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Modes of Thought
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   Posted 10/24/2001 3:19 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
This is a tough one so if you are up for a challenge I invite you to tackle this with seriousness, intellectual rigor, imagination, and especially confessional faithfulness. I don't have "the answer" at the end, so I am looking for your help to work through this proposal with me....

Okay, this stems from the God "resting" thread, but goes far enough afield of Tom's concerns that I thought I'd start another thread. Some of you will find this quote familiar (I apologize in advance for the inaccurate masculine use of language):

quote:

The whole question of the relation of God's omnipotence and goodness to evil (instead of the differentiation that God accomplishes the good and merely permits the evil) is resolved quite simply in the following way. The greatest good, after all, which can be done for a being, greater than anything else one can do for it, is to make it free. In order to do just that, omnipotence is required. This seems strange, since it is precisely omnipotence that supposedly would make [a being] dependent. But if one will reflect on omnipotence he will see that it also must contain the unique qualification of being able to withdraw itself again in a manifestation of omnipotence in such a way that precisely for this reason that which has been originated through omnipotence can be independent. This is why one human being cannot make another person wholly free, because the one who has power is himself captive in having it and therefore continually has a wrong relationship to the one whom he wants to make free. Moreover, there is a finite self-love in all finite power (talent, etc.). Only omnipotence can withdraw itself at the same time as it gives itself away, and this relationship is the very independence of the receiver. God's omnipotence is therefore his goodness. For goodness is to give oneself away completely, but in such a way that by omnipotently taking onself back one makes the recipient independent. All finite power makes [a being] dependent; only omnipotence can make [a being] independent, can form from nothing something which has its continuity in itself through the continual withdrawing of omnipotence. Omnipotence is not esconced in a relationship to another, for there is no other to which it is comparable--no, it can give without giving up the least of its power, ie., it can make [a being] independent. It is incomprehensible that omnipotence is not only able to create the most impressive of all things--the whole visible world--but is also able to create the most fragile of all things--a being independent of that very omnipotence. Omnipotence, which can handle the world so toughly and with such a heavy hand, can also make itself so light that what it has brought into existence receives independence. Only a wretched and mundane conception of the dialectic of power holds that it is greater and greater in proportion to its ability to compel and to make dependent. No, Socrates had a sounder understanding; he knew that the art of power lies precisely in making another free. But in the relationship between man and man this can never be done, even though it needs to be emphasized again and again that this is the highest; only omnipotence can truly succeed in this. Therefore if man had the slightest independent existence over against God (with regard to materia), then God could not make him free. Creation out of nothing is once again the Almighty's expression for being able to make [a being] independent. He to whom I owe absolutely everything, although he still absolutely controls everthing, has in fact made me independent. If in creating man God himself lost a little of his power, then precisely what he could not do would be to make man independent.



Of course this is from Kierkegaard, it is journal entry #1251 found in the second volume of his Journals and Papers on page 62 under the heading of Freedom.

I am very interested to see what you all have to say about this. Clearly this is a revisioning of power in the light of the value of freedom rather than that of control. But more importantly, this is a vision of omnipotence that is intentional about retaining the meaning of the prefix "omni".

Hard core rationalists (and others) check this out (meaning please respond to these points):

1. I suspect you will not like this because it may mean you will have to let go of conceptualizing "power" in a zero-sum-game sense. Here power is used qualitatively differently for humans (finite) and for God (infinite). But I would caution against claiming that this presentation is "irrational" or even incoherent unless you are willing to give up on omnipotence for God in any meaningful sense beyond the "moment of creation."

2. That move would involve the further problem of failing the criteria given above about what sort of power is needed to sustain the world as it is, insofar as independence (of any sort really) is affirmed of creation. We need to retain language that suggests God's "withdrawl" in some way, do we not? This conversation may prove useful for other issues that have been raised in terms of particular texts which speak of God's presence or lack thereof as well.

Sorry, no third point of discussion. Invalid expectation on your part.

A. The significance of the argument is pointed toward at the beginning of the quote, SK is after precisely the same language doc is after when it comes to evil and responsibility. Do you see how it fits? Does it work? How does it differ from doc's proposal?

B. Lastly, if you reject the language of the argument above but retain the convictions of an Open Theist, how do you propose to maintain the confession of omnipotence in a way that does not amount to a slight of hand or a past tense attribute of God? In other words, how do you propose to remain in the tradition of orthodox historical theology by at least saying it right? Can you honestly confess God to be "omnipotent"?

C. Anyone want to take a stab at describing what Kierkegaard means by the statement "dialectic of power"?



"to be neurotic is human, to be psychotic is sinful...."
Paul Tillich
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Mephi2K
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   Posted 10/25/2001 2:21 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
I'm thinking on this. Stuff later.
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Semeia
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   Posted 10/25/2001 3:06 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Modes,

GREAT QUOTE!

I can't wait to jump in here, but I'm immersed in another thread for the moment. (One that you've been conspicuously silent on, I might add...)

Could you do me a favor and repost the quote in regular size print? It's just brutal to read it like that.

This is going to be great...

