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Violin for God
Luke, I am your father. --Nooooooooo!!!!!




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   Posted 9/8/2005 2:18 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

ThatDarnCat said...

4.  God chooses to act in a way that is beneficial to others.  Observing the pattern of these actions, which include a target, a concept is abstracted and called "good".

Hi TDC, I agree that God chooses to act that brings/draws others toward goodness that by the nature of the word is “beneficial” to them.  This mirrors Romans 8:28.  But then to fully understand that, first we should understand what is “goodness”.  I’m not clear on your definition here.  If God is moving us beneficially toward a target that’s called good, we should figure out what that target is, of what it consists, define it so that we can understand the relationship of God and goodness.  Did he decide what that target is, was the target there sans his decision of that being the target, or is the target Himself?  (But now, we are back to the first three options I listed.  And for the record, it’s assuming there is some kind of relationship between God and good, whether they’re separable or inseparable.)

 

ThatDarnCat said...

In lieu of God ever having created anything, it would be incorrect, imho, to call God "creator". 

In lieu of God ever having done anything beneficial to any other being, it would be incorrect, imho, to call God "good".  In lieu of any targets, "good" is meaningless.  "Good" as an attribute is meaningless sans any process of bringing benefit to others.

It seems here you’re equating “good” to being a good action.  Without the act, there really is no good?  If there is no objective good, something we can define, then how could we say the act itself is good or not good?  With your third sentence, what is that "target" (same as the question above)?

 

If I have a chance, I’ll get to the other stuff later unless someone else gets to it first.


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ThatDarnCat
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   Posted 9/8/2005 3:25 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Violin for God said...

ThatDarnCat said...

4.  God chooses to act in a way that is beneficial to others.  Observing the pattern of these actions, which include a target, a concept is abstracted and called "good".

Hi TDC, I agree that God chooses to act that brings/draws others toward goodness that by the nature of the word is “beneficial” to them.  This mirrors Romans 8:28.  But then to fully understand that, first we should understand what is “goodness”.  I’m not clear on your definition here.  If God is moving us beneficially toward a target that’s called good, we should figure out what that target is, of what it consists, define it so that we can understand the relationship of God and goodness.  Did he decide what that target is, was the target there sans his decision of that being the target, or is the target Himself?  (But now, we are back to the first three options I listed.  And for the record, it’s assuming there is some kind of relationship between God and good, whether they’re separable or inseparable.)

 

ThatDarnCat said...

In lieu of God ever having created anything, it would be incorrect, imho, to call God "creator". 

In lieu of God ever having done anything beneficial to any other being, it would be incorrect, imho, to call God "good".  In lieu of any targets, "good" is meaningless.  "Good" as an attribute is meaningless sans any process of bringing benefit to others.

It seems here you’re equating “good” to being a good action.  Without the act, there really is no good?  If there is no objective good, something we can define, then how could we say the act itself is good or not good?  With your third sentence, what is that "target" (same as the question above)?

 

If I have a chance, I’ll get to the other stuff later unless someone else gets to it first.

By "target", I meant the beings that benefit from His action.  "Good", to me, is meaningless outside of a beneficiary of that action.  Eve saw the fruit that it was "good" and then scripture lists three reasons it was good, all being beneficial to her.  God created and then said it was "good".  I imagine it was "good" to humans and to animals and even those poor, helpless plants that VEGETARIANS routinely kill in order to eat.  icon_brows2 
 
Let's take creating.  If there's a "possible" world where God doesn't create anything, is He a "creator" in that world?
 
If He does no actions that benefit anyone else, in fact if He does no actions, is He "good" in that world?
Is He "active" in that world?
 
When scripture compares, "Be holy as your heavenly father is holy" and contrasts,  "while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us", why would we think the author is comparing and contrasting unsimilar concepts? 
 
apples and mikans?
necessary and contingent? 
automatic and chosen?
 
 


 

Post Edited (ThatDarnCat) : 9/8/2005 3:37:48 PM (GMT-5)

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Violin for God
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   Posted 9/8/2005 11:35 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
ThatDarnCat said...

4.  God chooses to act in a way that is beneficial to others.  Observing the pattern of these actions, which include a target, a concept is abstracted and called "good".

 

<snip>

 

By "target", I meant the beings that benefit from His action. 

Then I must admit, I’m having a difficult time understanding your definition.  If “target” means “the beings” (which I assume to mean“people” ??? ), then your definition doesn’t make sense to me.  Are you saying basically “Based on observation of our actions and what benefits us (i.e., directs us toward a better state of being), God abstracts the concept of good from that”?  Before I continue, I just want to make sure I have your definition correct.  Please let me know.

"Good", to me, is meaningless outside of a beneficiary of that action. Eve saw the fruit that it was "good" and then scripture lists three reasons it was good, all being beneficial to her. God created and then said it was "good". I imagine it was "good" to humans and to animals and even those poor, helpless plants that VEGETARIANS routinely kill in order to eat. 
If God created and then said it was good, then there must have been some kind of definition of what good is.  You give examples, but no definition besides something that is beneficial.  But if it is something that benefits, then  benefits towards what?  When we say something is beneficial, that implies a progression toward something, some goal that is deemed “good”, right?  It seems you still haven’t defined this goal.
 
Let's take creating.  If there's a "possible" world where God doesn't create anything, is He a "creator" in that world?

I agree, God would not be an “actual creator” in that world, but He’d still be a “potential creator”.  An actual creator is “one who creates or has created” whereas a potential creator is “one who can create”.

