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|  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/29/2004 6:26 PM (GMT -6) |   | When Christians (like St. Athanasias did) say that Christ "SUFFERED IMPASSIBLY" they are not spouting nonsense!
They are affirming, first, that Christ suffered. How mightily important.
The other thing that statement affirms is that Christs suffering was not a "passive" act. That is, the suffering did not happen to him by surprise, or by force beyond his ability to handle it. It was not a rollercoaster that zoomed out of control. Christ was not "passive" in his suffering. He chose to die for you and me.
And, HISTORICALLY, that is what the statement Athanasias and the others made means when it says that Christ "SUFFERED IMPASSIBLY."
Pithy statement. Produces a 'double take' -- doesn't it. But BOTH of these aspects, that he condescended to suffer in the flesh and that as God he was Lord of All are so very important and central to our faith.
Amen. Amen. Amen.
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 |  John Earp Registered Member
 Date Joined Oct 2002 Total Posts : 1715 | Posted 7/29/2004 6:43 PM (GMT -6) |   | From what I know, there's more to the phrase than you are allowing, PoW. As I'm sure you know, the idea of the "impassibility" of Christ was very much a theme of medieval theology. They thought of "impassible" as "without passions," didn't they? Not unlike the Westminster Confession's absurd phrase, "...without body, parts, or passions." How anyone can truly think God has no emotions is just beyond me.
From dictionary.com:
im·pas·si·ble ( P ) Pronunciation Key (m-ps-bl) adj. Not subject to suffering, pain, or harm. Unfeeling; impassive.
Is it so impossible to think that any of the theologians of the early church might possibly have been mistaken in some things?
"The Discovery of new truth will modify old views and opinions, and there is perhaps no end to this process with finite minds in any world." Charles G. Finney, Systematic Theology.
revivaltheology.net
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 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/29/2004 6:48 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote: Originally posted by John Earp
From what I know, there's more to the phrase than you are allowing, PoW. As I'm sure you know, the idea of the "impassibility" of Christ was very much a theme of medieval theology. They thought of "impassible" as "without passions," didn't they? Not unlike the Westminster Confession's absurd phrase, "...without body, parts, or passions." How anyone can truly think God has no emotions is just beyond me.
When considering what is meant in the 300's in Alexandria Egypt, WHO CARES what some guys a continent away, a thousand years later, a culture and a language removed did???
'Cinocentrism' (belief that "we are the center of the world") in European cutlure, while you are at it!
The phrase stands, meaning what its authors actually meant. Not what anyone wants, from either side of a later dispute, wants to try to force upon it.
Clear thinking and objectivity demand no less.
(Always looking for the underdog idea... PoW)
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  |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/29/2004 7:01 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote: Originally posted by John Earp
Okay, so it's a translation issue. What was the original word and what did it mean back then? Have we been misled by the dictionary? 
"the Logos suffered impassibly," epathen apathos
Behr's books have a wonderful treatment of Athanasias.
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 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/29/2004 7:09 PM (GMT -6) |   | from www.stthomas.edu/theology/PLGAVRILYUK/Theopatheia%20Cyril%20Nestorius.pdf quote: Theopatheia: Nestorius’s main charge against Cyrilof AlexandriaPaul GavrilyukTheology Department, University of St Thomas, 2115 Summit Ave/JRC 153, St Paul, MN 55105,
USAplgavrilyuk@stthomas.edu
Abstract Was Cyril of Alexandria a theopaschite? In order to resolve this controversial issue, this paper will look at Cyril’s Christology with Nestorius’s eyes. The chargeof theopatheia appears from the very beginning in Nestorius’s correspondence with Cyril and retains its central place in Nestorius’s work Liber Heraclidis. Thepaper discusses Nestorian arguments against Cyril’s position and Cyril’s counter-charges. The conclusion is reached that Nestorius asserted unqualified divine impassibility. Cyril, in contrast, held a qualified view of the divine impassibility and maintained that neither divinity suffered alone, apart from humanity (in which case the assumption of humanity would be superfluous), nor humanity suffered alone, apart from and in sharp contrast to the impassible divinity (in which casethe reality of divine involvement in the incarnation would be put at risk).