Semeia

"The opposite of sin is not virtue, but faith."--Soren Kierkegaard
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Modes of Thought
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   Posted 10/26/2001 5:10 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

"The whole question of the relation of God's omnipotence and goodness to evil (instead of the differentiation that God accomplishes the good and merely permits the evil) is resolved quite simply in the following way. The greatest good, after all, which can be done for a being, greater than anything else one can do for it, is to make it free. In order to do just that, omnipotence is required. This seems strange, since it is precisely omnipotence that supposedly would make [a being] dependent. But if one will reflect on omnipotence he will see that it also must contain the unique qualification of being able to withdraw itself again in a manifestation of omnipotence in such a way that precisely for this reason that which has been originated through omnipotence can be independent. This is why one human being cannot make another person wholly free, because the one who has power is himself captive in having it and therefore continually has a wrong relationship to the one whom he wants to make free. Moreover, there is a finite self-love in all finite power (talent, etc.). Only omnipotence can withdraw itself at the same time as it gives itself away, and this relationship is the very independence of the receiver. God's omnipotence is therefore his goodness. For goodness is to give oneself away completely, but in such a way that by omnipotently taking onself back one makes the recipient independent. All finite power makes [a being] dependent; only omnipotence can make [a being] independent, can form from nothing something which has its continuity in itself through the continual withdrawing of omnipotence. Omnipotence is not esconced in a relationship to another, for there is no other to which it is comparable--no, it can give without giving up the least of its power, ie., it can make [a being] independent. It is incomprehensible that omnipotence is not only able to create the most impressive of all things--the whole visible world--but is also able to create the most fragile of all things--a being independent of that very omnipotence. Omnipotence, which can handle the world so toughly and with such a heavy hand, can also make itself so light that what it has brought into existence receives independence. Only a wretched and mundane conception of the dialectic of power holds that it is greater and greater in proportion to its ability to compel and to make dependent. No, Socrates had a sounder understanding; he knew that the art of power lies precisely in making another free. But in the relationship between man and man this can never be done, even though it needs to be emphasized again and again that this is the highest; only omnipotence can truly succeed in this. Therefore if man had the slightest independent existence over against God (with regard to materia), then God could not make him free. Creation out of nothing is once again the Almighty's expression for being able to make [a being] independent. He to whom I owe absolutely everything, although he still absolutely controls everthing, has in fact made me independent. If in creating man God himself lost a little of his power, then precisely what he could not do would be to make man independent."


I'll repeat the questions so you don't have to scroll so much.

Of course this is from Kierkegaard, it is journal entry #1251 found in the second volume of his Journals and Papers on page 62 under the heading of Freedom.

I am very interested to see what you all have to say about this. Clearly this is a revisioning of power in the light of the value of freedom rather than that of control. But more importantly, this is a vision of omnipotence that is intentional about retaining the meaning of the prefix "omni".

Hard core rationalists (and others) check this out (meaning please respond to these points):

1. I suspect you will not like this because it may mean you will have to let go of conceptualizing "power" in a zero-sum-game sense. Here power is used qualitatively differently for humans (finite) and for God (infinite). But I would caution against claiming that this presentation is "irrational" or even incoherent unless you are willing to give up on omnipotence for God in any meaningful sense beyond the "moment of creation."

2. That move would involve the further problem of failing the criteria given above about what sort of power is needed to sustain the world as it is, insofar as independence (of any sort really) is affirmed of creation. We need to retain language that suggests God's "withdrawl" in some way, do we not? This conversation may prove useful for other issues that have been raised in terms of particular texts which speak of God's presence or lack thereof as well.

Sorry, no third point of discussion. Invalid expectation on your part.

A. The significance of the argument is pointed toward at the beginning of the quote, SK is after precisely the same language doc is after when it comes to evil and responsibility. Do you see how it fits? Does it work? How does it differ from doc's proposal?

B. Lastly, if you reject the language of the argument above but retain the convictions of an Open Theist, how do you propose to maintain the confession of omnipotence in a way that does not amount to a slight of hand or a past tense attribute of God? In other words, how do you propose to remain in the tradition of orthodox historical theology by at least saying it right? Can you honestly confess God to be "omnipotent"?

C. Anyone want to take a stab at describing what Kierkegaard means by the statement "dialectic of power"?



"to be neurotic is human, to be psychotic is sinful...."
Paul Tillich


"to be neurotic is human, to be psychotic is sinful...."
Paul Tillich

Edited by - modesofthought on 10/26/2001 10:21:00 AM
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Modes of Thought
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   Posted 10/26/2001 5:12 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Semeia,
Which thread are you referring to my present absense in?

"to be neurotic is human, to be psychotic is sinful...."
Paul Tillich
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Mephi2K
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   Posted 10/26/2001 7:15 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Some preliminary things I think I see.

Note #1: Kierkegaard seems to be talking about the second-order omnipotence that Mackie discusses. You know, the ability to limit first-order omnipotence, thus creating "uncontrollable beings" He also talks about the relationship between first and second order omnipotence in that possessing second order omnipotence does not TRULY diminish first order.

Note #2: Kierkegaard makes an IMPLICIT statment about the nature of omnibenevolence. NO "finite" self-love, meaning no self-fulfilling personal agendas are NECESSARILY binding upon deity. (This is going to be a CRAZY important one to discuss later. heh. )

Note #3: Kiekegaard says the greatest good is to make free. I personally feel that THIS ONE can really be disputed. (And I will...)

Comments, Modes?
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pia†desideria
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   Posted 10/26/2001 8:02 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Modes, maybe my conception of power is a little too “wretched and mundane,” but I don’t get how only an omnipotent being can create an independent creature without “losing a little of his power.” Could you unpack this?

“All finite power makes [a being] dependent; only omnipotence can make [a being] independent, can form from nothing something which has its continuity in itself through the continual withdrawing of omnipotence.” Modes, how does this depiction of God jive with SK’s parable of the king and maiden, which is a classic depiction of God’s self-limitation? If continual withdrawal/omnipotently maintained self-limitation is a hallmark of omnipotence, then in what sense is it still omnipotence? It seems like SK is using omnipotence to mean “not finite human power,” for the sake of emphasizing the “infinite, qualitative difference” between human and divine.

