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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/13/2002 12:17 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
I wrote: So, no, Tom, you don't throw out rationality. But neither do you begin with a presumed framework and then expect, as the Scholasitics did, that everything will fit into it according to expectations. It didn't work with Gothic architecture (math applied to spatial proportions didn't allow room for the thickness of the pillars...) and we can't do it to the Incarnation either.

And then Tom responded: So, Fred, you are ‘open’ to the possibility of denying, for example, the law of non-contradiction?

Did you misread me, Tom? Based on how I was understanding you, you have. But if the "law of non-contradiction" is something specific and particular to some philosophy (its Dooyeweerd's articles I'm refering to) like Realism or Nominalism, then maybe I to throw it out. (Again, you'd have to go see the Dooyeweerd articles.)

Its the 'presuming a framework' I'll pass on.

(But that will be apparent after I let my son use the computer, and then finally have a session with the scanner.)

Fred
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/13/2002 1:08 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
For Tom and the Philosophy Crowd...

(The ONLY thing that I'm qualified to do is to suggest glaze recipees for porcelain. This is NOT in my field. But having taught art for ten years in Christian liberal arts colleges, I can say that the bit of philosophy I'm going to post and point LINKS to here IS the basis of some of that teaching. I believe it to be "good stuff!")

quote:
Antinomies

Dooyeweerd suggested that one way to separate out the ASPECTS was to look for antinomies (fundamental contradictions and paradoxes) that occur when two aspects are wrongly conflated. For instance, he explains the Xeno's famous paradox of the hare and tortoise as a conflation of the spatial and kinematic aspects.


For those of you who know someone who talks of Abraham Kuyper and "sphere sovereignty", Dooyeweerd also talks of "sphere relatedness." What follows is "neo-Kyperian."

quote:
List of Aspects

Quantitative (to do with quantity, amount)
Spatial (to do with continuous extension, space)
Kinematic (to do with movement; flowing movement)
Physical (to do with energy + mass)
Biotic (to do with life functions)
Sensitive (to do with sense, feeling, emotion)
Analytical (to do with distinguishing )
Formative (to do with history, culture, technology: shaping and creativity)
Lingual (to do with symbolic communication)
Social (to do with social interaction)
Economic (to do with frugal use of resources)
Aesthetic (to do with harmony, surprise, fun)
Juridical (to do with what is due; 'retribution', rights and responsibilities)
Ethical (to do with self-giving love)
Pistic (to do with vision, aspiration, commitment, creed, religion)



LINKS these are taken from are: www.basden.u-net.com/Dooy/subject.object.html and www.basden.u-net.com/Dooy/ax.html

Like the hare and tortoise, problems rise up and bite you when you take what one would expect in one "Aspect" and insist on it being manifest in another. Again, Kuyper's "sphere sovereignty." This system does a good job of explaining why government (which has its own set of "norms" based an how these aspects are manifest) has a hard time performing the task of education that fits much better within the norms of family and child rising.

My point is, that when you mix things up, they get messy. (Tom's new byline.)
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/13/2002 6:11 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Thanks, SIM.

quote:
Al, thanks for your thoughts. When it comes to christology, we are all neophytes. Finitum capax infinitum refers to the finite’s capacity for the infinite. My favorite definition of the capax dei (capacity for God) is from a Roman Catholic theologian: “human capacity to know and love insuperable difference” (Alejandro García-Rivera, The Community of the Beautiful: A Theological Aesthetics, 76). I think Zizioulas develops this theme as well, in Being and Communion. Electra


Here's more on the incarnation...


quote:
John Meyendorff, Byzantine Theology, HISTORICAL TRENDS: The Christological Issue (p.38,39)

In Maximian thought, man occupies quite an exceptional position among the other creatures. He not only carries in himself a logos; he is the image of the divine Logos, and the purpose of his nature is to acquire similitude with God.
...
Already in Gregory of Nyssa, true human freedom does not consist in autonomous human life, but in the situation which is truly natural to man's communion with God.
...
In Christ, human nature is united with the hypostasis of the Logos and, while remaining fully itself, is liberated from sin. . .Because it is "en-hypostasized" in the Logos Himself, Christ's humanity is perfect humanity. . .He fulfilled through the resurrection the ultimate human destiny. . .
...
The doctrine of "deification" in Maximus is based upon the fundamental patristic presupposition that communion with God does not diminish or destroy humanity, but makes it fully human. In Christ the hypostatic union implies the communication of idioms (perichoresis ton idiomaton). The characteristics of divinity and humanity express themselves "in communion with each other" (Chalcedonian definition), and human actions, or "energies," have God Himself as their personal agent. It can be said, therefore, that "God was born," that Mary is the Theotokos, and that the "Logos was crucified"—while birth and death remain purely human realities. But it can and must also be said that a man rose from the dead and sits at the right hand of the Father, having acquired characteristics which "naturally" belong to God alone: immortality and glory. Through Christ's humanity, deified according to its hypostatic union with the Logos, all members of the Body of Christ have access to "deification" by grace through the operation of the Spirit in Christ's Church.




quote:
Meyendorff, Byzantine Theology, (p.40)