If He does no actions that benefit anyone else, in fact if He does no actions, is He "good" in that world?

Is He "active" in that world?

I still don’t see why “good” requires an action.  Why does God have to do something for us in order to be good?  Why can’t “good” be defined by God’s character?  (Then, “good” actions are those actions that mirror or are an image of God’s character.)  Then, perhaps we could say that a beneficial action is an action that draws us closer to God Himself.  He’s the ultimate “bene” (that is, ultimate “good”).

 

When scripture compares, "Be holy as your heavenly father is holy" and contrasts,  "while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us", why would we think the author is comparing and contrasting unsimilar concepts? 

For the first verse, it seems you’re interpreting it to be “strive to be holy as your heavenly father strives to be holy”, but let’s look at the verse in more detail.

1 Peter 1:16 in the NASB says “YOU SHALL BE HOLY, FOR I AM HOLY.” The “shall be” is progressive, not holy yet.  The “I am” is an already-present state of being.  In this passage, Peter is quoting Leviticus 11:44, 19:6, and (somewhat) 20:7.  In all three verses, God is commanding them to do something to consecrate themselves to Him, but in referring to Himself in the same verses, He keeps saying “I am holy”, “I am the LORD your God.  This signifies a current state of existence, not a progression.  So I wouldn’t see God comparing Himself to those He is addressing, but contrasting.

 

For the second verse, Christ’s dying for us didn’t make Him more good or more holy than He already was, did it?

 


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Violin for God
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   Posted 9/9/2005 12:52 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Hey Ross,

 

the original question you posed is quite a good one.  I’ve thought about that for a while.  What if this were some cosmic joke?  What if in the end, God throws out the books anyway?  doesn’t hold to His promises, actually can and does lie (this is hard for me to write, ugh!), and really, there is no objective good… everything really is just based on His whims.  What if God really is the ultimate post modernist? 

 

(As you may have seen in my previous posts, I only see three options in relation to God and goodness.  The one where God lives up to an external objective standard to me seems not possible because that would require something outside of God & necessary to define that standard.)

 

Well, here’s where my thoughts have arrived thus far… just thought about this yesterday.  I’d say we’re left to a wager then.  Either, (a.) God is essentially “good” as we understand it, or (b.) there is no such thing as “good”, only arbitrary decisions.  Which is the better choice to place our bets?    

 

Bet on (b).

(i)                   (b) is correct. Then God is neither good nor evil. Nothing we do matters.

(ii)                 (b) is false and (a) is correct. Then God is essentially good, but for denying that we risk hell.

 

Bet on (a):

(i)                   (a) is correct. God is essentially good. If we trust in his goodness we can be saved.

(ii)                 (a) is false and (b) is correct. God is neither good nor evil. Nothing we do matters.

 

Thus, either way, if (b) is correct, then nothing matters.

If (a) is correct, then our eternity hangs in the balance.

 

So, sure, we don’t know with absolute certainty, and we could be wrong, but it seems more rational to go with option (a) than the other one.

 

(Yes, Alan helped me write out the bottom part because the way I originally wrote it wasn’t so clear.  He’s kinda good at that!) smilewinkgrin


 If you're going to be skeptical, be fair and be skeptical of skepticism.

Post Edited (Violin for God) : 9/9/2005 12:58:49 AM (GMT-5)

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ThatDarnCat
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   Posted 9/9/2005 6:56 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Violin for God said...
ThatDarnCat said...

4.  God chooses to act in a way that is beneficial to others.  Observing the pattern of these actions, which include a target, a concept is abstracted and called "good".

 

<snip>

 

By "target", I meant the beings that benefit from His action. 

Then I must admit, I’m having a difficult time understanding your definition.  If “target” means “the beings” (which I assume to mean“people” ??? ), then your definition doesn’t make sense to me.  Are you saying basically “Based on observation of our actions and what benefits us (i.e., directs us toward a better state of being), God abstracts the concept of good from that”?  Before I continue, I just want to make sure I have your definition correct.  Please let me know.

An action done that benefits others, that action is good.  A rock that is the lintel of a doorway in a old castle is good (beneficial action).  A rock sitting by the Loch is neither good nor bad.  It's just a rock.
Same thing with "sin".  An action done that harms oneself or others is "sin".  "Sin" isn't a genetic defect that babies inherit.  See?  Action not object/property.
But we also speak of "good" and "sin" as abstract 'objects'.  That's because WE abstract a concept from observing similar actions.   God talks about "good" and "sin", is He talking about abstract properties or is He borrowing the abstract concepts we've come up with? 

Violin for God said...
 
Let's take creating.  If there's a "possible" world where God doesn't create anything, is He a "creator" in that world?

I agree, God would not be an “actual creator” in that world, but He’d still be a “potential creator”.  An actual creator is “one who creates or has created” whereas a potential creator is “one who can create”.

Yes, and God has potential to do beneficials actions for others.  But often doesn't.  Looks like He has some volitional control over His beneficial actions.
Violin for God said...
 

If He does no actions that benefit anyone else, in fact if He does no actions, is He "good" in that world?

Is He "active" in that world?

I still don’t see why “good” requires an action.  Why does God have to do something for us in order to be good?  Why can’t “good” be defined by God’s character?  (Then, “good” actions are those actions that mirror or are an image of God’s character.)  Then, perhaps we could say that a beneficial action is an action that draws us closer to God Himself.  He’s the ultimate “bene” (that is, ultimate “good”).

