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Similitude
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   Posted 9/7/2007 8:10 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
I think some of what I said above is not particularly clear. What I'm getting at is something like this:
 
If God can seek another's (i.e., the Son) sentient satisfaction in a completely competent way such that it will certainly be attained, this gives me hope that He can do the same for all. IOW, I see it as more plausible that there is more post-mortem benevolence in store than we are explicitly told IF God has demonstrated that He will endure to ensure that all was worth it for at least one other person. If literally every person's (including God's and Christ's) sentient satisfaction was risked in the sense that free-will was so paramount to God that everyone (including the godhead) could have conceivably of been worse off because of the existence of creation, then there is less reason to be hopeful of post-mortem benevolence that is not revealed. Your view seems to define love such that God truly risked that much. I'm not sure it's necessary to go that far.
 
Not to mention that choices are made for sentient satisfaction. All sentient beings are hedonists in that sense.


 

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Sahid
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   Posted 9/8/2007 10:30 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Jeff: Because the argument goes, "God doesn't even need creation AT ALL." So why allow the innocent and the helpless to be abused so more people will be saved or have opportunity to choose? If it's not for God, then it would seem that the helpless innocents are allowed to suffer for the sake of those that reach the age of accountability and believe and/or volitionally choose.

Zach: Yes, that is what I'm saying. Although I wouldn't put it quite that way. I wonder why this position is thrown out.



Jeff: Either way we have God allowing "un-good" to the helpless for the sake of someone other than the helpless.

Zach: But, I would say, not to the exclusion of the helpless. I would say, "..for the sake of all people." The helpless are still just as morally capable as anyone else. They have this fundamental choice to make as well.



Jeff: Instead of having to speculate about post-mortem explanations for those whose sufferings we find hard to explain (while scripture says nary a word about it),

Zach: I'm not so sure. What do you mean specifically?



Jeff: I'm on the solid footing of scriptural statements that this creational project is FOR THE SON.

Zach: I have no problem agreeing that it is all "for the Son." But you are claiming more than that. So am I for that matter. It just seem to me that your way puts love for the Son above love for others. But Jesus got on his knees to wash these others' feet. And when these others lynched him, he who was almighty submitted. It is not God's character to put himself first. God's character is just the opposite.



Jeff: 1) The problem of evil is solved

Zach: My view "solves" the problem as much as yours. It explains why God permits evil.



Jeff: 2) I have scriptural texts telling me of at least one person, other than the Father Himself, who is the unconditional beneficiary of God's allowance of "non-good."

Zach: This is another point we have in common. But I would want to look at specific passages before I said more than that.



Jeff: Why then is it any more problematic to say that divine intervention is postponed for the sake of Christ's maximal glory?

Zach: No reason at all, but the Hebrews passage seems to claim that care for humanity is a sufficient reason to forebear, while your view seems to deny this. I'm not so much disagreeing with you on this point. I'm just saying that I don't see how your view is consistent with this passage.



Jeff: For if allowing "un-good" is for the purpose of attaining the benefit to Christ of sentient satisfaction from creation, THEN that "un-good" is never ultimately vain and meaningless.

Zach: But try telling that to the victim of abuse. I certainly does endow their suffering with meaning, but that meaning is ugly - it's sadism on the part of God. "Take heart; your suffering brings me pleasure." Are these the words of a sinful oppressor or God?



Jeff: It is always, regardless of human choice, endured for the inevitable sentient satisfaction of the Son.

Zach: If the consequence is inevitable, then the means are meaningless. You cannot endure something "for" the inevitable. That's tautological. That would be like firing a gun at an incoming meteor "for" the inevitable impact. It empties the "for" of any meaning. There is no sense in which anything is done "for" an inevitable goal. This is truly meaninglessness. Suffering is then vain; it is empty of any higher purpose. The proposed higher purpose will happen either way, so how is suffering meaningful?



Jeff: Now Christ is said to reign "until he subjects all enemies under his feet,

Zach: Finally, be strong in the Lord and in his mighty power. Put on the full armor of God so that you can take your stand against the devil's schemes. For our struggle is not against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the authorities, against the powers of this dark world and against the spiritual forces of evil in the heavenly realms. Therefore put on the full armor of God, so that when the day of evil comes, you may be able to stand your ground.