Other than that conundrum, I like how SK held God’s power and goodness together in talking about human freedom. When tend to construe Creation either in terms of God’s power or in terms of God’s goodness, and both/and proposals suffer in terms of coherence—though they are held together confessionally (rightly so, I believe).

pia

~·•·~·•·~·•·~·•·~
If I have ventured wrongly, well, then life helps me by punishing me. But if I have not ventured at all who helps me then? § Søren

Edited by - pia†desideria on 10/26/2001 1:05:51 PM
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GregBoyd
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   Posted 10/26/2001 11:15 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Over all I love the SK quote. And (by the way) over all I love SK! (Not as much as when I was in college, but still alot). But let me interact with K a bit.

Sk: The greatest good, after all, which can be done for a being, greater than anything else one can do for it, is to make it free.

Doc: Yes, for in making a being FREE God makes them PERSONAL and possessing the capacity to LOVE.

SK: In order to do just that, omnipotence is required. This seems strange, since it is precisely omnipotence that supposedly would make [a being] dependent. But if one will reflect on omnipotence he will see that it also must contain the unique qualification of being able to withdraw itself again in a manifestation of omnipotence in such a way that precisely for this reason that which has been originated through omnipotence can be independent.

Doc: Yes. With C.S. Lewis, the greatest act of omnipotence is in creating a being who can say NO to it. If a being can't say "No" to omnipotence, then it isn't significantly FREE or INDEPENDENT of God. The omnipotence of God includes the power "to withdraw itself." (Whether K. is consistent with this, however, has yet to be seen).

SK: Only omnipotence can withdraw itself at the same time as it gives itself away, and this relationship is the very independence of the receiver.

Doc: Agree. God withdraws himself to "make space," as it were, for a free creation. In "withdrawn" God allows for an independent creature.

SK: God's omnipotence is therefore his goodness. For goodness is to give oneself away completely, but in such a way that by omnipotently taking onself back one makes the recipient independent.

Doc: Totally concur. I would say that the CROSS defines God's omnipotence at the same time it defines God's love and goodness. God omnipotently "takes himself back" and humans to be and act indepedent of him -- to the point of crucifying him on the cross.

SK: All finite power makes [a being] dependent; only omnipotence can make [a being] independent, can form from nothing something which has its continuity in itself through the continual withdrawing of omnipotence.

Doc: With Pia, I'm not totally convinced of this. Can't people empower others to be free over ad against them? But K. is talking about creation of an independent being here -- which no finite being can do -- so I'll grant him this.

SK : Omnipotence is not esconced in a relationship to another, for there is no other to which it is comparable--no, it can give without giving up the least of its power, ie., it can make [a being] independent.

Doc Now everything depends on what Kierkegaard means by "power" -- as Meph says, is it first order or second order "power" he is speaking of. God EXERCISES his omnipotence in withdrawing himself and creating independent creatures, so in this sense he doesn't "give up" any power in creating beings. This is first order "power", and if this is what K means, then wonderful. But precisely in exercising his omnipotence, God henceforth, for a time, gives up the unilateral exercise of his power in a second order sense. What else does it mean to say God "withdraws" and "takes back" himself?

SK: It is incomprehensible that omnipotence is not only able to create the most impressive of all things--the whole visible world--but is also able to create the most fragile of all things--a being independent of that very omnipotence. Omnipotence, which can handle the world so toughly and with such a heavy hand, can also make itself so light that what it has brought into existence receives independence.

Doc: This leads me to think that K was indeed thinking of first order omnipotence. Given this incomprehensible exercise of omnipotence, NOW omnipotence will be "light" -- so light it is revealed in the vulnerable, sufferingSon of God on the cross. A sort of Kenosis is implied in creating free beings, a kenosis that anticipates the ultimate Kenosis of God in saving these beings -- the kenosis of the incarnation.

SK: Only a wretched and mundane conception of the dialectic of power holds that it is greater and greater in proportion to its ability to compel and to make dependent.

Doc : As I read it, this is a wonderful slam on the Calvinistic view of power. It is a "wretched and mundane" [viz. worldly] conception of power to think that God is great only to the extent to which he controls things. Any idea that God looses power or glory(viz. has a "lesser glory") to the extent that he grants creatures freedom fits this category.

SK: No, Socrates had a sounder understanding; he knew that the art of power lies precisely in making another free. But in the relationship between man and man this can never be done, even though it needs to be emphasized again and again that this is the highest; only omnipotence can truly succeed in this.

Doc: Amen to Socrates and SK. Only a truly omnipotence sovereign glorious wise God would dare to "withdraw" himself, "take back" himself, for the greatest good of creating beings who are free, capable of love, and also (therefore) capable of saying "no" to him. Any view that suggest that God CAN'T do this is denying God's omnipotence!

SK: Therefore if man had the slightest independent existence over against God (with regard to materia), then God could not make him free.

Doc: I'm assuming that SK means here, "slightest indepent existence over against God" PRIOR to his creating them ex nihilo. If not, then K. is contradicting himself, so far as I can see. For he has just celebrated humans being created INDEPENDENT of God. My interpretation is confirmed when, in the next sentence, Sk says...

SK: Creation out of nothing is once again the Almighty's expression for being able to make [a being] independent.

Doc : Amen. But now things get shakey.

SK: He to whom I owe absolutely everything, although he still absolutely controls everthing, has in fact made me independent.

