on its own, hence cannot be found in God." Active potency refers to "the power to act, to do something, given the proper conditions" and "implies no incompleteness or imperfection, hence can be found in God." (The One and the Many, pg. 318)
I know this doesn't solve our quandry, but it at least reveals where some Thomists draw the distinction. To concisely reframe the issue, it seems like Alan, along with Clarke, is maintaining a real distinction between these two types of potency whereas Boyoms rejects the distinction, believing that every instance of active potency inevitably reduces to passive potency. Do different understandings of "perfection" come into play here maybe?
"The longer I live, the more I read, the more patiently I think, and the more anxiously I inquire, the less I seem to know." ~President John Adams
Edited by - CalvinnHobbes on 06/05/2003 12:20:08 AM | | Back to Top | | |
 |  jlreed Registered Member
 Date Joined Sep 2002 Total Posts : 17 | Posted 6/12/2003 3:43 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote:
I've been working off and on on a response to Boyoms. The difficulty I kept running into was trying to define the act/potency distinction precisely without conflating it with the active/passive distinction, which doesn't seem to me to be the same thing. What does it mean to say that God is "Pure Act"? Thoughts anyone? I'll try to post today or tomorrow a couple definitional suggestions.
However defined, my thinking is that the Pure Act doctrine (under any recognizably Thomistic construal) is incompatible with Open Theism because the latter implies that God change in some respects.
Alan
To say God is Pure Act is to deny that God is mixture of act and potency. The proofs for the existence of God necessitate, for Aquinas, the denial of the attributes that required a cause in the first place. Those properties that require a ground from another are: composition, temporality, finitude, being spatial, mutability, &c.
In order to get positive talk about God requires the triplex via. Pseudo-Dionysius (4th-5th century) is the founder of this method. The triplex via is a three-fold way to affirm knowledge of God.
1. Affirmation—wisdom, intellect, will. 2. Negation (remotion)—to know this property does not contain limitation and imperfection. 3. Emmanence (excessus)—these properties are predicated of God in an unlimited way.
To avoid metaphors we can only use predicates which signify (that contain no limitation) and can be predicated of the Divine Substance itself.
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 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 6/13/2003 2:23 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote: What does it mean to say that God is "Pure Act"? Thoughts anyone? I'll try to post today or tomorrow a couple definitional suggestions.
However defined, my thinking is that the Pure Act doctrine (under any recognizably Thomistic construal) is incompatible with Open Theism because the latter implies that God change in some respects.
Alan
1. Alan, is the OTV just to simplistic to be true?
2. As to "Pure Act," that sounds like Philosophical Theology and Morris.
3. Were it to address, as the distinction betwen nature and expression, then...
quote: Fr. Th. de Regnon, in Etudes de theologie positive sur la Sainte Trinite I (Paris, 1892., p. 433) writes: "Latin philosophy envisages first the nature in itself and then procedes to the expression; Greek philosophy envisages first the expression and then penetrates it to find the nature. The Latin considers personality as a mode of nature, the Greek considers nature as the content of the person"
And a distinction between essence and energies...
And an embrace of divine uncreated energies instead of created grace.
.
Edited by - PotOnWheel on 06/13/2003 07:26:46 AM | | Back to Top | | |
 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 6/13/2003 2:30 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote: jlreed
To avoid metaphors we can only use predicates which signify (that contain no limitation) and can be predicated of the Divine Substance itself.
Not to interupt your conversation at all--I won't--but, let me just offer one observation. The emphasis on "Divine Substance" is not universal in the Christian world. As quoted from a Latin Catholic theologian above (Fr. Th. de Regnon) the focus on "Divine Substance" has never been the starting point or the emphasis of the Greek-speaking half of the Church.