The hypostatic union is precisely what permits one to consider God as performing humanly in the act of offering, while remaining God by nature and, therefore, receiving the sacrifice.
...the prayer of the Cheroubikon, (real author: Cyril of Alexandria) is a part of both Byzantine liturgies (attributed respectively to Basil and to John Chrysostom): "For it is Thou who offercst and art offered, who receivest and art Thyself received."
...
. . .neither the Eucharist nor the work of Christ in general can be reduced to a juridical notion of sacrifice conceived as an exchange. God does not have to receive anything from us: "We did not go to Him [to make an offering]; rather He condescended toward us and assumed our nature, not as a condition of reconciliation, but in order to meet us openly in the flesh."
...
. . .the Council of 1170 reaffirmed once again the decisions of Chalcedon and Constantinople n about the divinity of Christ, hypostatically united to a real and active humanity, "created, depictable, and mortal." Than such humanity, divinity is certainly "greater."
...
what Georges Florovsky once called an "asymmetrical union" of God and man in Christ: while the hypostatic source of life— the goal and pattern—remains divine, man is not diminished or swallowed by the union; he becomes again fully human. This notion is also expressed in the Eucharistic sacrifice, a unique act in which no single action of Christ's is represented in isolation, or reduced to purely human concepts, such as an "exchange," or a "satisfaction." Christ, as the Synodilyn proclaims every year on the Sunday of Orthodoxy, "reconciled us to Himself by means of the whole mystery of the economy, and by Himself and in Himself, reconciled us also to His God and Father, and, of course, to the most holy and life-giving Spirit."




Something that struck me in the above, is where Meyendorff explains, "...a man rose from the dead and sits at the right hand of the Father, having acquired characteristics which "naturally" belong to God alone: immortality and glory."


NOTICE that the same Spirit that raise Christ from the dead quickens our mortal bodies! Meyendorff above points out that Christ's humanity go the Spirit treatment: having acquired characteristics which "naturally" belong to God alone: immortality and glory." He says so more baldly elsewhere (or so I remember; and will try to find tomorrow). That SAME treatment is for us too. And Christ demonstrated and accomplished the natural destiny of humanity, in His flesh.

quote:
Romans 8:11 "And if the Spirit of him who raised Jesus from the dead is living in you, he who raised Christ from the dead will also give life to your mortal bodies through his Spirit, who lives in you."



(Could Paul have been an Orthodox Christian?)


All for tonight.

Fred


Edited by - fred on 12/13/2002 11:12:36 PM
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/13/2002 6:17 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Oh. To answer the question ("Is the Incarnation self-contradictory?") one has only to ask whether or not it befits humanity to be in communion with God. If not, then: "yes." If so--that it is "natural" for mankind to be in communion with God--then: "no; its not 'contradictory.'"
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GregBoyd
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   Posted 12/13/2002 6:48 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
TGB, of course we should AT THE START refuse to abandon the principle of non-contradiction -- for the simply reason that AFFIRMING a contradiction is MEANINGLESS. It may SOUND meaningful, but no concept can enter the mind when it is spoken.

Consider the proclamation: "I believe God is so great, so awesome, so beyond our ability to think, that he loving hates all married bachleurs." And all God's people said, "Amen." Yet NONE of them formed a coherent concept in their heads when these words were spoken. The sentence says nothing. It has the same meaning as "shebotoglich ichna so so rama."

Someone said (Lewis I believe) that a contradiction does not become a compliment simply because it is attributed to God. Amen.

SO, when someone says (for example) that God predestines all our acts IN SUCH A WAY that we are still "free" and "morally responsible for what we do," and IN SUCH A WAY that God is all holy for predetermining even our sin, it is encumbant upon them to give us SOME CONCEPT of what they mean by "IN SUCH A WAY."

So too, when someone (e.g. us) say that Jesus Christ is one person who is fully God and fully human IN SUCH A WAY that neither his divinity nor his humanity is changed, or mixed, or separated," it is encumbent upon us to specify what coherent concept is conveyed by this "IN SUCH A WAY."

This is not arrogant human reason raising its ugly rebel head against the mysteries of the almighty. It's simply human reason saying "what the heck are you talking about?" It's the mind trying to distinguish a coherent belief from "shebotoglich ichna so so rama."

Doc

"In Christ...the ONLY THING that matters is faith energized by love." Galatians 5:6
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Tom
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   Posted 12/13/2002 11:51 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Fred: Did you misread me, Tom?

Tom: Not intentionally.

Fred: If the "law of non-contradiction" is something specific and particular to some philosophy (its Dooyeweerd's articles I'm referring to) like Realism or Nominalism, then maybe I to throw it out. (Again, you'd have to go see the Dooyeweerd articles.)

Tom: Was that “Do-ya-weird” or “Are-ya-weird”? Hey, I wouldn’t even know how to attach something particular to Realism or Nominalism to a simple rule like the law of non-contradiction.

Fred:My point is, that when you mix things up, they get messy. (Tom's new byline.)

Tom: OK, I resemble that statement!