I'm consistent.  I've always argued that no one is a sinner until they commit an action of "sin".  Same with "good".
No one is born "sinful" and no one is born "good".  If they develop a character to "sin" or a character to do "good" it's because they've made choices to "sin" or choices to do "good" over time.  Then they can be called "sinner" or "good" based upon the nature they've developed due to their choices over time.
Violin for God said...
 

When scripture compares, "Be holy as your heavenly father is holy" and contrasts,  "while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us", why would we think the author is comparing and contrasting unsimilar concepts? 

For the first verse, it seems you’re interpreting it to be “strive to be holy as your heavenly father strives to be holy”, but let’s look at the verse in more detail.

1 Peter 1:16 in the NASB says “YOU SHALL BE HOLY, FOR I AM HOLY.” The “shall be” is progressive, not holy yet.  The “I am” is an already-present state of being.  In this passage, Peter is quoting Leviticus 11:44, 19:6, and (somewhat) 20:7.  In all three verses, God is commanding them to do something to consecrate themselves to Him, but in referring to Himself in the same verses, He keeps saying “I am holy”, “I am the LORD your God.  This signifies a current state of existence, not a progression.  So I wouldn’t see God comparing Himself to those He is addressing, but contrasting.

 

For the second verse, Christ’s dying for us didn’t make Him more good or more holy than He already was, did it?

Can we strive ourselves into necessary holiness?
 
And if we can strive into necessary holiness, isn't that qualitatively better than God's accidental necessary holiness?
 
I think we can qualify good and holy but not quantify it.  Whatever that means.
 


 

Post Edited (ThatDarnCat) : 9/9/2005 11:41:37 AM (GMT-5)

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rossfadeinout
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   Posted 9/9/2005 12:11 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Dang it, every time I am gone from the board for a day or so I feel like the discussion gets ahead of me… There is so much to discuss!

 

John, I think that your responses to my questions have been very enlightening! I would like to work through the Finney Systematic Theology, but he uses so many words to make a simple point icon_brows2 I can definitely see that you have put some study into this issue, and I think that your understanding of the objectivity of the good is much more cogent than I initially thought.

 

In fact, I think that you are basically saying the same thing that I have held to, even though I call it “essential goodness” and you do not. From your last major post, you seem to be indicating that it is morally impossible for God to sin. Here are the specific quotes I have in mind

 

John: …which in the case of God, (his moral resolution)  maintains in perpetuity, due to His perfect knowledge and sensibilities concerning the nature of reality and relationships.  

 

…the moral law of God emanates from God's perfectly developed REASON. It would be the most illogical thing imaginable for God to sin--it would go against everything He knows to be right, good, holy, and BEST.  

 

Can I conclude from these statements that it is morally impossible for God to sin?

 

When it comes to the actions of personal agents, I don’t really see the need to make a distinction between moral possibility and logical possibility. This is especially the case with God, assuming that he is a personal agent (which is an assumption that all sides in this debate assume) If a decision (volition) is morally impossible for God, then it follows that the decision is also logically impossible. I’m here defining impossible simply as “not capable of existing or happening.”

 

In your response to VFG, you indicate that God does not strive to reach the level of goodness. You say that God, “based on his perfect knowledge of the inherent reality of relationships between moral beings,…acts on a basic principle that conforms in every way to that standard which said knowledge requires--the law of love (moral law).”

 

You seem to be saying here that, given God’s perfect knowledge, His good actions are made according to what his knowledge requires. Again here I can’t see any way that God could choose against what he knows essentially. The definition of essential I’m using here is “constituting or part of the nature of something; inherent.”

 

So, if it is morally impossible for God to do evil because of His perfect knowledge, and His perfect knowledge is an essential part of who He is, then in some way He is essentially good.

 

Maybe we’re not as far apart as we all think….

 

Tom, let me make one brief comment. You said

 

Tom: Right. Let me know when you've done it! Just kiddin. It doesn't seem to follow that if it's the case that "whatever God wills is good" that God can "will anything" and therefore his goodness and character are arbitrary and unpredictable. I'm thinking that what we call "good" happens to be the word we give to "how God wills and acts." So God's does define the standard, but the standard isn't arbitrary because God isn't.

 

Here is what I’m getting at… The statement “what we call "good" happens to be the word we give to "how God wills and acts." seems possibly arbitrary to me. If we found out that God acted in a way that he was the ultimate practical joker (or more bluntly an all powerful sadist), then could we call how God wills “good”?

 

Sahid, man you are really attached to that skepticism thing, aren’t you? You acknowledge that our only hope is that God is good, and I agree. What I’m trying to get at is the how we know that it is at least much more probable that God is good than that he is not. Is it just a 50/50 choice for you?

 

VFG, in response to your last post about a wager on God’s goodness, I think that there has to be something more than mere weighing of outcomes to push the scales to trusting God. Even if I know the payoffs that you have listed (if God is trustworthy we have heaven to gain, if not all is meaningless), I couldn’t trust God if I thought that it was a 50/50 chance. I think that there has to be some reason why we think that that “God is the ultimate jokester/postmodernist/ all powerful sadist” is, if not impossible, at least much more unlikely than God’s essential goodness.

 

I want to get to the why God acts the way he does. And as I’m thinking about it, I think that the discussion has to turn to the area of psychology or motivation. If God is a personal being (which He has to be in some sense if he chose to create), then he must have some motive for what he chooses.

