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|  OrthodoxBerean Registered Member
 Date Joined Oct 2001 Total Posts : 82 | Posted 11/7/2002 3:49 AM (GMT -6) |   | [quote="Oneness Apologist"]In your view, while God the Son continues to exist unchanged in His divine nature, He can no longer act in a divine capacity beyond (notice I did not say “apart from”) His incarnate existence, while according to Oneness theology He can and does. That is why I see your view more as a transmutation of God into man. He goes from functioning solely as God to functioning solely as man. Even though you maintain that God remains who He is in the incarnation, functionally His deity has had His lights turned off.
Trinitarians do not believe that God the Son "could not" fnuction through his divine capacity. They believe that he simply doesn't because he gave up that right at the incarntion. Does everyone here agree with this?
Next, he is trying to say that his uni-personal God functioned simultaneously as God and man. Is this possible? When God functions though his human capacity he says that this is the Son, when he functions outside of his human capacity he says that this is the Father.
What do you guys think about this?
p.s. I am not sure why the tags are not working.
Edited by - OrthodoxBerean on 11/07/2002 08:53:00 AM | | Back to Top | | |
 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 11/7/2002 4:30 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote: OrthodoxBerean --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
quote: [quote]"Oneness Apologist" = In your view, while God the Son continues to exist unchanged in His divine nature, He can no longer act in a divine capacity beyond (notice I did not say “apart from”) His incarnate existence, while according to Oneness theology He can and does. That is why I see your view more as a transmutation of God into man. He goes from functioning solely as God to functioning solely as man. Even though you maintain that God remains who He is in the incarnation, functionally His deity has had His lights turned off.
Trinitarians do not believe that God the Son "could not" fnuction through his divine capacity. They believe that he simply doesn't because he gave up that right at the incarntion. Does everyone here agree with this?
Next, he is trying to say that his uni-personal God functioned simultaneously as God and man. Is this possible? When God functions though his human capacity he says that this is the Son, when he functions outside of his human capacity he says that this is the Father.
What do you guys think about this?
As far as I know ORTHODOX CHRISTIANITY comes out unscathed. This guy says: "In your view, while God the Son continues to exist unchanged in His divine nature, He can no longer act in a divine capacity beyond (notice I did not say “apart from”) His incarnate existence, while according to Oneness theology He can and does." The whole fuss about Christ's Two Natures and therefor Two Wills (one of the Eccumenical councils) says that the Son never stopped being an active part of the Trinity. Learning this means, as an Evangelical, going back through and getting a clearer view of what Christ's "emptying himself" means. He did NOT stop being God. As God he could not sin--not possible. But as man he could and was tempted--and in that way suffered. Becoming incarnate, Christ DID NOT CHANGE IN HIS DIVINITY. Anything else is heretical.
This guy is able to toute a true doctrine, use it to attack Trinitarians (of believing something that it turns out isn't Trinitarian at all in the first place), and make it seem that he is triumphing over Trinitarian doctrine. See: www.oca.org/pages/orth_chri/Orthodox-Faith/Doctrine/Holy-Trinity.html and www.oca.org/pages/orth_chri/Orthodox-Faith/Doctrine/Incarnation.html. They have a very clear, pew-sitting-level presentation, by an Ohio parish priest turned Seminary Dean.
The Oneness Guy asks: "That is why I see your view more as a transmutation of God into man."
Al: Is that true? Do you?
The Oneness Guy accuses: "Even though you maintain that God remains who He is in the incarnation, functionally His deity has had His lights turned off."
Al: In Orthodox Christianity this is not true.
You say: Trinitarians do not believe that God the Son "could not" fnuction through his divine capacity. They believe that he simply doesn't because he gave up that right at the incarntion. Does everyone here agree with this?
