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|  feelinahole Registered Member
 Date Joined Jan 2004 Total Posts : 754 | Posted 8/24/2004 8:05 PM (GMT -6) |   | | Awhile back someone posted a site that had a list of the different theories of the Atonement. Anyone remember where that was? Thanks. | | Back to Top | | |
    |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 8/25/2004 4:23 PM (GMT -6) |   | | Lock, that does not say that it is "imputed," the way Anselm said. That says that we are made partakers of Christ's righteousness that he gained by HIS faith. If you meant it as an answer to JEE's question, its not. | | Back to Top | | |
 |  lock Registered Member
 Date Joined Jul 2004 Total Posts : 701 | Posted 8/25/2004 5:18 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote: Originally posted by PotOnWheel
Lock, that does not say that it is "imputed," the way Anselm said. That says that we are made partakers of Christ's righteousness that he gained by HIS faith. If you meant it as an answer to JEE's question, its not.
Maybe I did not understand the question. Does not Paul go on in the beginning of Romans 4 to say that "Abraham believes God, and it is reckoned to him for righteousness and that David declared "blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin"? Then, finally in 4:23-25, "Now it was not written for his (Abraham's) sake alone, that it was imputed to him; But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed. who are believing on Him who raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead"?
Lock His achievement are we, being created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God makes ready beforehand, that we should be walking in them. | | Back to Top | | |
  |  borg Registered Member
 Date Joined Apr 2003 Total Posts : 324 | Posted 8/25/2004 8:20 PM (GMT -6) |   | Now to the one who works, his wage is not credited as a favor, but as what is due. But to the one who does not work, but believes in Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is credited as righteousness Romans 4:4-5
"Therefore being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ:...." Romans 3;20,28
[we]"...are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood... He did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus. Rom 3:25,26
Therefore no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of sin. Rom 3:20
He was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification. Rom 4:25
Consequently, just as the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men, so also the result of one act of righteousness was justification that brings life for all men. Rom 5:18
"... through Jesus the forgiveness of sins is proclaimed to you. Through him everyone who believes is justified from everything you could not be justified from by the law of Moses." Acts 13:38
know that a man is not justified by observing the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ. So we, too, have put our faith in Christ Jesus that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by observing the law, because by observing the law no one will be justified. Galatians 2:16
You who are trying to be justified by law have been alienated from Christ; you have fallen away from grace. Galatians 5:4
Philippians 3
We are justified by grace alone, through faith alone, and Christ's righteousness is imputed onto us worthless sinners. We are clothed in the righteousness of Christ, through faith in Christ, by Grace alone.
does this make sense? blessings, borg "So it is a more glorious work of power to uphold a soul in a state of grace and holiness, and to carry it on till it is brought to glory, when there is so much sin remaining in the heart resisting, and Satan with all his might opposing, than it would have been to have kept manfrom falling at first, when Satan had nothing in man." Edwards | | Back to Top | | |
  |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 8/26/2004 1:59 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote: Originally posted by lock
Maybe I did not understand the question. Does not Paul go on in the beginning of Romans 4 to say that "Abraham believes God, and it is reckoned to him for righteousness and that David declared "blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin"? Then, finally in 4:23-25, "Now it was not written for his (Abraham's) sake alone, that it was imputed to him; But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed. who are believing on Him who raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead"?
Lock
This is a good verse to begin with: He was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification. Rom 4:25
Were the "problem" that God hated us, that God "imputed sin" for somethign that we didn't do but that Adam and Eve did... Were the problem not sin and death but just an offense remembered, THEN something like an imputation might work.
BUT, I think that waht John Romanadies says about Paul's view of original sin is important: "If one is to vigorously and consistently maintain that Jesus Christ is the unique Savior Who has brought salvation to a world in need of salvation, one obviously must know what is the nature of the need which provoked this salvation." http://www.romanity.org/htm/rom.10.en.original_sin_according_to_st._paul.01.htm quote: Undoubtedly, one of the most important causes of heresy is the failure to understand the exact nature of the human situation described by the Old and New Testaments, to which the historical events of the birth, teachings, death, resurrection and second coming of Christ are the only remedy. The failure to understand this automatically implies a perverted understanding of what it is that Christ did and continues to do for us, and what our subsequent relation is to Christ and neighbor within the realm of salvation. The importance of a correct definition of original sin and its consequences can never be exaggerated. Any attempt to minimize its importance or alter its significance automatically entails either a weakening or even a complete misunderstanding of the nature of the Church, sacraments and human destiny.