 

So how do we ground that motive? ** What follows is just off the cuff. I definitely want to refine this more***

 

John (following Finney) wants to ground it in the nature of existence. And here is where I think that we can reach a convergence between my initial position (essential goodness) and John’s. For God, prior to creation, is the totality of being. So for the moral law to be in the “nature of existence” would be the same as “the moral law is in God.” God, as a personal being, affirms his own being. God likes being God. He lacks nothing without creation, because He is God. So the only motive for Him to create would be to reflect Himself. So here we have a crude argument for man’s creation in the divine image without appealing to scripture. If God creates man in his own image, he would have no motive to deny man the goal for which he was created, namely to reflect the being of God and to be in relationship with Him. So God would have no motive to be the divine sadist of my initial hypothetical situation.

 

It’s a little rough, but I think that it could be fleshed out in a way that we can at least affirm that God would have no real motivation to be the all powerful jokester if He is a personal being.

 

I'd really like to hear back on all this (especially John's take on me understanding him as a closet proponent of "Divine essential goodness")

 

smilewinkgrin 

 

Ross 


"Let us remember how common the folly is of going from one faulty extreme into the opposite." -Thomas Reid

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JEE
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   Posted 9/9/2005 1:45 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Ross,

I appreciate your fair-minded consideration of this issue. Just quickly, a couple of things I should add:

1. about the logical vs. moral distinction: As you may note if you read Finney's lecture on Moral Government (Which Finney said was THE most crucial of all his ST lectures), the distinction of morality as something NOT governed by cause and effect is absolutely fundamental to a proper avoidance of sheer determinism. I echo that sentiment. If what is called morality is governed by the same laws as the physical universe, then absolute determinism/Calvinism can be the only possible result. Hence, the categorical distinction between what is morally possible and what is simply logically possible. Was the example I gave not helpful to your understanding? Do you not have the LOGICAL ability to, for instance, commit murder this very instant, though you lack the moral possibility to do so?

2. about your thinking that I am somehow a "closet proponent" of the divine essential goodness concept, I will simply say that in the Moral Gov't paradigm that I find most convincing, "essence/nature" and "good/evil" are two distinct categories, and should never be confused, or else, again, determinism/Calvinism necessarily ensues. For instance, I (along with Finney and Moral Gov't theology and Eastern Orthodoxy) deny altogether the Augustinian notion of Original Sin/Sinful Nature/Born Sinful, as that concept absolutely confounds the moral realm with the physical realm and makes "morality" nothing more than cause and effect.

3. I think you have hit the nail on the head by bringing up psychology/motives. That aspect is certainly included in what I have already said, but perhaps I need to underscore it: God's ultimate motive or guiding principle, in everything that He does, is the highest good of all (disinterested benevolence or unselfish goodwill). From my view, God's actions are INFORMED by his knowledge, and what He knows to be right, good, and best for all is a thing of pure and simple REASON on His part, but that knowledge and that reason alone are insufficient to MOTIVATE Him to act--His MOTIVATION in all things is to promote the highest good of all. He of course KNOWS this is the wisest course of action to take based on his perfect knowledge of the universe He alone created, but without God's motive being in accordance with that knowledge and that objective standard of love (the highest good), the entire project of creation would have long ago simply been annihilated.

I will concede, however, that to say that the moral law is somehow "objective" to God even though it emerges from his REASON is really not a satisfying way to express this to my mind. It is certainly something He knows INTUITIVELY, in my view, and so it is not really correct to say that what is intuitive is objective (as in separate from and external to oneself). I'm trying to find a way to say that it's BOTH objective and subjective/personally intuitively derived at the same time.

Hope this helps,

John


May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.

JohnE

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Violin for God
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   Posted 9/9/2005 3:48 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
rossfadeinout said...

VFG, in response to your last post about a wager on God’s goodness, I think that there has to be something more than mere weighing of outcomes to push the scales to trusting God. Even if I know the payoffs that you have listed (if God is trustworthy we have heaven to gain, if not all is meaningless), I couldn’t trust God if I thought that it was a 50/50 chance. I think that there has to be some reason why we think that that “God is the ultimate jokester/postmodernist/ all powerful sadist” is, if not impossible, at least much more unlikely than God’s essential goodness.

Ross, it’s funny because I was actually thinking about this last night (perhaps that’s the reason I had difficulty sleeping last night…redface )  I wondered if it may appear like a 50/50 toss up from the ole Las Vegas folk (eg, us).  Here’s the way I basically think about theological stuff… I try to understand what options are out there and weed out the ones that make the least sense, given what information I have available. 

 

If we were to go with option (b), i.e. God being a postmodernist, that option would totally make no sense given the world we live in, our intuitions, daily miracles and experiences in encountering God, our drive/desire to make sense of the world, etc. 

 

Everything we know can only point to option (a): that God is essentially good, that He is trustworthy, that He really did give us the faculties to know Him more.  Intuitively, we search for purpose in life, to make sense of the world around us, and we interact with that world.  Everything that God provided in this world and to us individually points to option (a). 

 

It does come to a point where after all the thinking, pondering, mulling over the options, we have to put our trust in the option that makes the most sense, just like as Mark (I think?) put it on another thread of when it comes to jumping out of the airplane and trusting the parachute (until new and reliable information comes around, then perhaps we’d re-evaluate).  So instead of it being a 50/50 toss up, if I have to put down the “odds” as it were, given everything we know and have available to us to consider, I’d say it’s more of a 99.5/0.5.  Given what we know, option (b) seems pretty darn irrational. 