Jeff: I don't see why God would require that infants who died pass some post-mortem test.

Zach: That's not what I'm saying at all. If you want to use the language of test, then I'd say it is the infant who requires God to pass the test (but that just invites more confusion, so I'd prefer no test language at all.) It's not that God requires that the infant be tested. It is that God refuses to force himself on unconsenting recipients of love. That would be the spiritual equivalent of rape.



Jeff: why wouldn't God just ressurect those infants right into the divine family?

Zach: Because he respects their yet-unmade choice in the matter.



Jeff: When the "un-good" is allowed merely for human choice, it is ultimately vain and meaningless much of the time.

Zach: We must mean two very different things by vanity and meaninglessness. Either that, or I have not made it clear that I believe God allows ungood not merely for human choice, but for the higher purpose of making bilateral love possible.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

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Similitude
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   Posted 9/8/2007 9:12 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Jeff: Either way we have God allowing "un-good" to the helpless for the sake of someone other than the helpless.

Zach: But, I would say, not to the exclusion of the helpless. I would say, "..for the sake of all people." The helpless are still just as morally capable as anyone else. They have this fundamental choice to make as well.

Jeff: Sometimes the helpless are infants who have no volition. In that case, their sentient satisfaction is sacrificed to a solidified thug or a person who only might make an appropriate choice "this time." Either way, one person (the infant) is being used by another. But here's the thing. In your case, the person who has power over the infant might not ultimately increase their own satisfaction because they might choose wrongly--in which case they will presumably be held accountable. And surely God's sentient satisfaction is not increased by abuse of an infant. THIS, then, is the sense in which things can be ultimately and absolutely vain if UR is not true, or if Christ, at least, is not an unconditional beneficiary of extending the creational project. Your view has God risking more--indeed, it seems it has God risking everything since nothing good is truly guaranteed.

Jeff: Instead of having to speculate about post-mortem explanations for those whose sufferings we find hard to explain (while scripture says nary a word about it),

Zach: I'm not so sure. What do you mean specifically?

Jeff: Where does it say or imply that infants will get a chance to live a second volitional, probational life? Or any one else, for that matter?

Zach: I have no problem agreeing that it is all "for the Son." But you are claiming more than that. So am I for that matter. It just seem to me that your way puts love for the Son above love for others.

Jeff: Your view puts the abuser over the abused infant. What's the difference? By your view, it seems that God isn't guaranteeing that even one person (Himself included) will be sentiently better off because of the existence of creation. My view says at least one person's will be. I'm thinking that this is because of God's love. THEREFORE, it is reasonable to hope that God's very nature is such that He will do all He can to make everyone a beneficiary of the existence of creation. If God is love and if He suffers long to ensure that Christ becomes beneficiary of creation, it is reasonable to believe He will do it for everyone. Because God is not risking everyone's sentient satisfaction in the first place, as your view seems to imply. And if the only constraint upon His ability to satisfy Christ is temporal, then maybe the only constraint for everyone else is temporal.

Zach: But Jesus got on his knees to wash these others' feet. And when these others lynched him, he who was almighty submitted. It is not God's character to put himself first. God's character is just the opposite.

Jeff: I agree. I just don't think putting someone first necessarily means non-interference with their choices or their consent. Parents act contrary to their children's consent all the time. I don't see how this can be deemed as unloving for that reason alone. There are many things my mother did contrary to my consent both as a child and a teen-ager. Now that I'm a bit smarter, I'm thankful for much of that interference.

Jeff: 1) The problem of evil is solved

Zach: My view "solves" the problem as much as yours. It explains why God permits evil.

Jeff: I would say that your view, like my old view, renders God completely just and, therefore, immune from human criticism on grounds of justice. But I don't think anything short of UR can satisfy the problem of evil as viewed by most who argue it. Because it seems like most people don't view non-interference and ultimate risk as consistent with benevolence.

Zach: No reason at all, but the Hebrews passage seems to claim that care for humanity is a sufficient reason to forebear, while your view seems to deny this. I'm not so much disagreeing with you on this point. I'm just saying that I don't see how your view is consistent with this passage.