. . .(abstract continues)
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  |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/29/2004 7:20 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote: Originally posted by John Earp
Okay, I did some searching on the web, and I have been unable to find anywhere where the definition of impassible differs from that of dictionary.com. The Catholic New Advent site says it means the divine nature cannot suffer.
Well, I got MY definition from Athanasias. Cyril got his from Athanasias. I put the link to an abstract who's text you can easily judge to fit my first post.
BUT, as to the RCC site, what it says predictably is a Scholastic, Thomist definion -- no surprise there. I want to know WHAT Athanasias said (so I read Behr), and WHY did he say it (so I read Behr). And by the later I don't mean why he concluded such an such; I want to know WHY it was important to him.
LOOK MORE CAREFULLY AT MY FIRST POST!!!! What if God did not fit that "impassible" denotation. What would you have then? Ask good questions.
BTW -- Behr's ISBN is ISBN 0-88141-266-X
quote: In this sequel to The Way to Nicaea, Fr John Behr turns his attention to the fourth century, the era in which Christian theology was formulated as the Nicene faith, the common heritage of most Christians to this day. Engaging the best of modern scholarship, Behr provides a series of orignal, comprehensive, and insightful sketches of theology of the key protaganists of the Nicene faith, presenting a powerful vision of Christian theology, centered upon Christ and his Passion.
Part One, "True God of True God," opens with a reflection on the nature of Christian theology, challenging common presuppositions, and an analysis and survey of the fourth century controversies, followed by studies of Alexander, Arius, the Council of Nicaea, and, Athanasius.
Part Two, "One of the Holy Trinity," provides analyses of the work of Basil of Caesarea, Gregory of Nazianzus, and Gregory of Nyssa, together with their opponents, in particular Eunomius and Apollinarius.
Each part is contained in a separate paperback book.
6 x 9 480 pp Price: US $30.00 (for both together)
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 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/29/2004 7:28 PM (GMT -6) |   | | For Athanasias, everything was about the Cross and Christ's Passion. Not about what LATER came to be formulated as "Christology" and the "Trinity." People LATER read things back "into his mind" that while not at all incompatable with his faith and writing, did not at the time have a driving force in his theology. (That's my own summary of what I read in Behr.) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/29/2004 7:38 PM (GMT -6) |   | www.arimathea.co.uk/who.htm
quote: Who Suffered ?
In 519 controversy arose in Constantinople when Gothic monks led by John Maxentius proclaimed their opposition to Nestorianism by use of the formula, ‘One of the Trinity suffered.’ This phrase became known as the Theopaschite formula. Despite the hostility of the akoimetoi monks (1), the Emperor Justinian was convinced that this formula was orthodox. Eventually, through the good offices of Bishop Hypatios of Ephesus, who visited Rome in 533, Justinian won the support of Pope John II, who, in his letter Olim Quidem to the Constantinopolitan Senate, declared the formula orthodox.
The Theopaschite formula is of great theological importance: it focusses our minds on the question Who suffered? The bitter arguments over Christology had focussed on the question of Christ's nature or natures. But on Calvary it was not a nature who suffered, but a person. And the Theopaschite formula draws us back to reflect on Who that person is - the Logos, God the Son and Word of God, known to us in His humanity as Jesus of Nazareth. It is the Word of God Who suffers, impassible in His deity, he has put on our humanity, and lives, suffers and dies with us as one of us to raise us with Him.
[Confusingly, there exists also a Theopaschite Heresy, namely the belief that on Calvary one of the Trinity suffered as God. This was a view upheld by a handful of extreme Monophysite theologians, who, unlike most of those labelled with that name, denied the humanity of Christ. Most of the leading theologians of the Monophysite tradition share with Chalcedonian Orthodox the crucial doctrine that Christ is consubstantial with us in His humanity and consubstantial with the Father and the Spirit in His deity.]