Tom


"When you mix things up they get messy" Fred

Edited by - TGB on 12/14/2002 04:53:42 AM
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/14/2002 5:06 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
So too, when someone (e.g. us) say that Jesus Christ is one person who is fully God and fully human IN SUCH A WAY that neither his divinity nor his humanity is changed, or mixed, or separated," it is encumbent upon us to specify what coherent concept is conveyed by this "IN SUCH A WAY."

This is not arrogant human reason raising its ugly rebel head against the mysteries of the almighty. It's simply human reason saying "what the heck are you talking about?" It's the mind trying to distinguish a coherent belief from "shebotoglich ichna so so rama."

Doc


I SECOND THAT MOTION!


p.s. Shouldn't shebotoglich ichna so so rama be in italics -- seeing as it is Classical Gibberish (as opposed to pidgin gibberish)?
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/14/2002 12:32 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
Meyendorff: "...communion with God does not diminish or destroy humanity, but makes it fully human...


And THAT is true of Christ's humanity. And it is the 'why' of the Incarnation too: to make us more fully human by making communion with God possible.

Fred
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/14/2002 12:53 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
...when someone (e.g. us) say that Jesus Christ is one person who is fully God and fully human...


We must recognize that to be "fully human" is not an autonomous thing in itself. By our very nature (regardless of whether or not we are fulfilling that nature) we are God-ward beings. Becoming crature-ward beings we fell. Christ, the priest/prophet/king, restored that initial relationship--even though we had never ourselves fulfilled it yet.

So, if we find ourselves trying to conceive of a worktable with some "200-proof God" in one beaker and "200-proof man" in another beaker... we are way past left field...past Waveland Avenue...and out of Chicago. (Out of "Slam'n Sammy's" reach!) Conceived as 'beakers on a bench' one is tempted to try conceiving of 'mixture-without-mixing.' (A varient on the famous 'square-circle?') Besides that being un-cannonical ("without mixture or confussion") it misses the point.

Like John Behr points out, we do not start with concepts and then try to relate them. The very nature of our salvation is what 'drives' the doctrine of the incarnation. The relationship of God to man is not something to be avoided. It is not the obstical. It is the opportunity!

For that reason I'd say that the "IN SUCH A WAY" is a late-comer. In fact, seems like such a passive statement. Rather, look at the potency of these words (some of them verbs) in what Meyendorff has to say:

quote:
The characteristics of divinity and humanity express themselves "in communion with each other" (Chalcedonian definition), and human actions, or "energies," have God Himself as their personal agent.


quote:
...a man rose from the dead and sits at the right hand of the Father, having acquired characteristics which "naturally" belong to God alone: immortality and glory.


And, so:

quote:
...all members of the Body of Christ have access to "deification" by grace through the operation of the Spirit in Christ's Church.



Fred


Edited by - fred on 12/14/2002 6:02:30 PM
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Alan Rhoda
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   Posted 12/14/2002 12:58 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Greg: I'm not sure I can buy the view that the paradox is not a contradiction so long as Jesus is not infinite and finite in the same respect. At the very least, it seems that this "respect" has to be flushed out further. Otherwise, we're just repeating our insistence that its not a contradiction, but hiding it under the guise of "in different respects." Its a bit like the Reformed creeds that specify that God exhaustively determines all things "howbeit, in such a way that creaturely freedom and moral responsibility is not denied and God is not made the author of evil." What is the cognitive content of this "in such a way"?

Alan: I don't see the problem here. When I say that Jesus in not infinite and finite "in the same respect" I simply mean that Jesus is infinite with respect to his divine nature and finite with respect to his human nature. Now saying that doesn't eliminate the mystery in the incarnation. I for one certainly don't know how God was able to accomplish such a thing, but the distinction is enough to resolve the immediate contradiction. If you think the contradiction goes deeper than that, then I would ask you to spell out for me just how the contradiction remains.

Greg: I think the problem can be summarized like this.
quote:

P1: To be a single "person" is to have a single mind and location.
P2: God is infinite in mind, presence and power.
P3: Humans are finite in mind, presence and power.
P4: It is a contradiction to say that something is finite and infinite at the same time.
Hence: The claim that Jesus is fully God and fully human is either a contradiction (from 4) or is not a single person (from 1).

One way out of the dilemma, which I prefer, is to deny P2. No, I don't deny that God IS infinite in mind, presence and power, but I deny that God HAS to be IN EVERY RESPECT infinite in mind, presence and power.... God (unlike Jesus alone) is not ONE person, he is THREE persons. So you can affirm that ONE of the person's who is God LAID ASIDE the infinite of his mind, presence and power and BECAME finite in mind, presence and power--viz. he became a man. He took on a fully human mind, locality and strength. This is the KENOTIC view of the Incarnation.


Alan: Nice way of posing the problem, Greg. A few comments. First, I would deny P1, not P2. Certainly P1 is true of mentally healthy human persons, but I see no reason to think that P1 is a necessary condition for persons generally, much less a divine & human person. Thus, I would opt for what, in Across the Spectrum you call the "two minds" view.

Second, I would also deny P4. A contradiction only arises if we say that something is both infinite and finite at the same time and IN THE SAME RESPECT.