Al: I'm willing to give you the benefit of the doubt. I'm guessing that you mean that the Son continued to do all the things the Son ever has, and continues to do -- including holding molicules together -- while he "had his day job." Then, I think that you mean that he gave up certain "rights" like not being temptable, and not suffering change. Christ became hungery. He hurt himself. He had ignorance (though never of his deity) and had to learn, in a winding path like us all. This, for what came with assuming our flesh, and for what came with his purposefully, intentionally selecting to identify with us in every way--even what was perhaps available for being avoided--was His free-will choice. HE EMPTIED HIMSELF. He was fully man. AND "fully God." That is Orthodox Christianity.
Of "The Oneness Guy" you remark: Next, he is trying to say that his uni-personal God functioned simultaneously as God and man. Is this possible? When God functions though his human capacity he says that this is the Son, when he functions outside of his human capacity he says that this is the Father.
Al: Christ, the Son incarnate, did AND DOES "functioned simultaneously as God and man" -- and I don't know whether I have to be careful of words here or not. (Read the LINKS.)
Al: But this is HERESY!: "When God functions though his human capacity he says that this is the Son, when he functions outside of his human capacity he says that this is the Father."
DOES WHAT THIS GUY IS DOING QUALIFY AS "BAIT AND SWITCH?"
You won't change his mind. It is a good opportunity to study up, though!
Best for you,
Al | | Back to Top | | |
 |  OrthodoxBerean Registered Member
 Date Joined Oct 2001 Total Posts : 82 | Posted 11/7/2002 7:09 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote:
As far as I know ORTHODOX CHRISTIANITY comes out unscathed. This guy says: "In your view, while God the Son continues to exist unchanged in His divine nature, He can no longer act in a divine capacity beyond (notice I did not say “apart from”) His incarnate existence, while according to Oneness theology He can and does." The whole fuss about Christ's Two Natures and therefor Two Wills (one of the Eccumenical councils) says that the Son never stopped being an active part of the Trinity. Learning this means, as an Evangelical, going back through and getting a clearer view of what Christ's "emptying himself" means. He did NOT stop being God. As God he could not sin--not possible. But as man he could and was tempted--and in that way suffered. Becoming incarnate, Christ DID NOT CHANGE IN HIS DIVINITY. Anything else is heretical.
This guy is able to toute a true doctrine, use it to attack Trinitarians (of believing something that it turns out isn't Trinitarian at all in the first place), and make it seem that he is triumphing over Trinitarian doctrine. See: www.oca.org/pages/orth_chri/Orthodox-Faith/Doctrine/Holy-Trinity.html and www.oca.org/pages/orth_chri/Orthodox-Faith/Doctrine/Incarnation.html. They have a very clear, pew-sitting-level presentation, by an Ohio parish priest turned Seminary Dean.
The Oneness Guy asks: "That is why I see your view more as a transmutation of God into man."
Al: Is that true? Do you?
The Oneness Guy accuses: "Even though you maintain that God remains who He is in the incarnation, functionally His deity has had His lights turned off."
Al: In Orthodox Christianity this is not true.
You say: Trinitarians do not believe that God the Son "could not" fnuction through his divine capacity. They believe that he simply doesn't because he gave up that right at the incarntion. Does everyone here agree with this?
Al: I'm willing to give you the benefit of the doubt. I'm guessing that you mean that the Son continued to do all the things the Son ever has, and continues to do -- including holding molicules together -- while he "had his day job." Then, I think that you mean that he gave up certain "rights" like not being temptable, and not suffering change. Christ became hungery. He hurt himself. He had ignorance (though never of his deity) and had to learn, in a winding path like us all. This, for what came with assuming our flesh, and for what came with his purposefully, intentionally selecting to identify with us in every way--even what was perhaps available for being avoided--was His free-will choice. HE EMPTIED HIMSELF. He was fully man. AND "fully God." That is Orthodox Christianity.
Of "The Oneness Guy" you remark: Next, he is trying to say that his uni-personal God functioned simultaneously as God and man. Is this possible? When God functions though his human capacity he says that this is the Son, when he functions outside of his human capacity he says that this is the Father.
Al: Christ, the Son incarnate, did AND DOES "functioned simultaneously as God and man" -- and I don't know whether I have to be careful of words here or not. (Read the LINKS.)