 

Perhaps I used the wrong words (that is, “wager” and “bet”), but hopefully this make more sense.  confused  


 If you're going to be skeptical, be fair and be skeptical of skepticism.

Post Edited (Violin for God) : 9/9/2005 3:51:16 PM (GMT-5)

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Truth Aficionado
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   Posted 9/9/2005 3:58 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
JEE said...
I'm trying to find a way to say that it's BOTH objective and subjective/personally intuitively derived at the same time. 

Good luck JohnE,

I tried to it too define God’s subjective goodness, Alan slit my throat and left me out to dry.  drowning

 

Water necessarily flows down hill because it is governed by the law of gravity that God imposed.  God is necessarily good because he is governed by the moral law he self- imposed.

 

I'll be rooting for ya’ pale,

 

Mark


Contradictions if well understood and managed can spark off the fires of invention. Orthodoxy whether of the right or of the left is the graveyard of creativity.

Post Edited (sparknheart) : 9/9/2005 4:19:02 PM (GMT-5)

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rossfadeinout
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   Posted 9/9/2005 4:24 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

 John, this is really good stuff!

 

In response to your #1, I appreciate and concur with the thinking that physical necessity controls the moral realm. This is why I said that "When it comes to the actions of personal agents, I don’t really see the need to make a distinction between moral possibility and logical possibility. This is especially the case with God, assuming that he is a personal agent (which is an assumption that all sides in this debate assume)." I take it to be a given, at least for all that are in this discussion, that in the realm of personal decisions, actions aren't necessitated in the same way that physical events are.

 

John: Was the example I gave not helpful to your understanding? Do you not have the LOGICAL ability to, for instance, commit murder this very instant, though you lack the moral possibility to do so?

 

In this case, the choice is essentially a moral one. If I lack the moral possibility to commit murder, then I also lack the physical possibility. The reason for this is that what we mean by murder is something like “the willful taking of an innocent life.” Now I may be physically constrained to pull the trigger of a gun which kills someone, but this would not be murder.

 

In response to #2, why does Calvinism necessarily ensue from applying the category of "essense/nature" to the issue of moral action? I too deny the idea of a "sin nature" if that means that a person has no choice but to sin. But I don't deny that I have, in some sense, a "human nature". What I mean by this is that as a personal being there are some givens. For instance, I cannot act without at least some end in mind for my action. My actions, as personal, cannot be completely unmotivated. Now I believe that I have rational control over my motivations as you do, but in this sense there is some essential aspect of being a personal agent.

 

In response to #3, I think that we are on the same page here. I do not think that God's knowledge of what is good (his "affirmation of being" to use my terminology) and His faculty of reason are sufficient conditions for his actions. But I do think that they are necessary conditions.** That is, God cannot make a decision without his knowledge of reality, his reason, and a motive state. But these three are not sufficient to produce the choice. God must also choose (perform an act of will, or whatever you want to call it).

 

So when I say that God is necessarily good, this is the sense in which I mean it (the necessary/sufficient distinction). God most definitely has free will, but his choices at least (1) have to be appealing to Him, and (2) based on his knowledge be reasonable as well. Therefore, God is free to do many good things--create a world OR enjoy the fellowship of the trinity without creation; bless you with the talent of being musical OR athletic ability. But he is not able to do evil because it would be (1) unappealing based on (2) his exercise of reason.

 

Ross

 
** http://www.sfu.ca/philosophy/swartz/conditions1.htm


"Let us remember how common the folly is of going from one faulty extreme into the opposite." -Thomas Reid

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JEE
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   Posted 9/9/2005 4:32 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
sparknheart said...
JEE said...
I'm trying to find a way to say that it's BOTH objective and subjective/personally intuitively derived at the same time. 

Good luck JohnE,

I tried to it too define God’s subjective goodness, Alan slit my throat and left me out to dry.  drowning

 

Water necessarily flows down hill because it is governed by the law of gravity that God imposed.  God is necessarily good because he is governed by the moral law he self- imposed.

Hi Mark,
 
You see, this is PRECISELY the problem I was trying to point out to Ross--we simply cannot take cause-and-effect and use it to explain the moral/spiritual realm. If we do, we are led right straight back into Calvinism/determinism. (If everything in the MORAL realm is governed by cause and effect, then it IS mechanistic, inevitable, involuntary).
 
John


May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.

JohnE

http://www.revivaltheology.net

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JEE
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   Posted 9/9/2005 4:44 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
John, this is really good stuff!

 

In response to your #1, I appreciate and concur with the thinking that physical necessity controls the moral realm. This is why I said that "When it comes to the actions of personal agents, I don’t really see the need to make a distinction between moral possibility and logical possibility. This is especially the case with God, assuming that he is a personal agent (which is an assumption that all sides in this debate assume)." I take it to be a given, at least for all that are in this discussion, that in the realm of personal decisions, actions aren't necessitated in the same way that physical events are.

 

John: Was the example I gave not helpful to your understanding? Do you not have the LOGICAL ability to, for instance, commit murder this very instant, though you lack the moral possibility to do so?

 

In this case, the choice is essentially a moral one. If I lack the moral possibility to commit murder, then I also lack the physical possibility. The reason for this is that what we mean by murder is something like “the willful taking of an innocent life.” Now I may be physically constrained to pull the trigger of a gun which kills someone, but this would not be murder.