Third, I think your qualified denial of P2 is problematic. You affirm P2 with reference to God understood as the Trinity, but you deny that it necessarily applies to each member of the Godhead. Now, when we say "Jesus is God" we mean that he is Divine, that he possesses all of the essential attributes of deity. It seems to me that being infinite in mind, presence, power, and love are all essential attributes of deity. Therefore, for God the Son to lay aside those attributes would be for him to cease to be God. The incarnate Christ would not be "God with us" but "one who used-to-be God with us". In other words, I think the Kenotic view, as you seem to articulate it, implies that Jesus was not "fully" God.

You respond to this objection by claiming that Jesus was "God in terms of what is the essential defining attribute of God--that without which God would not be God. He retained THE DIVINE CHARACTER." This amounts to saying that Jesus was not God, strictly speaking, but a man with a God-like character. I think this is to say too little of Jesus, certainly not enough to maintain the orthodox position that Jesus was "fully God". Further, I agree that love is AN essential attribute of God, but I do not think it is THE ONLY essential attribute of God. It seems to me that all of God's essential attributes co-implicate each other. Perfect love, for instance, presupposes perfect knowledge as to what is the loving thing to do and perfect power to be able to do the loving thing, whatever that happens to be. So I don't think that God the Son could have literally divested himself of his omnipotence and omniscience while remaining God in any sense that it would still be true to say that Jesus was "fully" God.

In Christ,
Alan
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/14/2002 1:15 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Alan and Doc,

I was a clueless writer. But one day I discovered verbs. Here's one: CONCUR.

Meyendorff** writes: In Christ, the union of the two natures is hypostatic: they "concur into one person (prosopon) and one hypostasis," according to the Fathers of Chalcedon.

The two natures "concur." Neither is diminished.

There is no conflict in that. ('Co-inherence'; not 'incoherence!' )

Fred

--------------------------------
** pg. 153, DOCTRINAL THEMES: Jesus Christ, in Byzantine Theology (Fordham Univ. Press)
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Alan Rhoda
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   Posted 12/14/2002 1:24 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Some thoughts for you kenotic theorists out there:

In Across the Spectrum two versions of the kenotic view are distinguished. The first, a clearly unorthodox position, says that in becoming flesh Jesus literally gave up his deity. The second position says that Jesus retained his deity but gave up the "exercise" of his divine attributes. I think that this second position is unstable, either collapsing into the two-minds view or into the unorthodox kenotic position.

The problem with the position is that is confuses attributes and abilities. Abilities are the sorts of things that we can exercise or not exercise, or that we can develop the capacity to exercise or not (e.g., I can't speak Russian, but I have ability to acquire the ability to speak Russian). Abilities are things that we can DO. Attributes are qualities we HAVE; they describe what we ARE. Attributes GROUND our abilities (e.g., I have the ability to reason and think because I possess the attribute of being human, a rational animal). What a thing is capable of doing (its abilities) is a consequence of the sort of thing that it is (its attributes). If an attribute is essential, then it cannot be given up without destroying the thing in question.

So to say that Jesus "gave up the exercise of his divine attributes" is confused. If it means "did not exercise his uniquely divine abilities" it is certainly true, but does not conflict with the two minds view, which can easily affirm that. If it means "gave up one or more of his essential divine attributes" then it affirms the unorthodox kenotic position which denies the full deity of Jesus. If it means "gave up one or more of his nonessential divine attributes" then it implies that omnipotence, omniscience, etc. are not essential to deity. But this seems clearly false.

Furthermore, the kenotic position does not suffice to resolve the apparent contradiction between saying that Jesus is fully God and fully man. For this problem arises with respect to ANY claim that is true of God but not true of man, not just with respect to those attributes of deity that Jesus in some sense laid aside. For example, God is not created, but man is created. Jesus is fully God and fully man. So is Jesus created, not created, or both? The obvious answer is that Jesus is uncreated WITH RESPECT TO his divinity and created WITH RESPECT TO his humanity. Distinguishing between the two natures of Christ can easily resolve any apparent contradictions with the Incarnation. The kenotic theory, at best, can only resolve some of those apparent contradictions. It is at best only a partial solution to the problem that Tom raised at the start of this thread.

Blessings,
Alan

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Alan Rhoda
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   Posted 12/14/2002 1:27 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:

I was a clueless writer. But one day I discovered verbs. Here's one: CONCUR.

Meyendorff** writes: In Christ, the union of the two natures is hypostatic: they "concur into one person (prosopon) and one hypostasis," according to the Fathers of Chalcedon.

The two natures "concur." Neither is diminished.

There is no conflict in that. ('Co-inherence'; not 'incoherence!' )


Fred, I concur !

Alan
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GregBoyd
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   Posted 12/15/2002 2:40 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Good challenging thoughts on the kenotic christology Alan. Thanks. Here’s a few responses.

Alan: It seems to me that being infinite in mind, presence, power, and love are all essential attributes of deity. Therefore, for God the Son to lay aside those attributes would be for him to cease to be God.