Theological discussion of ancient formulae such as the Theopaschite formula can seem dry and arid. We seem to enter a realm of intellectual conundrums. What is really at issue is our constant struggle to assimilate the truth revealed in Scripture and preserved and handed on in Tradition. The intellectual effort to assimilate the truth of Christ's suffering and death is one aspect of the transformation He brings: He is Saviour of the total person, body, mind, soul and spirit. The Eastern Christian tradition has always laid great emphasis on correct expression and correct ways of thinking the truth. That should never take us away from the central insight that the Truth revealed to us is a person, the living Word of God, who comes to encounter us and make Himself one with us by assuming our human nature, so that He stands before us as the man, Jesus the Anointed. Part of opening ourselves to His salvific presence is opening our minds to a correct apprehension of Who He is.
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  |  Sahid Megistered Rember

Date Joined Jun 2004 Total Posts : 2013 | Posted 7/29/2004 8:21 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote: Nestorius asserted unqualified divine impassibility. Cyril, in contrast, held a qualified view of the divine impassibility and maintained that neither divinity suffered alone, apart from humanity (in which case the assumption of humanity would be superfluous), nor humanity suffered alone, apart from and in sharp contrast to the impassible divinity (in which casethe reality of divine involvement in the incarnation would be put at risk).
Read your own quote. Cyril (in this quote) is dealing with suffering when dealing with impassibility. Where in this quote does it say that "passible" and "passive" are the same thing? quote: The Theopaschite formula is of great theological importance: it focusses our minds on the question Who suffered?
Who suffered, not how was the suffering brought about.
The English word "passible" has Latin roots. "Passus" in Latin is a form of the verb "suffer". Whoever told you it has something to do with passiveness (not your quote by the way) is either ignorant or lying. There are Greek words that are similar like "pathos", but that's not where the English word comes from (except maybe through Latin and then probably French), but even if we did, it wouldn't mean "passive". We get words like "apathy", "sympathy", and "empathy" from here. It is confusing, because these words do have meanings that often refer to suffering too. But once again they don't deal with activity or passivity. In the BDAG lexicon "pathos" means suffering, endurance, experience, or strong desire. I'm guessing, but I think the modern English word "passive" probably came from "passus" too, as in enduring suffering rather than inflicting it, but that doesn't mean the modern connotation was present two thousand years ago. When someone mentions cardinals, I think of baseball. Other people in history would have thought of priests or mathematics. There is no retroactive connotation.
Impassible suffering is nonsense. That's why it was such a tricky issue. It is nearly the same as talking about painless sufferning or painless painfulness. Aparently, Christians have always been trying to keep thinking of God as impassible. But that's not the same thing as thinking of God as not passive. Someone has either misinformed you or been misunderstood. Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre | | Back to Top | | |
 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/29/2004 11:34 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote: Originally posted by John Earp
leaves me with my head scratching. Are we reading the same Bible?
...Leaves my head scratching... Are we reading the same THREAD?
Your post does not rise to the level of interacting what I really posted. Sleeeeeeepppp will bring renewed objectivity, John.
Until then...
PoW | | Back to Top | | |
 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/29/2004 11:43 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote: Originally posted by Sahid
Someone has either misinformed you or been misunderstood.[/font=Book Antiqua]
Or the author, a real scholar? That Ph.D. from Oxford University might count for something? And all the scholarship the guy has under his belt? Seminary professorship? Editorship of a of Patristic books series? Editorship of a theological journal.
Ooops. I almost forgot that it was a quote from St. Athanasias and not just the author. Does St. Athanasias have creditable grasp of the Greek he's writing in. Seems so. St. Cyril....
But then you will be off to seminary this fall. Hmmm......
(But then you didn't read everything I posted here anyways.)
PoW | | Back to Top | | |
 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/30/2004 1:09 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote: The Making of the Chalcedonian Definition
. . .
2. Cyril of Alexandria: "One Nature, and that Incarnate, of the Divine Word"
"If anyone presumes to say that 'the man who was assumed is to be worshipped together with the Divine Word'..., let him be anathema," 8th anathema.
"God the Logos did not come into a man, but he "truly" became man, while remaining God."