 

I'm apparently not making myself clear on this point, Ross. Sorry. What I meant was that it was physically possible for you to commit murder (you have the sheer ABILITY), though so long as you lack the motivation to do so, you will not in fact do so.

 

In response to #2, why does Calvinism necessarily ensue from applying the category of "essense/nature" to the issue of moral action?

 

Because, to me this makes God into a "holy machine/robot" Who, though for him holiness is automatic (by virtue of his Godhood), for us, being human NECESSITATES that we be sinners and can't possibly EVER fulfill the divine command, "be ye holy for I am holy," unless and until God changes our nature after the death of our physical bodies. The whole gnostic thing of matter=evil, ya know?

 

I too deny the idea of a "sin nature" if that means that a person has no choice but to sin. But I don't deny that I have, in some sense, a "human nature". What I mean by this is that as a personal being there are some givens. For instance, I cannot act without at least some end in mind for my action. My actions, as personal, cannot be completely unmotivated. Now I believe that I have rational control over my motivations as you do, but in this sense there is some essential aspect of being a personal agent.

 

I'm pretty sure we agree on that last paragraph, Ross.
 
Not sure how much I'll be able to participate in the discussion this weekend.
 
May the Lord (choose to) bless you and keep you,  icon_smile_tongue
 
John
 


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JohnE

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JEE
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   Posted 9/9/2005 4:49 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
If God's character is in fact involuntary, it does not follow how this would make Him more trustworthy. How would you know if He weren't just programmed to fool you into thinking he's trustworthy?

Bottom line to me right now: On the view of God's goodness as perpetually chosen by Him, He's trustworthy on an even firmer basis than the supposedly firm basis of the opposite view, for if His goodness has been constantly and forever voluntary, He's far more trustworthy than anyone else we can even imagine.

Machines and computers go haywire involuntarily.


May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.

JohnE

http://www.revivaltheology.net

Post Edited (JEE) : 9/9/2005 11:57:05 PM (GMT-5)

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JEE
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   Posted 9/9/2005 5:09 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
I'm not a Greek scholar, but the following translations simply say "be holy," with no "shall" indicated, though the NLT substitutes "must" for "shall." which would clearly imply a much more imperative (present requirement) meaning to "shall," as in "Thou SHALT not..." instead of a future-tense meaning, as in "You will be holy some day..."
 
 
13 Therefore gird up the loins of your mind, be sober, and rest your hope fully upon the grace that is to be brought to you at the revelation of Jesus Christ; 14 as obedient children, not conforming yourselves to the former lusts, as in your ignorance; 15 but as He who called you is holy, you also be holy in all your conduct, 16 because it is written, “Be holy, for I am holy.” NKJV
 
13Therefore, prepare your minds for action; be self-controlled; set your hope fully on the grace to be given you when Jesus Christ is revealed. 14As obedient children, do not conform to the evil desires you had when you lived in ignorance. 15But just as he who called you is holy, so be holy in all you do; 16for it is written: "Be holy, because I am holy." NIV
 
13So think clearly and exercise self-control. Look forward to the special blessings that will come to you at the return of Jesus Christ. 14Obey God because you are his children. Don't slip back into your old ways of doing evil; you didn't know any better then. 15But now you must be holy in everything you do, just as God--who chose you to be his children--is holy. 16For he himself has said, "You must be holy because I am holy." NLT
 
13Wherefore having girded up the loins of your mind, being sober, hope perfectly upon the grace that is being brought to you in the revelation of Jesus Christ, 14as obedient children, not fashioning yourselves to the former desires in your ignorance, 15but according as He who did call you [is] holy, ye also, become holy in all behaviour, 16because it hath been written, `Become ye holy, because I am holy;  YLT

1:13 Therefore, get your minds ready for action by being fully sober, and set your hope completely on the grace that will be brought to you when Jesus Christ is revealed. 1:14 Like obedient children, do not comply with the evil urges you used to follow in your ignorance, 1:15 but, like the Holy One who called you, become holy yourselves in all of your conduct, 1:16 for it is written, "You shall be holy, because I am holy." New English Translation

 

Matt. 5:48 So then, be perfect, as your heavenly Father is perfect.

 

 


May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.

JohnE

http://www.revivaltheology.net

Post Edited (JEE) : 9/9/2005 11:56:10 PM (GMT-5)

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Violin for God
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   Posted 9/10/2005 2:00 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
ThatDarnCat said...
Violin for God said...
ThatDarnCat said...

4.  God chooses to act in a way that is beneficial to others.  Observing the pattern of these actions, which include a target, a concept is abstracted and called "good".

 

<snip>

 

By "target", I meant the beings that benefit from His action. 

Then I must admit, I’m having a difficult time understanding your definition.  If “target” means “the beings” (which I assume to mean“people” ??? ), then your definition doesn’t make sense to me.  Are you saying basically “Based on observation of our actions and what benefits us (i.e., directs us toward a better state of being), God abstracts the concept of good from that”?  Before I continue, I just want to make sure I have your definition correct.  Please let me know.

An action done that benefits others, that action is good.  A rock that is the lintel of a doorway in a old castle is good (beneficial action).  A rock sitting by the Loch is neither good nor bad.  It's just a rock.
 
God's not a rock.  I don't think His goodness depends on where He's placed or whether He performs an action.  I don't see how this example relates to Him.  It's almost like saying, God has to be used in a way that benefits us in order for Him to be "good".
 