. . .
A proper approach to the New Testament teaching of St. Paul concerning original sin cannot be one-sided. It is incorrect, for example, to emphasize, in Romans 5:12, the phrase, eph'ho pantes hemarton, by trying to make it fit any certain system of thought concerning moral law and guilt without first establishing the importance of St. Paul's beliefs concerning the powers of Satan and the true situation not only of man, but of all creation. It is also wrong to deal with the problem of the transmission of original sin within the framework of dualistic anthropology while at the same time completely ignoring the Hebraic foundations of St. Paul's anthropology. Likewise, and attempt to interpret the Biblical doctrine of the fall in terms of a hedonistic philosophy of happiness is already doomed to failure because of its refusal to recognize not only the abnormality but, more important, the consequences of death and corruption.
A correct approach to the Pauline doctrine of original sin must take into consideration St. Paul's understanding of (1) the fallen state of creation, including the powers of Satan, death and corruption, (2) the justice of God and law, and (3) anthropology and the destiny of man and creation. These divisions are not meant to suggest that each topic is to be dealt with here in detail; rather, they shall be discussed only in the light of the main problem of original sin and its transmission according to St. Paul.
When Romans says, "... through Jesus the forgiveness of sins is proclaimed to you. Through him everyone who believes is justified from everything you could not be justified from by the law of Moses. (Acts 13:38)," is it not just words or an ideas that "proclaims" -- OR it is A LIFE that proclaims, and the medium is death and resurrection.
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But doesn't Borg try to re-write scripture when he sasy: "We are justified by faith alone, through grace alone..."
This may seem early in the morning to me -- though its not -- but doesn['t scripture say "by grace through faith" and not by faith through grace. THAT IS AN IMPORTANT DISTINCTION, | | Back to Top | | |
 |  borg Registered Member
 Date Joined Apr 2003 Total Posts : 324 | Posted 8/26/2004 7:37 AM (GMT -6) |   | AS I understand it, imputation is never specifiically mentioned in the Bible (however neither is the Trinity), but we can gather that Christ's righteousness is imputed upon us with the verses above and with the ideas as found in Zechariah 4 and Micha 7. In both cases it is Christ who justifies us with His own "clothes" or by taking upon Himself our "reproach". The fact is, is that we are justifed by grace alone through faith alone, and we are not justified through the works of the law, yet we stand justified before God, and Christ being the only one who ever fully kept the law, it seems that a transfer was necesarry. I think it is alluded to much throughout Scripture that it is only by Christ's righteousness that we are saved; that's why it is important that He came and fulfilled the law perfectly even as a child. Grace Alone, Borg
Hey PotonWheels, thanks for pointing that out. You are 100% correct, I wrote it backwards sorry about that. We are Justified by grace through faith alone because of Christ alone. Thanks for pointing that out.
"So it is a more glorious work of power to uphold a soul in a state of grace and holiness, and to carry it on till it is brought to glory, when there is so much sin remaining in the heart resisting, and Satan with all his might opposing, than it would have been to have kept manfrom falling at first, when Satan had nothing in man." Edwards | | Back to Top | | |
 |  lock Registered Member
 Date Joined Jul 2004 Total Posts : 701 | Posted 8/26/2004 8:50 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote: Originally posted by borg
AS I understand it, imputation is never specifiically mentioned in the Bible (however neither is the Trinity), but we can gather that Christ's righteousness is imputed upon us with the verses above and with the ideas as found in Zechariah 4 and Micha 7. In both cases it is Christ who justifies us with His own "clothes" or by taking upon Himself our "reproach". The fact is, is that we are justifed by grace alone through faith alone, and we are not justified through the works of the law, yet we stand justified before God, and Christ being the only one who ever fully kept the law, it seems that a transfer was necesarry. I think it is alluded to much throughout Scripture that it is only by Christ's righteousness that we are saved; that's why it is important that He came and fulfilled the law perfectly even as a child. Grace Alone, Borg
Hey PotonWheels, thanks for pointing that out. You are 100% correct, I wrote it backwards sorry about that. We are Justified by grace through faith alone because of Christ alone. Thanks for pointing that out.
In 2 Cor. 5:18-21, it states that God is reconciling the world to Himself through Jesus Christ, not reckoning their offenses to them. Jesus, who knew no sin, became a sin offering for us that we may be becoming God's righteousness in Christ.