Doc: But is THE EXERCISE of infinite mind, presence, power and love all essential to deity? I would hold that only the EXERCISE of perfect love is essential to deity.

Alan: It seems to me that all of God's essential attributes co-implicate each other. Perfect love, for instance, presupposes perfect knowledge as to what is the loving thing to do and perfect power to be able to do the loving thing, whatever that happens to be.

Doc: Yet, do you not hold that, because of the kind of world God created, he is many times not able to do what he would love to do? Isn’t there a sort of "kenosis" implied in creation? (footnote: for a very good collection of essays on kenosis and creation, see The Work of Love]/I] edited by Jon Polkinghorne [Eerdmans, 2001]). It seems to me this implies that the exercise of omnipotence has been qualified by creation, though the exercise of love has not. God still does the most loving thing – but, because of the kind of world he created – the loving thing he does is not all he COULD do IF he exercised his omnipotence.

I see the Incarnation as simply the zenith point of the kenosis of God in creation.

Alan: So I don't think that God the Son could have literally divested himself of his omnipotence and omniscience while remaining God in any sense that it would still be true to say that Jesus was "fully" God.

Doc: Then it would seem that, unless you are a Calvinist (which I know you are NOT) you would have to say that God isn’t "fully" God IN CREATION. For, again, it seems you would agree that God to some extent divested himself of his omnipotence (viz. restricted THE EXERCISE of his omnipotence) in creation.


Alan: Abilities are things that we can DO. Attributes are qualities we HAVE; they describe what we ARE. Attributes GROUND our abilities…

Doc: Nice distinction. I would simply add that our attributes AND abilities ground not only what we CAN DO, but what we CAN NOT do. God is omnipotent, and therefore has the capacity to exercise this OR NOT. Why not think the same about omniscience and omnipresence? In my view, THAT God has the capacity to be this is essential. That he exercises these capacities is not. He does it to the extent that it is loving to do so.

Alan: To say that Jesus "gave up the exercise of his divine attributes" is confused. If it means "did not exercise his uniquely divine abilities" it is certainly true, but does not conflict with the two minds view, which can easily affirm that.

Doc: If the Son of God can give up the exercise of omniscience, there’s no need to affirm a two minds view.

Alan: If it means "gave up one or more of his essential divine attributes" then it affirms the unorthodox kenotic position which denies the full deity of Jesus. If it means "gave up one or more of his nonessential divine attributes" then it implies that omnipotence, omniscience, etc. are not essential to deity.

Doc: But if it means "gave up THE EXERCISE of these divine attributes," it neither denies that the attributes themselves are essential to deity, nor does it degenerate into the unorthodox kenotic position.

Alan: So is Jesus created, not created, or both? The obvious answer is that Jesus is uncreated WITH RESPECT TO his divinity and created WITH RESPECT TO his humanity. Distinguishing between the two natures of Christ can easily resolve any apparent contradictions with the Incarnation. The kenotic theory, at best, can only resolve some of those apparent contradictions. It is at best only a partial solution to the problem that Tom raised at the start of this thread.

Doc: Very good point. I don’t hear orthodox kenotic christologists denying the two "natures" of Christ (though, as said in an eariler post, its not clear what "natures" means). We just deny that it is necessary to hold the paradoxical position that the one person who was Jesus Christ simultaneously exercise omniscience and non-omniscience, omnipresence and non-omnipresence, omnipotence and non-omnipotence. We suspect (or sometimes adamantly insist) that affirming this is a contradiction. But to say that the one person who is Jesus has an uncreated perfect divine CHARACTER, reflecting the uncreated, eternal divine nature, even though he is a full finite human being, is not a contradiction. This is how we specify the "respect" in which Jesus is God and man.

Fred: In Christ, the union of the two natures is hypostatic: they "concur into one person (prosopon) and one hypostasis," according to the Fathers of Chalcedon.

Doc: There is, of course, a great deal of discussion about what the Chalcedonian fathers meant by these words. Whatever they meant, I have to confess that I am not at all clear on what "natures" means here, what "person" means here, what "hypostasis" means here, and thus what "concur" means here. Thus, unlike Alan, I don’t have any clear concept in my mind to decide whether I "concur" with this or not.

Thanks for the insightful critique.

Doc


"In Christ...the ONLY THING that matters is faith energized by love." Galatians 5:6
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Tom
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   Posted 12/16/2002 4:02 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Doc: But is THE EXERCISE of infinite mind, presence, power and love all essential to deity? ... God is omnipotent, and therefore has the capacity to exercise this OR NOT. Why not think the same about omniscience and omnipresence?

Tom: Take just the exercise of infinite mind. To choose not to exercise this attribute (it seems to me) is to choose not to know some slice of reality, to choose to know less than all that is knowable. But if this is the case, then this lack of exercise of omniscience amounts to a lack of omniscience. I don’t see the difference between laying aside the “exercise” of infinite mind and laying aside the attribute of infinite mind. Besides, God has to know what to choose to not know. This seems very odd.

Doc: Yet, do you not hold that, because of the kind of world God created, he is many times not able to do what he would love to do? Isn’t there a sort of "kenosis" implied in creation?