Doc : All hangs on what SK means when he says God "still absolutely controls everything." If he means first order omnipotence -- viz. God controls the cosmos as a whole, including the fact that he withdrew himself and made humans independent of his control -- then the statement makes sense. But if SK means that God "absolute controls everything" in a second order sense -- viz. though humans are independent of God and free, he yet absolutely controls them -- then I am dumbfounded as to what SKmeans by "independent" "free" as well as what he means when he says God "withdraws" and "takes back" himself. This is essentially the same difficulty I have with compatiblism and with any views (eg. Dr. Shulz) that say that God is so transcendent we can't construe his power as a "zero-sum-game". He is all controlling AND humans are free. So far as I can see, honestly, this is equivalent to emphatically affirming that God is so great he makes married bachleurs who are round triangles and lift unliftable rocks.

SK: If in creating man God himself lost a little of his power, then precisely what he could not do would be to make man independent.

Doc: If SK means, once again, that in creating humans independent of himself he EXERCISES (first order) omnipotence -- he doesn't loose power (as a finite being would), then fine. But if SK means that God exercises power AS CONTROL over those he has created "independent " and "free," then I confess I am utterly at a loss as to what the man is saying. Shim bolsota icko themie blob.

What does "independent" mean if not "independent of another's control"?
Shim bolsota icko themie blob.

What does "freedom" mean if not "notutterly controlled by another.?" Shim bolsota icko themie blob.

What does it mean to say "God withdraws" if at the same time one insists God "absolutely controls" the one he's supposedly made space for?Shim bolsota icko themie blob.

Though he revelled in paradox, I doubt SK contradicted himself in this blatant fashion. I strongly suspect he would agree that God IN EXERCISING HIS OMNIPOTENCE -- and thus in NOT giving up power -- made humans such that they now have the power to act AGAINST God, and in this sense, that God DID temporarily give up control in creating them (thereby exhibiting the greatest feat of omnipotence).

Finally, only if this is the case can SK's statement have any bearing on the problem he originally set out to speak to: the problem of reconciling God's power and goodness with evil. If my interpretation is right, however, then I can agree that the problem of evil can be resolved "quite simply."

What do you think of my spin Modes (and others).

Doc
------------------------------------------------------------------------



"Three is the magic number, oh yes it is, it's the Magic Number" - De La Soul
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Modes of Thought
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   Posted 10/26/2001 11:34 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Hey all thanks for getting back with me on this....

Meph,
Note #1. I am not familiar with Mackie, but that distinction seems good. What interests me in SK's categories is how he is using the term infinite here. It is a metaphysical necessity if creatures are to be independent (not matierially, but in terms of will). I am thinking SK is saying something more,or at least different, than Mackie as I hear through you. I think part of the strategy here is to NOT use "control" in a way that is equivocal with "power". Mackie seems to use the two equivocally as evidenced by the phrase "uncontrollable beings".

Note #2. and #3. can be connected. If we word #2 in a postive form: Infinite other-love IS binding upon deity, it seems we have arrived at doc's position. I think SK might actually agree, but we still have the problem of the ill-defined notion "love" as a metaphysical category.

Let's say we reject this connection above. You and I still want to say that God's will is determined by God alone. Not some higher priciple. In my mind, what is behind this is the affirmation of God as personal, not merely the functional extension of some cosmic principle. Now, granting that we affirm this for GOD'S sake (to speak foolishly for a moment) why would we think such freedom would not also be the highest good for us and the rest of created order?

This isn't as tightly reasoned as I'd like, I am short on time, but let me know what you think so far....

Pia,
To what will you compare omnipotence? Or infinite power? There is no valid comparison. Many find this reason enough to reject the notion out of hand. We can't think it, therefore it must not exist. Part of the claim here is that it takes infinite power to do something else that is equally problematic, though equally necessary for sound Christian confession: create something out of nothing. Literally.

Perhaps we must speak of God's omnipotence as "omni" in the sense that at one time, God had "all" the power. But this would mean that God is no longer omnipotent. More important here really is what do we suppose we mean when we say "power"? If it is the capacity to make, and furthermore, to make free, then I think SK has it right! But if it is about control, then we have better analogues in Ceasar than Jesus.

SK's understanding of power means at least this: that the omnipotent "willer" is competent to accomplish said will. Now, that along with a redefined version of power under the category of freedom, one that is metaphysically far more viable than "love". Here is where the King and the Maiden fit in: in this parable, the King, because the King is God, this king is actually ABLE to truly become a peasant and live with the maiden. Whereas, if the king were a merely human king, this sort of king does not have the power to become what he is not. THAT is omnipotence. That God can become a human being, and mean business, not just dress up like one, but actually BECOME one. NOW we are talking about infinite power again.

Sorry, I don't have time to get to your discussion of power and goodness yet, but I hope to later....

Semeia and others, I look forward to your responses as well!

"to be neurotic is human, to be psychotic is sinful...."
Paul Tillich
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Modes of Thought
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   Posted 10/26/2001 11:50 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Okay, doc, glad to see you here! I was still writing while you posted.

If you would, check out my responses to Meph and Pia and answer me this:

Can't we agree with Shults in saying that this is not a zero sum game if power is redefined as the ability to accomplish what one sets out to do? This need not engage immediately in the language of "control" and furthermore, it is clearly reflected in SK's parable of the King and the Maiden and the definition of power assumed there. This would make sense of SK's claim that making us independent depends upon God being able to do what God wills to accomplish without our usual question of finite power coming into play. The principle difference between this way of talking about power and that of what I understand about Mackie is that it doesn't give "control" definitive power in the definition, but rather gives that power to the ability of the will to do what it wills. Of course, what it comes down to is really whether power is best discussed in terms of objective categories or subjective ones. Am I making any sense?