Lock His achievement are we, being created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God makes ready beforehand, that we should be walking in them. | | Back to Top | | |
 |  JEE Registered Member
 Date Joined Jul 2004 Total Posts : 1466 | Posted 8/26/2004 10:52 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote: Originally posted by borg
AS I understand it, imputation is never specifiically mentioned in the Bible (however neither is the Trinity), but we can gather that Christ's righteousness is imputed upon us with the verses above and with the ideas as found in Zechariah 4 and Micha 7. In both cases it is Christ who justifies us with His own "clothes" or by taking upon Himself our "reproach". The fact is, is that we are justifed by grace alone through faith alone, and we are not justified through the works of the law, yet we stand justified before God, and Christ being the only one who ever fully kept the law, it seems that a transfer was necesarry.
I certainly agree that we cannot be justified by works of the law.
Christ's atoning death provides the means by which repentant sinners can be forgiven and made righteous by God. But imputation in the sense usually taken is the most thoroughly antinomian doctrine ever thought of. The biblically revealed conditions of salvation are atonement, repentance, faith, and continuance in the faith. We are forgiven by God in view of Christ's sacrifice for us, but our forgiven status is no license to continue as rebels against God's holy law.
http://revivaltheology.net | | Back to Top | | |
  |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 8/26/2004 11:16 AM (GMT -6) |   | My appologies to EVERYONE because I thought that by now I'd have found a copy of the Time Mag. article on my harddrive that listed about four different theories; imputation among them. (It did not list what the whole Eastern church teaches though -- the author's rolodex must be limited.)
Here are some Fredricka Matthews-Green reviews on Gibson's "Passion" movie: - http://www.frederica.com/orthodox/meaning_of_his_suffering.html
- http://www.spiritrestoration.org/Church/All%20About%20Church%20Articles/Frederica%20Mathewes%20Green/The_Passion_Movie_by_Mel_Gibson.htm
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 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 8/26/2004 11:20 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote: MAXIMUS THE CONFESSOR ad thalassium 42
On Jesus Christ, the New Adam Who "Became Sin"
(CCSG 7:285-289)
And it is by virtue of his assumption of this natural passibility that he became sin for our sake, though he did not know any deliberate sin because of the immutability of his free choice. Because his free choice was incorruptible, he rectified our nature's liability to passions and turned the end of our nature's passibility which is death into the beginning of our natural transformation to incorruption. In turn, just as through one man, who turned voluntarily from the good, the human nature was changed from incorruption to corruption to the detriment of all humanity, so too through one man, Jesus Christ, who did not voluntarily turn from the good, human nature underwent a restoration from corruption to incorruption for the benefit of all humanity.
Therefore the Lord did not know "my sin", that is, the mutability of my free choice. Neither did he assume nor become my sin. Rather, he became the "sin that I caused"; in other words, he assumed the corruption of human nature that was a consequence of the mutability of my free choice. I For our sake he became a human being naturally liable to passions, and used the "sin" that I caused to destroy the "sin" that I commit. Just as in Adam, with his own act of freely choosing evil, the common glory of human nature, incorruption, was robbed-since God judged that it was not right for humanity, having abused free choice, to have an immortal nature-so too in Christ, with his own act of freely choosing the good, the common scourge of our whole nature, corruption, was taken away. At the resurrection of Christ, human nature was transformed into incorruption because his free choice was immutable. For God judged that it was right for man, when he did not subvert his free choice, once again to recover an immortal nature. By "man" here I mean the incarnate Logos in virtue of the fact that he united to himself, hypostatically, the flesh animated by a rational soul. For if the deviance of free choice introduced passibility, corruptibility, and mortality in Adam's nature, it only followed that in Christ, the immutability of free choice, realized through his resurrection, introduced natural impassibility, incorruptibility, and immortality.
Hence the mutation of human nature over to passibility, corruption, and death is the condemnation of Adam's deliberate sin. Man was not created by God in the beginning with such a corrupted nature; rather, man invented and knew it since he created deliberate sin through his disobedience. And clearly condemnation by death is the result of such sin. Yet the Lord took on this very condemnation of my deliberate sin, that is to say, the passibility, corruptibility, and mortality of our nature. He became the "sin" that I caused, in terms of the passibility, corruptibility, and mortality, and he submitted voluntarily to the condemnation owed me in my nature, even though he himself was blameless in his freedom of choice, in order to condemn both my deliberate "sin" and the "sin" that befell my nature. Accordingly he has driven sin, passion, corruption, and death from human nature, and the economy of Christ's philanthropy on my behalf has become for me, one fallen through disobedience, a new mystery. For the sake of my salvation, Christ, through his own death, voluntarily made my condemnation his own, thereby granting me restoration to immortality.