Tom: But omniscience and omnipotence seem dissimilar in this regard. Omnipotence permits both capacity and exercise while omniscience (it seems) is pure exercise. You either know or don’t know. One need not DO in order to be omnipotent. One need only be ABLE to do. A being who CAN move mountains but who does not move mountains is still omnipotent. But is a being who does not know there’s a mountain still omniscient? Does saying this being is “choosing” not to know there’s a mountain save omniscience? So it seems that to give up the exercise of omniscience is to give up omniscience.

Searching,
Tom


"When you mix things up they get messy" Fred
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/16/2002 5:21 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Doc and Tom, I like Tom's answers!

quote:
Doc: But is THE EXERCISE of infinite mind, presence, power and love all essential to deity? ... God is omnipotent, and therefore has the capacity to exercise this OR NOT. Why not think the same about omniscience and omnipresence?

Tom: Take just the exercise of infinite mind. To choose not to exercise this attribute (it seems to me) is to choose not to know some slice of reality, to choose to know less than all that is knowable. But if this is the case, then this lack of exercise of omniscience amounts to a lack of omniscience. I don’t see the difference between laying aside the “exercise” of infinite mind and laying aside the attribute of infinite mind. Besides, God has to know what to choose to not know. This seems very odd.

Doc: Yet, do you not hold that, because of the kind of world God created, he is many times not able to do what he would love to do? Isn’t there a sort of "kenosis" implied in creation?

Tom: But omniscience and omnipotence seem dissimilar in this regard. Omnipotence permits both capacity and exercise while omniscience (it seems) is pure exercise. You either know or don’t know. One need not DO in order to be omnipotent. One need only be ABLE to do. A being who CAN move mountains but who does not move mountains is still omnipotent. But is a being who does not know there’s a mountain still omniscient? Does saying this being is “choosing” not to know there’s a mountain save omniscience? So it seems that to give up the exercise of omniscience is to give up omniscience.

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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/16/2002 6:18 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
AND................

I also like some of Doc's post, here:

quote:
Doc: Yet, do you not hold that, because of the kind of world God created, he is many times not able to do what he would love to do? Isn’t there a sort of "kenosis" implied in creation?


Remember, I keep bringing up Maximus' discussion of there being THREE Incarnations (Creation, Revealed Word, Jesus). So you'll believe me when I say how happy I am to see you raise the 'matter of Matter.'

But since from where I am (and Alan?) you seem skewed on the Christic incarnation (diminishing God) I'm waiting "for the other shoe" when it comes to Creation then too. (But I hope its not necessary.)

Plain and simple: God is the Creator, and not the "first cause." Creation NEVER existed without humanity in mind. So while it is easily arguable (I'll take on all Calvinist "comers!") that "predestination is for St Paul nothing but a conventional form for designating the mystery of God's love, and this love determines or predestines God and not humanity, if one wants to use the concept. " (Evdokimov). And...

quote:
For the Eastern Church, God is never the primary cause, but the Creator. It is creation "in the image" of the Creator which places the "second freedom" outside any causal determinism, and the patristic conception of humankind as autexousia, self authoritative, rightly defines its mysterious capacity to transcend every necessity and the very condition of the creature over against divine freedom: to see oneself as microtheos, as God-in-miniature. One can even say that God, the Lover of humankind, is much more determined himself by his creation and his covenants than the creature by his Creator: "The Lord has sworn and he will not change his mind" (Ps 110:4). The Incarnation appears as God's reply to his own promise: the divinizing of his creature. The fall of man reveals the titanic fullness of our freedom, which in turn, determines our own destiny. Satan did not lie in saying: "You will be as gods." Man has created something which never existed before. We created evil and introduced it into our innocent nature. What is more, our salvation determines the shape of the Incarnation as Love crucified. Divine blood has been shed to safeguard our freedom in grace, for, according to the Fathers' saying, "God is not able to force anyone to love him."


That's convincing to me. So...while that is easily arguable, it should not even be entertained to what abstract extent the Creation is "meant" to function independent of God. Instead, humanity, microtheos/God-in-miniature is created as the microcosm and mediator who in gives all back to God in worshipful eucharist/thanksgiving. That's literally the beginning and the end of it.


Doc writes: "...he is many times not able to do what he would love to do..." TRUE! How True!

Along this line (I think) Evdokimov has several things to say:

  • ...God, the Lover of humankind, is much more determined himself by his creation and his covenants than the creature by his Creator: "The Lord has sworn and he will not change his mind" (Ps 110:4).

  • ...according to the Fathers' saying, "God is not able to force anyone to love him."

  • AND...

    God created man as "another freedom" and the risk God has taken is already to be seen in the suffering of Christ, the "Man of sorrows," in the shadow of the cross, for according to the Fathers, "God does everything except to constrain us to love him." In expectation of this love God renounces all his power, empties himself in the figure of the Lamb sacrificed. God's destiny with us depends on our "yes," ouifiat. To assure the complete freedom of such love, Christ even renounces his omniscience, leaves the abyss of silence and gives his life. The impassible, that is nonsuffering, quality of a hidden God is only apparent, for according co Gregory of Nazianzus, the God who seems unable to suffer nevertheless does suffer. God sees the sadness ahead, and his love is no less vigilant, because man is able to refuse him and build a whole life upon this rejection, upon an atheistic revolt against him. Which then is more important, love or freedom? The two are infinite and hell bears this question in its fire.