The "target" that God is bringing us toward is "an action done that benefits others, that action is good"?  I apologize, I'm a bit tired and I really am trying to understand your definition of the "target" and you're probably throwing your hands up in the air in frustration.  The definition just is very vague to me.  It may be that I just won't be able to understand what you're trying to say at this point.  Perhaps I'll understand later.
 
Same thing with "sin".  An action done that harms oneself or others is "sin".  "Sin" isn't a genetic defect that babies inherit.  See?  Action not object/property.
But we also speak of "good" and "sin" as abstract 'objects'.  That's because WE abstract a concept from observing similar actions.   God talks about "good" and "sin", is He talking about abstract properties or is He borrowing the abstract concepts we've come up with? 
 
How do you know if an action is sinful or not?
Also: is God good only through His actions?  You also didn't answer my question:  "Christ’s dying for us didn’t make Him more good or more holy than He already was, did it?"  Did Christ's dying for us make Him more good or more holy than He was before going to the cross?
Can we strive ourselves into necessary holiness?
 
And if we can strive into necessary holiness, isn't that qualitatively better than God's accidental necessary holiness?
 
I think we can qualify good and holy but not quantify it.  Whatever that means.
 
No and no.  Nothing we do can make up the deficit.  Only Christ through His sacrifice does.  And we're, of course, saved by grace through faith. 


 If you're going to be skeptical, be fair and be skeptical of skepticism.

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   Posted 9/10/2005 2:21 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Hey John,
 
The version I used was from the NASB. Thanks for your input too. I finally had access to my computer that has the transliteration of the Greek and Hebrew. In the Greek, it says "Dioti [because] gegraptai [it was written] Hagioi [holy] esethe [be you(all)] oti [for/because] egoo hagios [holy] eimi [am]". The "esethe" is in the future tense indicative which uses the "middle voice". According to this software program, the middle voice is basically where "the subject is to act in relation to him/herself". The "eimi" is in present tense indicative. So, yeah, I don't think it's saying "you will be holy some day"... perhaps I should not have tried to explain it using the word "yet"... I just meant it's showing that God is currently holy and we're not. We're just supposed to try to live in a holy manner.

I can't get rid of the italics... oh well.


 If you're going to be skeptical, be fair and be skeptical of skepticism.

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One Love
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   Posted 9/11/2005 5:45 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
JEE:
Bottom line to me right now: On the view of God's goodness as perpetually chosen by Him, He's trustworthy on an even firmer basis than the supposedly firm basis of the opposite view, for if His goodness has been constantly and forever voluntary, He's far more trustworthy than anyone else we can even imagine.

and...

we simply cannot take cause-and-effect and use it to explain the moral/spiritual realm. If we do, we are led right straight back into Calvinism/determinism. (If everything in the MORAL realm is governed by cause and effect, then it IS mechanistic, inevitable, involuntary).

Hmmm...

Seems like the same old point that was reached a long time ago with this same discussion. One side could NOT get with the idea of God's goodness being necessary because they felt that, on some level, it validated determinism as a conceptual motif, and to give an inch to that would be, in their eyes, given a mile.

What I STILL don't see as being understood is that if one claims this position, they have no real metaphysical grounds by which to EXPLAIN this phenomena? Not consistent, anyway. To see this, all you have to do is ask the question:

Does God make voluntary choices according to God's desires that are circumscribed by God's perfect moral character?

If they say yes, then ask the next logical question:

HOW did God get his perfect moral character?

Then watch the blank stares. The person who MOST CONSISTENTLY tried to affirm this position of choice was Iconoclast back in the day. He attempted to use some mathematical concept analogically to defend the idea of "eternal choice" wherein God's character was ETERNALLY a product of God's own choosing. Even though many people (including Doc) tried to argue against this idea as an infinite regress, he held on to the position. But then I brought up something important: the neglect of the idea of the Trinity! If God is NECESSARILY a triune being...and triunity is, in part, based in God's necessary sociality with Godself, then God's loving sociality between divine persons is a NECESSARY characteristic of God. God is not a monad. The only way to argue against this would be to say that it was logically possible for the Father to NOT love the Son, the Son NOT to love the Father, etc. But given the idea of divine trinitarian sociality being necessary, it wouldn't even by a logically possibility at all!

THIS is the point I think voluntarists keep missing:

To consistently affirm God as "choosing" to love, one absolutely MUST deny that God's triune nature is a necessary characteristic of God.

And to do this is, imo, highly problematic.

How do YOU address this, JEE?


To all heresy-hunters and general lames...
 
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Respect game, and keep my name outcha mouth!"
       --adapted from T.I. From P$C's "I'm a King"
 

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One Love
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   Posted 9/11/2005 5:56 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
My thoughts:

God's loving character comes from the constant actualization of God's NECESSARY, UNCHANGABLE loving disposition withint God's essential existence.

Their is an "objective" good in that, in the mind of God before creation, to which God's loving disposition was related. This objective good would be the "ideal" state of affair at any point in time that would constitute God's "divine aim" for all things at that point.

(Note 1: See the heavy influence of process theological categories here)

(Note 2: We have to remember. If we are affirming God's omniscience, then we have to say that, before Creation, God had indeed conceptualized the IDEA of evil. This is not to say he had affinity with evil at all. It is to say that the possibility of evil in creation was an ETERNAL reality...and the omniscient God would know it as such)

So, God chooses to work towards what IS "good" (read: the point of optimizating beauty and love from actualization of the eternal possible realities in God's mind) because God's disposition, as exemplified in God's trinitarian relationship with Godself, is necessarily and unchangably oriented towards doing so.