Al: But this is HERESY!: "When God functions though his human capacity he says that this is the Son, when he functions outside of his human capacity he says that this is the Father."
DOES WHAT THIS GUY IS DOING QUALIFY AS "BAIT AND SWITCH?"
You won't change his mind. It is a good opportunity to study up, though!
Best for you,
Al
Thank you for your response. His contention in this.
He says that the distinction between the Father and the Son is not a personal distinction rather he says that it is "existential" meaning pertaining to existence. This is a summary of his view as a whole.
QUESTION: Does not relationship between two objects presuppose personal distinctions?
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 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 11/7/2002 11:11 AM (GMT -6) |   | OB: QUESTION: Does not relationship between two objects presuppose personal distinctions?
Al: Can you explain? (Sorry, running errands.) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  GregBoyd Registered Member
 Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 1818 | Posted 11/7/2002 7:38 PM (GMT -6) |   | Orthodox Berean, I was originally a Oneness Pentecostal, 2 years intently, and 2 on my way out. I wrote a book about their beliefs called Oneness Pentecostals and the Trinity (Baker). Its still in print.
I used to believe that the "Son" was the humanity and the "Father" the divinity of Jesus Christ. I now regard the believe to be pretty prepostrous. The reasons are too numerous to go into here. (Get the book ).
As to your specific question, I would argue that the modalistic view of the incarnation is inherently Nestorian. They really have two PERSONS packed into one body -- a divine "father" and human "son." The two minds can speak at different times, interrelate together, etc...
As I see it, Jesus was ONE person who was God become man. To become a man, he laid aside his divine perrogatives -- everything except that which makes God God: his divine love.
Best wishes -- and tons of patience
Greg
"In Christ...the ONLY THING that matters is faith energized by love." Galatians 5:6 | | Back to Top | | |
 |  OrthodoxBerean Registered Member
 Date Joined Oct 2001 Total Posts : 82 | Posted 11/7/2002 11:27 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote:
OB: QUESTION: Does not relationship between two objects presuppose personal distinctions?
Al: Can you explain? (Sorry, running errands.)
Yes. Jason Dulle (Oneness Apologist) is attempting to get a person to think that having "persons" is not necessary. He argues that if for a Trinitarian the Son could exist as God and man simultaneously without making a "fourth" person than the Oneness believer God have God and man exist in two distinct ways without having two persons (Nestorian).
For example, when Jesus is praying is says that we see God communicating "through" his human conscienceness. He believe that the Father and Son are not "personal" distinctions but rather "existential" (pertaining to existence) distinctions. When it comes to prayer he says that it is nestorian to says that one nature prayed to another nature. He tries to avoide this by saying that when Jesus prayed it was God acting "through" his human existence (The Son) or his human conscienceness. The one to who is receiving prayer is the same God but more specifically God that is not limited to the human existence. He says that this is plausable since God can simultaneously exist as completely God and completely man.
So he is trying to show that we do not need to understand that the Ftaher and the Son are "personal" distinctions rather distinctions of God existence.
My question was doesn't relationship presuppose personal distinctions as oppsed to distinctions of existence? In other words I am trying to figure out how I can show that the Father and Son are not just existential distinctions between God's existence as God and his existence as man. Rather, I want to show that the Father and the Son are "personally" distinct.
Btw...thanks for those links
GregBoyd quote: As to your specific question, I would argue that the modalistic view of the incarnation is inherently Nestorian. They really have two PERSONS packed into one body -- a divine "father" and human "son." The two minds can speak at different times, interrelate together, etc...
He is trying to avoid this error by saying that there the differnce between the Father and the Son is not humnaity verse divinity rather God's existence as man due to the incarnation and God's existence beyond the incarnation. Most of his articles are posted at www.onenesspentecostal.com He believes that the Oneness movement is very Nestorian and as a Oneness person tries to avoid the same error in his papers by describing God as having different manners of existence due to the incarnation.
Edited by - OrthodoxBerean on 11/08/2002 04:32:25 AM | | Back to Top | | |
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