"The single, unique Christ, out of two different natures." "One out of two."
"Hypostatic union." "There is one nature, and that incarnate, of the divine Word."
"He who says that the Lord suffered only in the flesh [i.e. not in the soul] makes the suffering irrational and not endured by the will."
"The mystery was accomplished noiselessly. Therefore in accordance with the economy [order of salvation], He permitted the measures of the manhood to prevail over Himself."
"God suffered impassibly."
"It is not that the Logos of God suffered in his own nature, being overcome by stripes or nail-piercing or any of the other injuries; for the divine, since it is incorporeal, is impassible. Since, however, the body that had become his own underwent suffering, he is... said to have suffered these things for our sakes, for the impassible One was within the suffering body."
www.etss.edu/hts/hts1/notes15.htm
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  |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/30/2004 3:00 AM (GMT -6) |   | No, I don't plan to "help out" anybody. I think the only way anyone learns and profits from anything is doing the work themselves. And doing the long-division with showing your work, which in this case means READING the shown work of an Athanasias and a Cyril helps. It is far to easy to take an issolated piece and treat it as though its the core of a thesis, and then out of context place it in a contemporary setting and blast away with a Webster's dictionary. to no gain.
As to what you pulled -- NOT from my words, but from something worth reading -- it simply says that, SINCE the nature of the Logos of God is incorporeal (WHICH IT IS) that it is also impassible. That's all that portion is saying. No big deal, and nothing confusing or contraversial.
BUT, one also has to take the time to grasp that before going onto something else.
and then read also those class notes someone posted with quotes from st. Cyril when he was in contest with Nestorius (Who was not a good scholar, nor a nice guy!).
And read what i really posted in the first post of the thread. (Third paragraph.)
But I'd recommend that since you have interest and some background that you get Behr's books; and stop being so influenced by Harnack.
Glad you are here on this board, John!
- PoW (the slow reader)
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 |  JEE Registered Member
 Date Joined Jul 2004 Total Posts : 1466 | Posted 7/30/2004 3:38 AM (GMT -6) |   | I don't recall ever reading anything by Harnack; I vaguely recall hearing his name.
I find it odd that when I show you from a quote you yourself posted (presumably in support of your position) that you still insist that I don't get it.
When I said, "Help me out," I was simply asking you to face up to the facts as stated in your own post, by those you yourself quoted. I still don't see how you don't see how irrational your view appears on this point.
Further, your assertion that the incorporeal cannot suffer is refuted by the Scripture itself, when God reveals himself as One who is able to feel sorrow, grief, compassion for the suffering, joy, love, zeal, and many other emotions. http://revivaltheology.net | | Back to Top | | |
 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/30/2004 4:24 AM (GMT -6) |   | History is the thing. Its like culture. We of the media age may say that so-and-so has to ofganize and express and symbolize and value such-and-such in a certain way, but linguist and anthropologists who go away from home (a sociologist is an anthropologist who doesn't get freequent flier miles) quickly learn that theres isn't the only way to look at something. And so, I post a quote from history, and you say "I still don't see how you don't see how irrational (that) view appears on this point." But that is from the seat where you sit, and from this moment. But Athanasias and Cyril still remain.
So, a little beginning...
John: "...you still insist that I don't get it." PoW: You seem to be saying that you don't.
The quote in question: "...since it is incorporeal, is impassible." John: "that the incorporeal cannot suffer."
PoW: But it is YOUR task to learn to see the difference. Because, to take a journey back into history and to learn something useful from that requires seeing the difference. And to refuse to try would be a decision in itself.
I pointed you to the third paragraph in my opening post. I said "did not", "was not," "was not", "chose." Couldn't be clearer.
And a Cyril quote says: "He permitted the measures of the manhood to prevail over Himself" Like I said, chose.
So, with Cyril: "God suffered impassibly."
----------------------------------- Stray: I don't recall ever reading anything by Harnack; I vaguely recall hearing his name. Reply: As a shaper of intrenched opinion Adolf von Harnack (SEE: www.encyclopedia.com/html/H/Harnack.asp) is very influential. You dn't have to have heard of him to have been handed many of his opinions/prejudices hidden in your "own!"