So...IMHO "kenosis" DOES have a place with respect to the Creation, (Doc's, ""kenosis" implied in creation"); but ONLY within a Biblical understanding of Creation: with a Biblical anthropology attached.


Thanks, guys!


Fred

(I edited this to change that last comma to a semicolon. Important detail!)


Edited by - fred on 12/16/2002 11:20:15 AM
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/16/2002 7:43 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Here it is SIM!
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GregBoyd
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   Posted 12/16/2002 4:49 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
TGB: To choose not to exercise this attribute (it seems to me) is to choose not to know some slice of reality, to choose to know less than all that is knowable. But if this is the case, then this lack of exercise of omniscience amounts to a lack of omniscience. I don’t see the difference between laying aside the "exercise" of infinite mind and laying aside the attribute of infinite mind. Besides, God has to know what to choose to not know. This seems very odd…omniscience and omnipotence seem dissimilar in this regard. Omnipotence permits both capacity and exercise while omniscience (it seems) is pure exercise. You either know or don’t know.

Doc: Excellent point. I agree that omnipotence and omniscience differ in the respect you specify. God would need to know all things in order to know what he doesn’t want to know. But couldn’t he do this? And might not the incarnation be just such an occasion to do it? As Father, God continues to know all things. But, in order to become a human being – which, by definition, means becoming non-omniscient – Jesus "empties himself" of his omniscient (and omnipotence, and omnipresence). God must be omnipotent, omniscient, and omnipresent. But does this mean that God must in all respects (viz. amidst all three Persons) be omnipotent, omniscient and omnipresent. I say no. The only thing God must in EVERY respect be is God-defining LOVE.

Doc

ps. Fred, I can't tell you how much it means that you liked at least SOME of my post. You're adorable. You know that, don't you?

"In Christ...the ONLY THING that matters is faith energized by love." Galatians 5:6
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/17/2002 2:52 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
ps. Fred, I can't tell you how much it means that you liked at least SOME of my post. You're adorable. You know that, don't you?


I like a LOT of them. And I don't wish to be a cancer on your site. But I also want to prod you now and then.

Gotta go.
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/21/2002 5:55 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Meyendorff, Byzantine Theology, page 154

This is VERY meaty. And it is vitally good.

quote:
It affirmed, on the contrary, following Cyril of Alexandria, that Christ's unique hypostasis is the pre-existing hypostasis of the Logos; that is, that the term is used in Christology with exactly the same meaning as in the Trinitarian theology of the Cappadocian Fathers: one of the three eternal hypostascs of the Trinity "took flesh," while remaining essentially the same in its divinity. The hypostasis of Christ, therefore, pre-existed in its divinity, but it acquired humanity by the Virgin Mary.

This fundamental position has two important implications, (a) There is no absolute symmetry between divinity and humanity in Christ because the unique hypostasis is only divine and because the human will follows the divine. It is precisely a "symmetrical" Christology which was rejected as Nestorian in Ephesus (431). This "assymetry" of Orthodox Christology reflects an idea which Athanasius and Cyril of Alexandria stressed so strongly; only God can save, while humanity can only cooperate with the saving acts and will of God. However, as we emphasized earlier, in the patristic concept of man, "theocentricity" is a natural character of humanity; thus assymetry does not prevent the fact that Christ was fully and "actively" man.

(b) The human nature of Christ is not personalized into a separate human hypostasis, which means that the concept of hypostasis is not an expression of natural existence, either in God or in man, but it designates personal existence. Post-Chalcedonian Christology postulates that Christ was fully man and also that He was a human individual, but it rejects the Nestorian view that He was a human hypostasis, or person. A fully human individual life was en-hypostasized in the hypostasis of the Logos, without losing any of its human characteristics.



That deserves a moment to carefully consider.



Then, so does this:

quote:
The fact that the notion of hypostasis is irreducible to the concepts of "particular nature," or to the notion of "individuality," is crucially important not only in Christology but also in Trinitarian theology. Hypostasis is the personal, "acting" source of natural life; but it is not "nature," or life itself.



The essence/nature-based Triology that comes from Western theology is a real problem. That is, at its very least, NOT what the Cappadocian Fathers were talking about. And, IMHO, it leads us, here, sometimes, down blind alleys. So: "Hypostasis is the personal, "acting" source of natural life; but it is not "nature," or life itself." And, "the notion of hypostasis is irreducible to the concepts of "particular nature," or to the notion of "individuality." "

When Electra wrote, "So because of Christ, we are stuck with making sense out of an eternal God who enters history. Although the Greeks considered this claim to be foolishness, the Jews have always confessed belief in the living God. Electra", I think that she was aptly representing this matrix of blind alleys that Western theology has had to grapple with, lacking the Cappadocian Fathers' perspective. Confusing phypostasis with "particular nature" or "individuality" or modern concepts of personhood lead to the problem she identifies. But they were not a problem for the Cappadocian Fathers.