Gotta run, be back later....

"to be neurotic is human, to be psychotic is sinful...."
Paul Tillich
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Modes of Thought
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   Posted 10/26/2001 12:46 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Notice: I am not saying that power is only effective in a purely subjective sense. Of course, power has objective effect. But why should we hand the whole concept over to what has been shown to be fundamentally fallacious: Objectivity? Rather, if God is the supreme being, and God is a personal community of three subjects, isn't it more to the point to describe power in the context in which it is rightly to be defined? If power can be defined as the ability to accomplish one's will, then power is measured according to the will that "power" serves. NOW it begins to truly make sense to talk about God's power as being effective and persuasive, rarely coersive. Especially if freedom is what true power aims at. In this view, it would be AGAINST God's will to have to intervene directly and unilaterally because it would mean that a very high value--freedom--had to be sacrificed in order for God to accomplish God's will. Now we see that this has occurred, but that it is the exception in terms of how God generally gets things done, so far as we know.

Now, I know that this all parallels much of what you say, doc, but you certainly must see the distinctive twist that is being given here in terms of DEFINING omnipotence. Doc, you agreed that the dialectic of power should not be defined by the ability to control others, but yet your zero-sum-game rendition rests precisely on this premise. Help me out if I am seeing this wrongly.

The goal here is to render a faithful and completely accurate definition of the omnipotence of God such that God is YET considered to be truly omnipotent.

Here it still emerges that God, in willing to make free, may yet be disappointed in the result of choices made in that freedom, but at least the higher good of having made them free is maintained and satisfied universally.

Otherwise, we'd have to say that ontologically speaking (if we admit "love" into this sort of discussion) God's will is NOT to be accomplished (that is, that all come to reconciliation through Jesus Christ). Now THAT is not omnipotence under the definition I have been working with here.

"to be neurotic is human, to be psychotic is sinful...."
Paul Tillich
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GregBoyd
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   Posted 10/26/2001 4:51 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Modes, I'm afraid I don't track with your "objectivity"/ "subjectivity" distinction as applied in this context, but otherwise I think we are saying the same thing. God's omnipotent power is his ability to accomplish his will -- which includes creating independent, free beings who can say "no" to his will. With SK,C.S.Lewis, and you, I regard this to be the highest, most exalted, feat of omnipotence.

It seems your main concern is to maintain that God is STILL omnipotent, despite this "withdrawl." And you're saying we can say this, so long as we define power in terms of God's will rather than in terms of "control." I wholly agree. This is precisely what the "first order" and "second order" distinction is getting at. God's will (first order) is to exercise only persuasive power (second order). One could say that, because of this, God "limits" his power. Or that, because of this, God exercises his power. You opt for the second, with good reason, but in a discussion regarding theodicy -- in which one is explaining why God doesn't always get his way with regard to particular acts, there is some usefulness in talking the first way.

Either way, we are interpreting Kierkegaard along the same lines.

I think.

Doc

"Three is the magic number, oh yes it is, it's the Magic Number" - De La Soul
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faith
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   Posted 10/26/2001 7:07 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
I'm sorry to cut in here. I'm fascinated by the quote, particularly omnipotence that "...can make itself so light that what it has brought into existence receives independence."
What type of omnipotence does God have? A strange type that I can scarcely comprehend because it's so opposite from human forms of power shown by control. How different to consider a power so great that God can say, "My grace is sufficient for you, for my power is made perfect in weakness." (I Cor 12:8). That verse speaks volumes about God's omnipotence -- a God who is so powerful as to "withdraw" to make room for independence and yet whose omnipotence is still evident -- where? An unlikely place. Weakness. In perfecting weakness through grace. That amazes me.

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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 10/26/2001 7:33 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
That was beautiful, Faith!

(o)
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GregBoyd
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   Posted 10/27/2001 3:51 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
To Faith and all others. Here's a rule about this discussion board.

NO ONE EVER HAS TO APOLOGIZE FOR "CUTTING IN" ON CONVERSATIONS.. The board is open to ALL.

Doc

"Three is the magic number, oh yes it is, it's the Magic Number" - De La Soul
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Modes of Thought
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   Posted 10/27/2001 4:21 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:

Modes, I'm afraid I don't track with your "objectivity"/ "subjectivity" distinction as applied in this context, but otherwise I think we are saying the same thing. God's omnipotent power is his ability to accomplish his will -- which includes creating independent, free beings who can say "no" to his will. With SK,C.S.Lewis, and you, I regard this to be the highest, most exalted, feat of omnipotence.


Agreed.
quote:

It seems your main concern is to maintain that God is STILL omnipotent, despite this "withdrawl." And you're saying we can say this, so long as we define power in terms of God's will rather than in terms of "control." I wholly agree. This is precisely what the "first order" and "second order" distinction is getting at. God's will (first order) is to exercise only persuasive power (second order). One could say that, because of this, God "limits" his power. Or that, because of this, God exercises his power. You opt for the second, with good reason, but in a discussion regarding theodicy -- in which one is explaining why God doesn't always get his way with regard to particular acts, there is some usefulness in talking the first way.


Yes, I want to say that God is still omnipotent. I think the second order omnipotence is unnecessary and unfortunate unless we are admitting that omnipotence is indeed defined as control. God does not limit or curb God's will in accomplishing God's will of making creatures free. God's will is wholly and completely accomplished. It is only if you insist on "control" language that you'd need to fall back on some sort of "second order" rhetoric, but then we are implicityl using a different definition of omnipotence than God's ability to accomplish God's will.

quote:

Either way, we are interpreting Kierkegaard along the same lines.