Good discussion. Keep it up! | | Back to Top | | |
 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 6/13/2003 3:39 AM (GMT -6) |   | Hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm...........................................
from Gregory of Nyssa, On "Not Three Gods" We, on the other hand, following the suggestions of Scripture, have learnt that that nature is unnameable and unspeakable, and we say that every term either invented by the custom6 of men, or handed down to us by the Scriptures, is indeed explanatory of our conceptions of the Divine Nature7 , but does not include the signification of that nature itself. And it may be shown without much difficulty that this is the case. For all other terms which are used of the creation may be found, even without analysis of their origin, to be applied to the subjects accidentally, because we are content to denote the things in any way by the word applied to them so as to avoid confusion in our knowledge of the things signified. But all the terms that are employed to lead us to the knowledge of God have comprehended in them each its own meaning, and you cannot find any word among the terms especially applied to God which is without a distinct sense. Hence it is clear that by any of the terms we use the Divine nature itself is not signified, but some one of its surroundings is made known. For we say, it may be, that the Deity is incorruptible, or powerful, or whatever else we are accustomed to say of Him. But in each of these terms we find a peculiar sense, fit to be understood or asserted of the Divine nature, yet not expressing that which that nature is in its essence. For the subject, whatever it may be, is incorruptible: but our conception of incorruptibility is this,-that that which is, is not resolved into decay: so, when we say that He is incorruptible, we declare what His nature does not suffer, but we do not express what that is which does not suffer corruption. Thus, again, if we say that He is the Giver of life, though we show by that appellation what He gives, we do not by that word declare what that is which gives it. And by the same reasoning we find that all else which results from the significance involved in the names expressing the Divine attributes either forbids us to conceive what we ought not to conceive of the Divine nature, or teaches us that which we ought to conceive of it, but does not include an explanation of the nature itself. Since, then, as we perceive the varied operations of the power above us, we fashion our appellations from the several operations that are known to us, and as we recognize as one of these that operation of surveying and inspection, or, as one might call it, beholding, whereby He surveys all things and overlooks them all, discerning our thoughts, and even entering by His power of contemplation into those things which are not visible, we suppose that Godhead, or qeo/thj, is so called from qe/a, or beholding, and that He who is our qeath/j or beholder, by customary use and by the instruction of the Scriptures, is called qeo/j, or God. Now if any one admits that to behold and to discern are the same thing, and that the God Who superintends all things, both is and is called the superintender of the universe, let him consider this operation, and judge whether it belongs to one of the Persons whom we believe in the Holy Trinity, or whether the power extends8 throughout the Three Persons. For if our interpretation of the term Godhead, or qeo/thj, is a true one, and the things which are seen are said to be beheld, or qeata/, and that which beholds them is called qeo/j, or God, no one of the Persons in the Trinity could reasonably be excluded from such an appellation on the ground of the sense involved in the word. For Scripture attributes the act of seeing equally to Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. David says, "See, O God our defender9 ": and from this we learn that sight is a proper operation of the idea10 of God, so far as God is conceived, since he says, "See, O God." But Jesus also sees the thoughts of those who condemn Him, and questions why by His own power He pardons the sins of men? for it says, "Jesus, seeing their thoughts11 ." And of the Holy Spirit also, Peter says to Ananias, "Why hath Satan filled thine heart, to lie to the Holy Ghost?12 " showing that the Holy Spirit was a true witness, aware of what Ananias had dared to do in secret, and by Whom the manifestation of the secret was made to Peter. For Ananias became a thief of his own goods, secretly, as he thought, from all men, and concealing his sin: but the Holy Spirit at the same moment was in Peter, and detected his intent, dragged down as it was to avarice, and gave to Peter front Himself13 the power of seeing the secret, while it is clear that He could not have done this had He not been able to behold hidden things.
The outline to this bit is that everything I want to present is just used by Gregory as a lead up to HIS point, which is that all three Persons of the Trinity have the same actions. But for my point here I just want to point out that for Gregory the distinguishing of "our conceptions (based on what is known or revealed) of the Divine Nature" and "the Divine Nature itself" was mightly important!
PoW
(p.s. I think I'm finished.)
Edited by - PotOnWheel on 06/13/2003 08:50:23 AM | | Back to Top | | |
 |  jlreed Registered Member
 Date Joined Sep 2002 Total Posts : 17 | Posted 6/13/2003 10:04 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote:
I object to this because, as some modern Thomists like Norris Clarke have pointed out, receptivity does not necessarily imply potency/passivity. Clarke's counterexample, which I find persuasive, is that in "welcoming" we are both receptive and active at the same time. In welcoming I actively open myself up to be influenced by another. My point is that this should not be seen as compromising God's status as Pure Act because God's responsiveness to us is an active posture on his part. Thus orthodox Thomism is wrong in supposing that impassibility is a necessary consequence of God's perfection.