If we insist on their thought to fit INSIDE our own, then it is no wonder that we discover (rightly) that it does not fit.



And, so, then this...

quote:
. In the hypostasis, the two natures of Christ accomplish a union without confusion. They retain their natural characteristics; but, because they share a common hypostatic life, there is a "communication of idioms," or perichoresis, which for example, enables some of Christ's human actions —words or gestures—to carry consequences which only God could have provoked. The clay made out of His spittle, for example, restores sight to the blind man.



WITHOUT confusion, their union was based on the common hypostatic life, of the one hypostasis of the Word; not on "individuality." AND I EONDER IF THAT IS NOT THE 'RUB' FOR US MODERN FOLK. (We want the humanity of Christ to be individualistic.) But, says John of Damascus, "the divinity which communicates its privileges to the body, remaining itself outside the passions o£ the flesh." THAT OFFENDS US!



Meyendorff goes on:

quote:
"The hypostatic union implies also that the Logos made humanity His own in its totality; thus the Second Person of the Trinity was indeed the subject, or agent, of the human experiences, or acts, of Jesus."



IT OFFENDS US THAT HE MADE OUR HUMANITY 'HIS' OWN, AND YET HIS DIVINITY DID NOT CHANGE.

PART OF THAT OFFENSE IS THAT WE CONCEIVE OF HIS DIVINITY AS BEING SUPERIOR TO HIS DIVINE HYPOSTASIS. (The Cappadocian Fathers) did not mwake that mistake. And beginning from that mistake, how could one of the Trinity DIE? And one of the Trinity did indeed die -- but not all of them.

Meyndorff continues, on THIS very topic:

quote:
Exactly the same problem arose in connection with the death of Christ: impassibility and immortality were indeed characteristics of the divine nature. How, then, asked the theologians of Antioch, could the Son of God ? Obviously, the "subject" of Christ's death was only His humanity. Against this point of view, and following Cyril, the Fifth Council (553) affirms; "If anyone does not confess that our Lord Jesus Christ who was crucified in the flesh is true God and the Lord of Glory and one of the Holy Trinity, let him be anathema."8 This conciliar text, which paraphrases 1 Corinthians 2:8 ("If they had understood, they would never have crucified the Lord of glory"), inspired the hymn "The Only-begotten Son," attributed to Emperor Justinian and sung at every Byzantine Eucharistic liturgy: "One of the Holy Trinity, you were crucified for us."



Wonderful hymn, BTW!



Meyendorff continues, on this topic as pertinent to Christology as it is, indeed, to Trinitarian theology:

quote:
...the characteristics of the divine essence -- impassibility, immutability, etc. -- are not absolutely binding upon the personal, or hypostatic, existence of God. Later we shall see the importance of this fact for the patristic and Byzantine understanding of God. Meanwhile, on the level of soteriology, the affirmation that the Son of God indeed "died in the flesh" reflects, better than any other Christological formula, the boundlessness of God's love for man, the reality of the "appropriation" by the Logos of fallen and mortal humanity -- i.e., the very mystery of salvation.




IS THAT TOO LONG A QUOTE FOR TOM TO PUT AS HIS SIGNATURE?



That's all for today. (from Meyendorff's Byzantine Theology, pages 153-157)

Fred
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Tom
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   Posted 12/21/2002 11:01 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
In The Logic of God Incarnate, Tom Morris offers the following analogy of a kenotic model regarding omniscience:

“It is fairly easy to explicate coherently the kenotic allegation that the Son voluntarily and temporarily gave up his omniscience, later to regain it. For consider Shorty, a spy who is going on a dangerous mission in which he will have to pretend to be a great scientist with amnesia So that he will not succumb to questioning under torture if suspected, Shorty is given a limited-amnesia producing pill, and an antidote for later use….Clearly, such a scenario seems perfectly coherent. And in relevant respects is parallels the kenotic claim about Christ.”

Thoughts? Specifically, does Shorty’s only “pretending” to be a scientist call the entire analogy into question, since Christ did not “pretend” to be human?

Tom


"When you mix things up they get messy" Fred
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/22/2002 1:45 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
Thoughts? Specifically, does Shorty’s only “pretending” to be a scientist call the entire analogy into question, since Christ did not “pretend” to be human?


I think you are right, Tom. (since Christ did not “pretend” to be human?) He ALSO did not cease to be God.

If you look at my last post from Meyendorff you will see that in an "assymetrical union" there is no problem with this.
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 12/22/2002 1:52 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom, does Morris hope to posist a scientific explanation for Christ's ignorance, and then work backwards to build his Christology from that?
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Tom
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   Posted 12/22/2002 10:21 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Fred: Tom, does Morris hope to posist a scientific explanation for Christ's ignorance, and then work backwards to build his Christology from that?

Tom: Not sure. Just got into the book. Morris definitely doesn't belief Christ ceased "being" God. Not sure about his analogy. He'd probably say no analogy is perfect.

Tom

"When you mix things up they get messy" Fred
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