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 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 8/26/2004 11:27 AM (GMT -6) |   |
HERE'S AN ENTRY POINT:
Therefore the Lord did not know "my sin",
that is, the mutability of my free choice. Neither
did he assume nor become my sin. Rather, he became
the "sin that I caused"; in other words, he assumed
the corruption of human nature that was a consequence
of the mutability of my free choice. I For our sake he
became a human being naturally liable to passions, and
used the "sin" that I caused to destroy the "sin"
that I commit.
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 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 8/26/2004 5:03 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote: Originally posted by feelinahole
Awhile back someone posted a site that had a list of the different theories of the Atonement. Anyone remember where that was? Thanks.
Well, feel'n hole probably wants that list from Time Magazine. (I hope he can get to the Public Library for it!)
Here's another list, though.
A long time ago on this site, "Modes of Thought" posted that we need a lot of the various 'ANALOGIES' to encircle all that redemption means. That's a good point.
Many times criticisms of Eastern Orthodoxy (by Reformed where I go to church, too) amount to complaints that Orthodox "only" talk about THE INCARNATION. Where's the Cross we westerners ask. Well, the Cross plays a HUGE part all throughout the Eastern Liturgy, and especially during Lent.
What you can find following this LINK is very well balanced, and perhaps even what feel'n hole was looking for, remembering, as it INCLUDES SEVERAL ASPECTS OF REDEMPTION, that, like Modes of Thought said, ALL apply!
Redemption
http://www.oca.org/pages/orth_chri/Orthodox-Faith/Doctrine/Redemption.html
- Jesus, the Perfect Image of Human Life
- Jesus, the Reconciler of Man with God
- Jesus, the Destroyer of Death
ITS A LINK WORTH FOLLOWING!
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  |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 8/26/2004 6:00 PM (GMT -6) |   | Good work JEE. quote: - 1. SATISFACTION THEORY: - Strictly vicarious and exactly equivalent to man's guilt.
- 2. GOVERNMENTAL THEORY: - The Atonement was necessary to solve the problems of God as a Moral Governor, who lovingly desires to reconcile mankind.
- 3. MORAL INFLUENCE THEORY: - A manifestation of suffering Divine love was necessary to subdue man's rebellion so reconciliation could take place.
- 4. ETHICAL EXAMPLE THEORY: - Sinful man has been misguided and needed a noble virtuous example to challenge him to a new way of living.
- THE NATURE AND EXTENT OF THE ATONEMENT
Case 1: -The Atonement was a literal or an exact payment for sin. -All are not being saved through it. -Therefore, It could not have been made for all.
Case 2: -The Atonement was a literal or an exact payment for sin. -It was made for all. -Therefore, all will be saved through it.
Case 3: -The Atonement was made for all: Is. 53:6; Lk. 2:10-11; Jn. 1:29; 3:16-17; 6:51; II Co. 5:14-15; I Tim. 2.3-6; Tit. 2:11; He. 2:9; I Jn. 2:2; also Is. 1:18; 45:22; 55:1; Eze. 18:30-32; Mt. 23:37; Mk. 16:15-16; Ro. 2:11; Re. 3:20.
Only a minority are being saved through it: Ge. 6:5-8; Is. 53:1; Mt. 21:10; Lk. 13:23-24; 23:21; Jn. 5:40; 6:60, 67; 7:7; 16:33; Acts 8:1; 14:22; I Co. 4:13.
Therefore, it was not a literal or an exact payment for sin.
These are pretty much what TIME MAG. had.
They still do not cover what the Orthodox, the West before the divide and the East continuing on today say.
#2, Moral Government appears to try and address that: quote: A. The sufferings of Christ were necessary to the Divine government, rather than to the Divine nature: Gregory of Nazianzus (330-390). "Is it not plain that the Father received the ransom, not because He Himself required or needed it, but for the sake of the Divine government of the universe, and because man must be sanctified through the incarnation of the Son of God?" He strongly opposed the idea of a ransom paid to Satan, and could not understand why a ransom should be paid to the Father. He could only fall back on the "economy" of God and put forth no theory of satisfaction. Other early writers, like Athanasius, also mentioned God's governmental problems.
But it does not appear to understand what it at the core of Gregory's theology -- it tries to push into a box what does not seem to want to fit there. And it does not present the core of Gregory's teaching. | | Back to Top | | |
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