Jeff: What Hebrews passage, again?

Jeff: For if allowing "un-good" is for the purpose of attaining the benefit to Christ of sentient satisfaction from creation, THEN that "un-good" is never ultimately vain and meaningless.

Zach: But try telling that to the victim of abuse. I certainly does endow their suffering with meaning, but that meaning is ugly - it's sadism on the part of God. "Take heart; your suffering brings me pleasure." Are these the words of a sinful oppressor or God?

Jeff: Well, their suffering, PER SE, doesn't bring God pleasure. If God is perfectly sympathetic as I think, their suffering brings Him suffering. I just say that in the same way Christ had to suffer to partake of a future joy, that same constraint compels God to not stop the Fallen part of the creational project yet. Somehow, God's forebearance contributes to Christ's glory. To say that the abused infant contributes to the opportunity of choice for the abuser has the same "sadistic" feel that you are attributing to my view.

That's why I'm hoping UR can make the suffering of Christ analogous at some level to everyone's suffering, in the sense that none of it is absolutely vain. Obviously, it is analogous in different senses for different people. For those who suffer with him and reign with him, it is analogous differently than for those who don't suffer with him.

Jeff: It is always, regardless of human choice, endured for the inevitable sentient satisfaction of the Son.

Zach: If the consequence is inevitable, then the means are meaningless. You cannot endure something "for" the inevitable. That's tautological. That would be like firing a gun at an incoming meteor "for" the inevitable impact. It empties the "for" of any meaning. There is no sense in which anything is done "for" an inevitable goal. This is truly meaninglessness. Suffering is then vain; it is empty of any higher purpose. The proposed higher purpose will happen either way, so how is suffering meaningful?

Jeff: It is not inevitable in the sense that God is not volitional. It is inevitable in the sense that God will volitionally bring it about consistent with the constraints required for Him to be faithful to His promise that sinners can't live forever. IOW, God can't bring about Christ's greatest satisfaction from creation if He terminated the creational project at the first sin of a volitional being. By enduring and suffering long, He increases that satisfaction. But suffering long is volitional. It is only inevitable in the sense that God is faithful.

It is no more irrational to say that God, by His nature, chooses faithfully than it is for you to say God, by His nature, He puts others first. Both are claims about what God is necessarily like, by His nature. This doesn't rule out volition. It's just that God's knowledge and power are such that He always exercises His power consistent with His knowledge and sympathetic nature. We, on the other hand, have the ability to deceive ourselves and justify doing less than is optimal. God can't be deceived. But His knowledge of His own sympathetic nature and of the causal nexus He providentially works in is such that He can't be confused into being tempted to choose unfaithfully or irrationally like we can.

But His choice to suffer is truly volitional. This means He has two contrary impulses or motivations simultaneously when He can only act off of one of them. One impulse/motivation is to avoid (right NOW) the suffering of forebearance (all sentient beings are motivated to avoid displeasure). The other is to attain (in the FUTURE) the additional satisfaction/pleasure that He, as a sympathetic being, will experience by increasing the satisfaction of the Son and others. This latter increase in satisfaction can only be attained by forebearing the creational project in suffering.

Zach: That's not what I'm saying at all. If you want to use the language of test, then I'd say it is the infant who requires God to pass the test (but that just invites more confusion, so I'd prefer no test language at all.) It's not that God requires that the infant be tested. It is that God refuses to force himself on unconsenting recipients of love. That would be the spiritual equivalent of rape.

Jeff: I don't think most people think like that. I think if you could actually convince people that you could eternally change their sentient nature such that their sentient satisfaction would be as great as it could possibly be forever, they would jump at that chance. Because I believe sentient beings are sentiently motivated in their choices. I don't know what else could possibly ground their choices. But people don't believe certain things. And false beliefs result in bad choices.

If you tell me that you wouldn't make that choice, I'll take your word for it. But I would. It seems like a no-brainer to me.

Jeff: When the "un-good" is allowed merely for human choice, it is ultimately vain and meaningless much of the time.

Zach: We must mean two very different things by vanity and meaninglessness. Either that, or I have not made it clear that I believe God allows ungood not merely for human choice, but for the higher purpose of making bilateral love possible.