Boyoms asks, “How can God be without potency and yet be receptive?” CalvinHobbes points out the Thomistic distinction between passive and active potency. Passive potency is a necessary condition for receptivity. Active potency is a ‘power’ to influence another, not a capacity to receive action (it does not allow for receptivity). Here is Alan’s argument:
Premise 1: G has receptivity. Premise 2: Receptivity does not entail potency/passitivity. Premise 2’: Support for Premise 2: we can be both receptive and active at the same time (e.g. welcoming). Premise 4: Therefore, God’s receptivity does not entail potency/passitivity.
The problem Boyoms points out is that this argument is guilty of the fallacy of irrelevant conclusion. Human beings being receptive and active at the same time does not get us the conclusion that God is receptive without having potency/passitivity. Moveover, Alan makes the following comment about welcoming, “In welcoming I actively open myself up to be influenced by another.”
What Boyoms is asking is what in God allows for him to be influenced by another? For Pure Act denies passive potency (which would allow for receptivity but would deny Pure Actuality), and God having active potency is not the kind of attribute which allows God to be acted on, rather God can act because of active potency.
Premise 1: God has either active potency, passive potency, or both. Premise 2: God who is Pure Act can not have passive potency. Premise 3: So, God who is Pure Act can only have active potency.
However, active potency does not allow for receptivity. So what accounts for God’s receptivity? This is Boyoms’ question to Alan.
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 |  rossfadeinout Registered Member

Date Joined Oct 2002 Total Posts : 428 | Posted 6/13/2003 11:40 AM (GMT -6) |   | Yo...
J L Reed, Your input in this discussion has been very clear and concise. I'm hoping that Alan can jump in when he has some time... When I get some time (I'm at work right now) I have a couple of questions to ask.
PS as a side note to jlreed, you went to Southern Evangelical to do your grad work, right? The reason that I ask is that I have been just starting to look at the possibility of studying Philosophy of Religion at the graduate level-just been recently turned on to Philosophy-wondering what you thought about the program...
Anyway... on with the discussion!
Ross
"Let us remember how common the folly is of going from one faulty extreme into the opposite." -Thomas Reid | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Alan Rhoda Registered Member

Date Joined May 2002 Total Posts : 680 | Posted 6/13/2003 12:35 PM (GMT -6) |   | Is God Pure Act? Classical theism (exemplified by Aquinas) says yes. But is this so? If it is, why? If not, why not? I won't try to answer these questions in this post, but I will try to take a step toward a clarification of the issue by proposing some definitions of act & potency.
First, let's hear what Aquinas has to say (from the Summa Theologiae):
quote: For motion is nothing else than the reduction of something from potentiality to actuality. But nothing can be reduced from potentiality to actuality, except by something in a state of actuality. Thus that which is actually hot, as fire, makes wood, which is potentially hot, to be actually hot, and thereby moves and changes it. Now it is not possible that the same thing should be at once in actuality and potentiality in the same respect, but only in different respects. For what is actually hot cannot simultaneously be potentially hot; but it is simultaneously potentially cold. It is therefore impossible that in the same respect and in the same way a thing should be both mover and moved, i.e. that it should move itself. Therefore, whatever is in motion must be put in motion by another. If that by which it is put in motion be itself put in motion, then this also must needs be put in motion by another, and that by another again. But this cannot go on to infinity, because then there would be no first mover, and, consequently, no other mover; seeing that subsequent movers move only inasmuch as they are put in motion by the first mover; as the staff moves only because it is put in motion by the hand. Therefore it is necessary to arrive at a first mover, put in motion by no other; and this everyone understands to be God. (I.q2.a3)
The first being must of necessity be in act, and in no way in potentiality. For although in any single thing that passes from potentiality to actuality, the potentiality is prior in time to the actuality; nevertheless, absolutely speaking, actuality is prior to potentiality; for whatever is in potentiality can be reduced into actuality only by some being in actuality. Now it has been already proved that God is the First Being. It is therefore impossible that in God there should be any potentiality. (I.q3.a1)
In order to determine whether God is Pure Act, we need to define the terms "act" and "potency". Based on the above passages, act and potency have the following properties (and perhaps others besides): 1. They are opposites: to be in act in some respect precludes being in potency in the same respect, and vice-versa. 2. Act is metaphysically prior to potency: it takes something in act in the relevant respects to actualize any given potency.