John: Further, your assertion that the incorporeal cannot suffer is refuted by the Scripture itself, when God reveals himself as One who is able to feel sorrow, grief, compassion for the suffering, joy, love, zeal, and many other emotions. PoW: That's just how YOU are READING scripture. And its also just how you are FRAMING what you read. BOTH.
When you say God feels sorrow, so does Cyril; who also says that God is "impassible." And he means both, and went to battle (quoted in this thread) against Nestorius' claim that God does not. That's the facts of history. And YOU have to decide what to make of the facts.
WE call these things "emotions." But it is mere anthropomorphizations to summarize and say that God "has emotions." HOW DO YOU KNOW? You assume. You assume that the incorporal, immutable God "HAS TO" have emotions for God to be "pleased," or "sorrowed." BUT YOU DON'T KNOW.
And saying that the speach of the Bible, that is directed towards US in our possition is "proof" that God has a corporal mechanism and characteristic for all this is assumptive, to say the least.
A Cyril and an Athanasias is on-point honest about what they can and can't say. But it does not in any manner whatsoever stop them from affirming ALL of the Biblical revelation (I won't say "proof" because that is 'our' wierd dumpsterdive of our culture.) that God gives us. A POINT OF theological history, besides learning not to 'read back' into history what transpires later, is that many of these theologian guys had primary goals that we don't assume from looking back will be there. And for Origin its the primacy of Scripture, Iraneaus its Chirst "according to the Scriptures, and for Athanasias its the CROSS. Athanasias, and Cyril after him both said: "God suffered impassibly." That is a statement about soteriology, about Christology. It is NOT driven as a theological definition.
We fail with history unless we take it for what it presents.
(The part I just underlined is intended to help.)
I get to do my OWN reading now.
PoW | | Back to Top | | |
  |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/30/2004 4:44 AM (GMT -6) |   | 
Incarnation of the Reason and Wisdom of God, One of the all-holy Trinity, Who created all that has been made, and was born of the flesh of the all-holy Mother of God and thus renewed the entire cosmos
And it begins: The impassive passion, the willed sharing in our suffering; and with his actions the transfiguring of the cosmos...bit by bit.

quote: ... God according to the will and power of God; that He was truly born of a virgin, was baptized by John, in order that all righteousness might be fulfilled by Him ... (The Epistle of Ignatius to the Smyrnaeans)
More and more, a little bit at a time...
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 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/30/2004 4:51 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote: . . . And after his resurrection He did eat and drink with them, as being possessed of flesh, although spiritually He was united to the Father (The Epistle of Ignatius to the Smyrnaeans)
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 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/30/2004 4:56 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote: —God is impassible. This means, not that God is impassive and unfeeling (a fre-quent misunderstanding), but that no created beings can inflict pain, suffering and distress on him at their own will. In so far as God enters into suffering and grief… it is by his own deliberate decision; he is never his creatures‘ helpless victim.“–Sinclair B. Ferguson and David F. Wright, New Dictionary of Theology (Leices-ter, England; Illinois, USA: Inter-Varsity Press, 1988, repr. 1998), p. 277.
- not that God is impassive and unfeeling
- by his own deliberate decision
THEN go back and read the first post on page one. | | Back to Top | | |
 |  feelinahole Registered Member
 Date Joined Jan 2004 Total Posts : 754 | Posted 7/30/2004 5:33 AM (GMT -6) |   | I am truly mystified as well. Apparently, POW didn't post to actually dialogue with others, but rather to redefine ancient terms to his own meaning (and then deny that he is doing it)...but then again, this is POW's world and we are only guests in it. As the good Calvinist that he is ( ), POW controls all questions, answers in his world and if we questioned it, then we just don't get it. Who are you to talk back to God, oh man (John!)! | | Back to Top | | |
 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 7/30/2004 7:18 AM (GMT -6) |   | I'm just posting the word of real people, from real times (however inconvenient, however), and not strawmen.
Real stuff!!! | | Back to Top | | |
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