Jeff: Choice is a necessary, but not sufficient, condition for a sympathetic being to experience sentient satisfaction. If the choice causes suffering for another, a sympathetic being experiences sentient DISsatisfaction. So for every choice that causes suffering to another and that doesn't provide sentient satisfaction for at least one person, that suffering was absolutely vain. This is what I mean when I say that God doesn't take pleasure in choice, PER SE. God takes pleasure in only some choices. Therefore, God isn't loving by occasioning choice, PER SE.

God is loving, to my mind, if He occasions choices that He knows will occasion at least some increase in sentient satisfaction. And even then, His love is only for those whose sentient satisfaction is increased by the choice. It makes no sense to me to say He loves the victim of abuse merely because He gave the capacity of choice to the abuser. If God is not increasing the sentient satisfaction of the victim, He is not loving them.

Granted, He may not be hating them either. But He is definitely not loving them, in the active verb sense of that word, merely by giving someone else the capacity to choose. To say God loves merely by giving the capacity of choice, irrespective of the kind of choices that will be made, is a very non-intuitive meaning of the word "love."


 

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Similitude
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   Posted 9/9/2007 1:12 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
I meant to add this, but forgot. I'm trying to avoid positing divine purposes that are not revealed in scripture. And I don't see that scripture portrays God as absolutely non-interventional regarding consent or volition. But it does seem to clearly say that creation exists FOR God and His Son. There are specific verses that tell us how the Father/Son get sentient satisfaction from creation. So parsimony guides me, to some extent, in the first place. Consequently, I like to get post-mortem possibilities for those who don't believe in this life from the strongest postive scriptural grounds as possible.
 
Second, Christ, as portrayed in the gospels, just seems to have the same regard for scripture as God's word as every other prophet. He said, for example, at the last supper that he had desired to eat that passover with his disciples since he would not eat again until it was fulfilled in the kingdom. Now that seems to imply that Christ deemed the passover as a divinely instituted feast. But if so, why should I think that Christ didn't believe the actual alleged account of the original passover, which involved the death of the firstborn of Egypt and the historical judgment (contrary to the consent of many of them) of a whole nation?
 
It just seems too strained, to me, to assume Jesus took a selective approach to OT scripture. I see no evidence of it in the gospels. He even said, If you don't believe Moses, how will you believe me? Did he expect them to know how to pick the "proper" writings of Moses? Did he expect them to believe he discounted the account of the plagues on Egypt while he, nevertheless, seemed to embrace the divine origin of the passover feast?
 
So parsimony compels me to not read post-mortem second chances into texts without strong warrant. And Christ's seeming regard for, and quotation of, Moses and the prophets leads me to believe that he most plausibly accepted the Torah account of the history of the world and Israel. And like I said, if UR ends up being false, I'm not going to argue with God over it. God is perfectly just, otherwise.
 
I'm just trying to gather up the strongest evidence possible for post-mortem opportunities. And the way I get there, UR seems even more plausible and parsimonious than the post-mortem approach you take. Not parsimonious in the number of people, obviously, but parsimonious in terms of actual evidence for our view of post-mortem chances. I just don't see, e.g., any scriptural evidence that God has created the kinds of natural suffering we're currently experiencing as necessary conditions of fulfilling His purpose in creation, as you seem to argue.
 
And if they are not necessary, the standard problem of evil stands, if indeed their was no contingent Fall, etc that necessitated them. Christ did say that offences were necessary. I just don't think we have sufficient warrant to claim that Christ meant that pain in child birth or offences were necessary, independent of the Fall. IOW, I see no evidence in the gospels that Christ was making a radical break with that scriptural theology that included the occasional divine trumping of consent (e.g., the Exodous/Passover) or natural sufferings (e.g., pain in child-birth) that resulted from a historical Fall and subsequent sin. Indeed, as I have previously argued, Christ seems, to me, to clearly argue for a divine judgment of vengeance upon man future to his incarnation and previous to his parousia--a judgment that would have inevitable negative side-effects upon infants (woe to those who give suck in those days).


 

Post Edited (jefscott) : 9/9/2007 8:04:01 PM (GMT-5)

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