I think.

Doc



Not sure yet.

What do you others think? Are we saying the same thing? I think I see a difference. If omnipotence is measured strictly in terms of the ability to accomplish what one wills, then we are dealing with a subjective category, one related to the will of a subject/person/community of persons. This is not the same sort of claim at all as one that is making claims about renegade molecules unless the subject under discussion herself has said that there are NO renegade molecules. I am not completely eliminating "objective" effect, but I am editting it out of the proper definition of omnipotence for the sake of clarity and purity. Of course, implicit in the word "accomplish" is the assumption of objective effectiveness insofar as God's will has something to do with others as well. But what is interesting to me here is that this narrower definition of omnipotence that I am toying with is truly NOT a zero-sum-game type of definition and it still functions coherently as a definition of omnipotence. What pleases me about that is that we can say here again that the concept of infinite power is again meaningful, and that is no small advantage. What has bothered me recently about Open Theism is that it denies infinitude at many levels, at least implicitly. But I have been inspired by Greg's infinite intellegence argument to see if we can restore infinitude all the way round in a way that is meaningful. Of course, Classical theism affirms infinitudes, but does so at the expense of the integrity of God's own creation, if taken to their logical extents. I'm just playing with some new ways to talk about infinitude within Openness. It seems a worthwhile pursuit to me. Right now, it seems self-evident to me that the first/secnd order distinction with regard to power is really a way of dodging the issue. Now you have two categories for one. And one is not infinite. No, we are no longer talking about OMNIpotence. God does not lose a bit of power in this, IF we are speaking in the definitions that I am using. Correct me if I am wrong. I'd appreciate it.

My intention is to do greater justice to this portion of the quote above, which of course, is grounded in sound confessional language rooted in Scripture:

"He to whom I owe absolutely everything, although he still absolutely controls everthing, has in fact made me independent. If in creating man God himself lost a little of his power, then precisely what he could not do would be to make man independent."

"Christianly understood, truth is obviously not to know the truth but to be the truth. Despite all modern philosophy, there is an infinite difference here..." SK

Edited by - modesofthought on 10/27/2001 09:36:28 AM

Edited by - modesofthought on 10/27/2001 09:38:49 AM
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 10/27/2001 5:54 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
Modes: Not sure yet.

What do you others think? Are we saying the same thing? I think I see a difference.


I think there is a diference too.

quote:
This is precisely what the "first order" and "second order" distinction is getting at. God's will (first order) is to exercise only persuasive power (second order). One could say that, because of this, God "limits" his power. Or that, because of this, God exercises his power. You opt for the second, with good reason, but in a discussion regarding theodicy -- in which one is explaining why God doesn't always get his way with regard to particular acts, there is some usefulness in talking the first way.

Either way, we are interpreting Kierkegaard along the same lines.


I'm not convinced, that dispite the existence of the categories you use above, that they are the best way to think about this issue. If they aren't they are "ruts."

My "feeling" is that as soon as you say "exercise only persuasive power" that the mystery that the heart can experience is being refracted by the shape of the mind's portals. (trying to create a visual image here...)

Too much is focused, I think, on "particualar acts." That is an origin of a potential problem: "theodicy -- in which one is explaining why God doesn't always get his way with regard to particular acts".

In my heart I wonder whether the "way" God doesn't always get (His suffering) isn't limited jsut to "particular acts." if not, then in focusing on them I already loose sight of the big picture.

Making sense?

PotOnWheel

(ISA 64:8 "Yet, O Lord, you are our Father. We are the clay, you are the potter; we are all the work of your hand.")

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Mephi2K
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   Posted 10/27/2001 6:01 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Modes said:

quote:
"Yes, I want to say that God is still omnipotent. I think the second order omnipotence is unnecessary and unfortunate unless we are admitting that omnipotence is indeed defined as control. God does not limit or curb God's will in accomplishing God's will of making creatures free. God's will is wholly and completely accomplished. It is only if you insist on "control" language that you'd need to fall back on some sort of "second order" rhetoric, but then we are implicityl using a different definition of omnipotence than God's ability to accomplish God's will."


and later...

quote:
Right now, it seems self-evident to me that the first/secnd order distinction with regard to power is really a way of dodging the issue. Now you have two categories for one. And one is not infinite. No, we are no longer talking about OMNIpotence. God does not lose a bit of power in this, IF we are speaking in the definitions that I am using. Correct me if I am wrong. I'd appreciate it.




Well, Modes, ol' buddy. I think that you are wrong.

It's seems that you want to define omnipotence in terms of willing (more to the point, the efficacy with which a being can accomplish his/her will) This means, I assume that an omnipotent being would be able to accomplish ANY logically coherent thing that they would wish. Fine, well, and good. However, I think you miss something important. Accomplishment of will ENTAILS manipulation of power in some regard. I would say the following:

For any being X who has an agenda to accomplish, said agenda can only be accomplished personally by being X IF and ONLY IF it is within the POWER of being X to do so.

Doc's little example. The CEO. Let's say the CEO's agenda is to delegate more authority to others such that he doesn't unilaterally control all the business. It is a foregone conclusion that the CEO cannot delegate away power (the ability to control!) and authority that he doesn't have. The CEO pre-delegation would be first order, post-delegation would be second order.

So, to me, talking about first and second order omnipotence is not dodging the problem at all, but saving it from complete absurdity. Remember way back when I tried to argue that omnipotence was the ONLY "omni" that could be completely CONSISTENT while making a distinction between capacity of attribute and it's exercise. (Better recognize. This is what got me to seeing the validity in the fundamental premises of openness in the first place. Want me to revert??? ) And one cannot talking about willing in any PRAGMATIC sense unless there is POWER to accomplish the will.