Now see how simple that was? biggrin

devil


To all heresy-hunters and general lames...
 
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JEE
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   Posted 9/11/2005 10:54 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Hi Meph,

I honestly don't see why you think my view creates a problem for trinitarianism. I have answered this question you pose previously. It also isn't clear to me how the issue you raise isn't really a problem for all versions of trinitarianism. As to the same old question you keep raising RE: How did God get his moral character, like I've said before, in my view God has ALWAYS and forever chosen benevolence.

John


May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.

JohnE

http://www.revivaltheology.net

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One Love
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   Posted 9/11/2005 11:10 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
JEE:
I honestly don't see why you think my view creates a problem for trinitarianism.

To say that God CHOOSES loving relationality, you have to say that the members of the Godhead CHOOSE to lovingly relate to one another the way they do. This means that you MUST say that it's logically possible for EACH of the members to choose NOT to lovingly relate to the other two members of the Godhead. Even if it were to never happen, you'd have to admit the possibility philosophically. But to admit this possibility means that triunity is NOT a necessary characteristic of God. God is not a triune being NECESSARILY. This amounts to a form of TRITHEISM.

Do you not see this, my good sir?
 
Also you or anyone else has yet to make coherent the claim of God eternally choosing to love...without falling into some form of infinite regress.

devil


To all heresy-hunters and general lames...
 
"I'm connected nationwide, but from the South...
Respect game, and keep my name outcha mouth!"
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JEE
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   Posted 9/11/2005 6:18 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
It seems to me that the denial of the view of eternity as timeless raises the same problem; do you know any Open Theists who don't deny the concept of "eternity as timelessness?" Without positing timelessness, how do you or anyone else who denies timelessness avoid the same problem of infinite regress?


May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.

JohnE

http://www.revivaltheology.net

Post Edited (JEE) : 9/11/2005 7:00:17 PM (GMT-5)

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ThatDarnCat
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   Posted 9/11/2005 9:34 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
MephEternal said...

HOW did God get his perfect moral character?

Then watch the blank stares. The person who MOST CONSISTENTLY tried to affirm this position of choice was Iconoclast back in the day. He attempted to use some mathematical concept analogically to defend the idea of "eternal choice" wherein God's character was ETERNALLY a product of God's own choosing. Even though many people (including Doc) tried to argue against this idea as an infinite regress,
How did God get His moral character? 
 
By the choices He has made within the trinity.
 
But this brings up an infinite regress? 
 
You're saying that His choices are caused by His character which is caused by His choices which are caused by His character and so on?
 
1. That would mean my choices are caused by my character which is caused by my choices which is caused by my character into an infinite regression as well.
 
But since most would believe that I am NOT infinitely eternal, we see that our choices are NOT completely caused by our character in a necessary, deterministic sense. 
 
2. Any initial choices I have made could not be caused by any non-existent character at the time, choices are seen to NOT be caused by character.  Maybe influenced but not "caused".
 
3. This is strengthened by the fact that many people do choose contrary to their character at times.  This sticks a knife in the belief that choices are necessary and deterministic.  Including God's.
 
Remember, Love Requires Freedom (and Will).  The volitional freedom of choice.  If God has no freedom of choice, God cannot love.  It's a Tic and it's not Love.
 
 


 

Post Edited (ThatDarnCat) : 9/12/2005 6:29:35 AM (GMT-5)

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   Posted 9/11/2005 9:37 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

God is not necessarily good, he chooses to be good.

 

Why do we choose to sin?

Ignorance – Love = Sin

 

 

God is Omniscient and God is Love.

Knowledge + Love = Goodness


Contradictions if well understood and managed can spark off the fires of invention. Orthodoxy whether of the right or of the left is the graveyard of creativity.

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ThatDarnCat
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   Posted 9/11/2005 9:48 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Let's say I have a neighbor who has a tic. Occaisionally they spastically and uncontrollably give me a hug. Necessarily due to their uncontrollable condition.

Is this fundamentally better than the hugs I get from my wife, who made the volitional choice to marry me so many years ago? Who could potentially choose to not love and hug me anymore.

Which is more rewarding, hugs from the wife or hugs from the spastic?
 
Hugs of choice or hugs necessitated by tics?
 
Is God a Stepford wife with a microchip emplanted in His mind???   biggrin
 
 
 


 

Post Edited (ThatDarnCat) : 9/12/2005 6:25:21 AM (GMT-5)

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   Posted 9/11/2005 10:33 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
ThatDarnCat said...
Let's say I have a neighbor who has a tic. Occaisionally they spastically and uncontrollably give me a hug. Necessarily due to their uncontrollable condition.

Is this fundamentally better than the hugs I get from my wife, who made the volitional choice to marry me so many years ago? Who could potentially choose to not love and hug me anymore.

Which is more rewarding, hugs from the wife or hugs from the spastic?
 
Hugs of choice or hugs necessitated by tics?
 

Ok enough with the smelling sauce, I’ve seen your neighbor eek and I don’t want him huggin me. nono

I'm up! I'm off the canvas and back in the right corner.   biggrin


Contradictions if well understood and managed can spark off the fires of invention. Orthodoxy whether of the right or of the left is the graveyard of creativity.

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