Here are some possible (and not necessarily equivalent) ways of defining these terms:
1. With Respect to Predication
- for substance X to be "in act" wrt property Y is for X to be actually Y. In other words, Y can be truly predicated of X.
- for substance X to be "in potency" wrt property Y is for X to be possibly, but not actually Y. In other words, Y cannot now be truly predicated of X, but X could change so as to acquire property Y.
2. With Respect to Change
- for substance X to be "in act" wrt property Y is for X to not have the capacity for change or determination wrt Y.
- for substance X to be "in potency" wrt property Y is for X to have the capacity for change or determination wrt Y.
Thomist Henri Renard (from "The Philosophy of Being"--quote supplied by Boyoms) defines the terms thus:
quote: Act is a perfection, and potency is capacity for perfection. Act is a reality which perfects, actuates the potency in which it is received, but in no way destroys it. Potency ... is a positive capacity for receiving this perfection.
3. With Respect to Perfection
- for substance X to be "in act" wrt property Y is for X to be in a state of perfection wrt Y and to have the capacity to perfect that which is in potency wrt Y.
- for substance X to be "in potency" wrt property Y is for X to have the capacity for perfectability with respect to Y.
Which definition(s) are correct? Can they be improved? Are better definitions available? Appreciate any input on this point.
Whatever definition we opt for, the doctrine that God is Pure Act says that God is not in potency in any respect. (Clarke's "passive potency" seems to me not to be talking about the same kind of potency as is meant by the act/potency distinction.) I have some reasons for thinking that this doctrine is not true, despite Aquinas' arguments cited above, but I'll save those until we've had a chance to hash through the definitions of these terms.
God bless y'all, Alan | | Back to Top | | |
 |  jlreed Registered Member
 Date Joined Sep 2002 Total Posts : 17 | Posted 6/13/2003 4:50 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote:
Yo...
PS as a side note to jlreed, you went to Southern Evangelical to do your grad work, right? The reason that I ask is that I have been just starting to look at the possibility of studying Philosophy of Religion at the graduate level-just been recently turned on to Philosophy-wondering what you thought about the program...
Anyway... on with the discussion!
Ross
"Let us remember how common the folly is of going from one faulty extreme into the opposite." -Thomas Reid
Ross,
This is jlreed, but please call me Jason. You are correct I did my master's work at Southern Evangelical Seminary. It is a great program. It is the only seminary that I know of that requires logic. THe OT professor is AWESOME! Dr. Howe makes the Bible come alive like no one else I have ever known. Dr. Geisler has read every book written. :) Geisler's History of Modern and Contemporary Philosophy was the best class I took at SES. I still use his notes and handouts in my Ph.D. work.
There are alot of exciting things happening at SES. They just finished building their $2million facility; attained accreditation; added Dr. Win Corduan on faculty; and hired Frank Turek as the VP. There are also great adjunct faculty--Dr. Habermas, Dr. Francis Beckwith, Dr. Ravi Zacharis, and Dr. Wayne House. I learned in my two years there than I did in my first 9 years as a Christian.
Moreover, the seminary is starting its own church. Imagine, SES professors giving sermons every week!!!!
Christians who are interested in philosophy OUGHT to get their apologetics and theology under their belt. Philosophy is for the advancement of God's truth. Too many Christians spend their whole philosophy life learning philosophy from non-Christians with non-Christian philosophy. That's not a wise route.
Plus, SES is doing a great job placing students in Ph.D. programs in philosophy. I, for one, received four scholarship offers for graduate work. All with funding. A friend of mine is at Univ. of Pitt; another at Univ. of Mississippi; one is at Loyola Marymount in California; two others at Marquette; and so on. All with funding.
In October SES is having their annual apologetics conference in Charlotte. Check out their website www.ses.edu. If you plan on going, maybe we can hook up as I will be attending as well. I can set up a time for you to meet Dr. Geisler. Please let me know if your interested.
In closing, SES is the best academic choice I've made.
-Jason
Edited by - jlreed on 06/14/2003 4:33:34 PM | | Back to Top | | |
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