Long story short: I think Doc's right here.




PS: And I've ALWAYS had problems with Doc's infinite intelligence argument against classical theism. Whoowee.
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Modes of Thought
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   Posted 10/27/2001 6:25 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Okay, down to brass tacks:

Here's the problem. As Christians we've already given up on the rationality of divine power by saying what cannot be rendered meaningful: creatio ex nihilo

All of our reasoning insists that something can not be made out of nothing. Yet, for God, all things are possible. Another one, we say that in Christ, God became a human being. Preposterous. Offensive even. Yet we say, okay, let's go with it, despite our reasoning. PEOPLE! These are the two most definitive uses of God's power! The best way I can "capture" them in systematic terms is via the notion of "God's will." Having said this, how can I now say that for God, not all things are possible? What a monumental self-contradiction! I have already granted such in confessing the above! Shall I now take God captive further by saying God's power is now pragmaticly finite? This defies the sense of SK's use of power as necessary for our independence as well as demoting God at least formally to finitude. I KNOW this will sound obscurantist to both Meph and doc, but what choice do we have if we are truly honest with the logic of omnipotence? The most I can say with confidence is that God is Able to accomplish God's will. Please show me the flaw in this logic. Yes, a paradox is incorporated, perhaps you will think it a contradiction, but that didn't stop God from becoming a human being. Meph, maybe I'M the one approaching a conversion of sorts! POW, I'd think you could resonate with this at some level.

HELP!

Sola Fide

OUR use of reason (obviously not God's) does have very human limitations. Where and when are we able/willing to admit this? My hope is a that a starting point is precisely where we are required to confess against it.

"Christianly understood, truth is obviously not to know the truth but to be the truth. Despite all modern philosophy, there is an infinite difference here..." SK


Edited by - modesofthought on 10/27/2001 11:30:26 AM
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Mephi2K
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   Posted 10/27/2001 6:36 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Uh, oh...

Modes said:

quote:
All of our reasoning insists that something can not be made out of nothing. Yet, for God, all things are possible. Another one, we say that in Christ, God became a human being. Preposterous. Offensive even. Yet we say, okay, let's go with it, despite our reasoning.



A Compatibilist:
"What? Human beings can have genuine freedom and YET be fully determined by God? PREPOSTEROUS. Can't God do anything? Are we going to limit God??"

"What? Human beings can be completely determined by God and STILL have moral responsibility for sin...and STILL be "all-good"? IDIOTIC. But aren't all things possible with God??"

How far are we going to take this? Just wondering...


AND...
Modes said:

quote:
The most I can say with confidence is that God is Able to accomplish God's will. Please show me the flaw in this logic.


Modes, there's nothing flawed with the logic. But saying that God is ABLE to accomplish God's will means that he has sufficient POWER and wherewithal to bring it to pass. Sorry, man. But I don't think you can't get away from talking about "control"

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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 10/27/2001 7:18 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Modes: Meph, maybe I'M the one approaching a conversion of sorts! POW, I'd think you could resonate with this at some level. HELP!

POW: Right on.

An image. The "embelical cord" of us is the two things you mentioned, plus a third (pulling from the St. Maximus deck again). Creation was for him an incarnation (the first). The Annunciation another (the third). The second is the "Word" which is not confined to written scripture, but includes the Logos incarnate in the Decalog, etc.

What can we possibly know of God except (this is just me, and no one that matters!) from those three incarnations. Talk about bringing perspective to a matter. Maximus, or more likely St. Symeon the New Theologian made much of Creation as being a route to growing in knowledge and relationship to God.

I don't ride on Meph's train when he always talks about power as being an issue. I just don't think that that is the most helpful way for me to grow in knoweldge of God (not "about", "OF"). Instead I think that starting with where the umbelical is attached and working outward is the way to go.

"Conversion" you call it, Modes?

-- just trying to stay centered...

(o)
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Mephi2K
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   Posted 10/27/2001 7:23 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
POW,

A question. How can you talk about Creation and Resurrection without talking about "power"?

Curious,
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 10/27/2001 7:38 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
Meph: POW, A question. How can you talk about Creation and Resurrection without talking about "power"?


Fun question.

quote:
Meph: And one cannot talking about willing in any PRAGMATIC sense unless there is POWER to accomplish the will.


Try this one on. (Modes can join.) God, before the creation of the world willed lovingly towards me and you.

How does THAT fit with your formula? (You are smarter than me, so maybe this will be not trouble.) I think I'm staying on track if I say that there is a KIND of "creation" without andy "actual" (temporal/material) exercise of power. Have I made this funner; or added stupidity?

Thanks.

I'm o() or (o), but definitely {o}.

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Modes of Thought
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   Posted 10/27/2001 8:14 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:

Uh, oh...

Modes said:

quote:
All of our reasoning insists that something can not be made out of nothing. Yet, for God, all things are possible. Another one, we say that in Christ, God became a human being. Preposterous. Offensive even. Yet we say, okay, let's go with it, despite our reasoning.



A Compatibilist:
"What? Human beings can have genuine freedom and YET be fully determined by God? PREPOSTEROUS. Can't God do anything? Are we going to limit God??"

"What? Human beings can be completely determined by God and STILL have moral responsibility for sin...and STILL be "all-good"? IDIOTIC. But aren't all things possible with God??"

How far are we going to take this? Just wondering...


AND...
Modes said:

quote:
The most I can say with confidence is that God is Able to accomplish God's will. Please show me the flaw in this logic.


Modes, there's nothing flawed with the logic. But saying that God is ABLE to accomplish God's will means that he has sufficient POWER and wherewithal to bring it to pass. Sorry, man. But I don't think you can't get away from talking about "control"





Yes, Meph, I am aware of the connection there, but this is precisely why I am drawn (tempted?) to the idea that we need to be a bit more honest about our discussions of power insofar as we invoke God as the subject of the sentence. I thought you'd be with me on retaining omnipotence. I can see that the math is getting in the way. I understand that, but I still have to ask, what is the most honest way through this? I grant that responsibility can be localized on the basis of our exercise of freedom, this is what makes sin "against God" and what is assumed here is that God has made this possible metaphysically by making us independent. All good. Now, I am talking about backing up for perspective on things here, not with any one event in mind, but rather with the way in which we conceptualize power for God formally. We know some things for sure:

1. God can create something out of nothing. And that, strictly speaking, is not logical or even humanly conceivable.
2. God can genuinely change God's own nature, the incarnation demonstrates this.

Is this not theologically relevent data?

We also know that God, in becoming a human being, took on some limitations as layed out in the kenosis hymn. Additionally we know that this did not result in God ceasing to be God. Quite the opposite is true! This is a primary revelation of God and indicates something about the way God uses power! God's power must be envisioned in such a way that precisely in participating in an "out of the ordinary way" in the finite world, God expresses something true about God's omnipotence (that God IS ABLE to do the possible). So, what we know theologically seems quite at odds with what we know from our experience. And yes, reason is limited to our experience and our imaginations. I do see the danger in this logic as making it "plausible" in this limited sense of consistent with the "things we know for sure" that perhaps other things that seem illogical to us are in fact possible. Now, this admission is required by faith at some point. Like it or not. Otherwise, throw out the resurrection, the creation, the incarnation, and basically every other non-analog with our experience. This is NOT yet the same as saying that what we can DEMNSTRATE as impossible now becomes possible for God. It simply is to say that we have to be a bit more careful about what gets tossed into that set: "demonstrably impossible actions". Let's say we are talking about a round square. Well, this is as demonstrably impossible of an example as I can concieve, so, I'd say that that is impossible, even for God. It means nothing. BUT this is a far cry from saying that, since I cannot concieve of how something can come from nothing, that that is now categorically impossible for God. One is a matter of mutually exclusive definitions (round square) and the other is a matter of lack of analog in my experience. See the difference? I'd say that the compatibilist deal is the former not the latter.

I'm still wanting to get at a more adequate definition of omnipotence. I think ours is too small. Meph, I think I need to clarify that when I say that for God all things are possible, the category "all things" still has to be within the category of what is, according to God's awareness, "possible." The assertion is simply another way of saying that God is able to do what God wills, so long as that is within the "realm" of possibilities as God knows it. God doesn't contradict Godself, so if God wills it, it is to be assumed that it was possible, not according to our math, but God's.

As far as control goes, yes, I grant that it is involved, but only indirectly. Omnipotence is first a category having to do with God's infinity. There is no finite wherefore that exists over and against God in principle. NOW, there is of course God's creation which is wholly derived, but God's relation to it is a matter of will, or in biblical terms, covenant. God is not metaphysically bound to keep covenant, as Greg's theology would indicate, but rather God keeps covenant freely by virtue of God's will. God has set certain stipulations which are extreme in terms of what is indicated if God should break covenant, but this is not because God knows it is metaphysically impossible that that should happen but that God has decided, and God's decision is indeed decisive, in all regards. Much of what we speak of with regard to freedom and so forth, I'd assume God has decided to grant independence to. Thereby our intuitions about that freedom are basically correct. Though to what extent is still debatable.

I still see that the distinction being made here between God's omnipotence with regard to will is useful. I do see the implications for how this affects control in our finite ways of thinking, and I will continue to do the best I can there. Localizing responsibility on the most evident agent and so forth. If we are so often encouraged by God to envision God's power differently than by quantities of control, it seems we ought to take that to heart and demote the "implications" in terms of finite power in some way. It is ALWAYS true that one idea ties into many related ideas, but this does not mean that we should sacrifice the coherence of what we know for sure with regard to the original idea being spoken of, here, of course, I refer to omnipotence as discussed above.

This is too fun.

"Christianly understood, truth is obviously not to know the truth but to be the truth. Despite all modern philosophy, there is an infinite difference here..." SK
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Modes of Thought
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   Posted 10/27/2001 8:22 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:

quote:
Meph: POW, A question. How can you talk about Creation and Resurrection without talking about "power"?


Fun question.

quote:
Meph: And one cannot talking about willing in any PRAGMATIC sense unless there is POWER to accomplish the will.


Try this one on. (Modes can join.) God, before the creation of the world willed lovingly towards me and you.

How does THAT fit with your formula? (You are smarter than me, so maybe this will be not trouble.) I think I'm staying on track if I say that there is a KIND of "creation" without andy "actual" (temporal/material) exercise of power. Have I made this funner; or added stupidity?

Thanks.

I'm o() or (o), but definitely {o}.



There's an intuition here that I am trying to express, but appearantly not well. I think I am starting to see why so much of the church historically was involved in apophatic theology. Words just don't cut it for so much of theology. Don't get me wrong!! I am not recommending this stuff as an apologetic stragegy! Far from it! But eventually, people will come to see that to some extent, if they came to faith through logical argumentation, then they were "decieved into the truth" as SK was found of saying.

"Christianly understood, truth is obviously not to know the truth but to be the truth. Despite all modern philosophy, there is an infinite difference here..." SK
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