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Tom
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   Posted 3/23/2008 10:28 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

D-

 

Gregory of Naziansus: “What’s not assumed is not healed” (lit., “not taken in, not healed”).

 

Defend that for me.

 

We already know that ‘forgiveness’ is unconditional. God doesn’t have to incarnate in order to forgive. So that moves us on to atonement/reconciliation. And we’ve said before that all that’s needed for us to experience God’s forgiveness and be reconciled with him is for us to take responsibility for our actions.

 

So, with those two things in mind, tell me what relation the incarnation has to either our forgiveness or the experience of reconciliation (which is just the healing of broken relationship with God). Explain Gregory’s argument to me.

 

Tom


 

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Sahid
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   Posted 3/23/2008 5:42 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Seems unnecessary to me. Whenever I've asked why Incarnation (or even Death or Resurrection) is necessary for salvation, I always hear the claim reasserted. When I say that such a belief implies a denial of omnipotence, I get a concerned look and the subject is changed.

My guess is that the more necessary we perceive our salvation story, the more comfortable/less anxious we feel. The idea that the Incarnation (or even our forgiveness) is not eternally determined but contingently true makes our world a little too real to be comfortable. It requires that we TRUST God rather than assent to the belief that God's actions are determined by necessity. Plus it gives us a useful criteria for excommunicating heretics.

But I'd love to hear someone attempt an explanation (as opposed to a reassertion).


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

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feelinahole
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   Posted 3/23/2008 7:17 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
I don't believe forgivness is unconditional, so perhaps I shouldn't take this one on.


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Similitude
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   Posted 3/23/2008 8:18 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Tom: We already know that ‘forgiveness’ is unconditional. God doesn’t have to incarnate in order to forgive. So that moves us on to atonement/reconciliation. And we’ve said before that all that’s needed for us to experience God’s forgiveness and be reconciled with him is for us to take responsibility for our actions.

 

Jeff: In a sense, to say "all that's needed for us to experience God's forgiveness...is for us to..." is to say that forgiveness is conditional. Wouldn't you agree?

 

Tom: So, with those two things in mind, tell me what relation the incarnation has to either our forgiveness or the experience of reconciliation (which is just the healing of broken relationship with God).

 

Jeff: Assuming the incarnation has a role in forgiveness/reconciliation, we need to explain how it has effects on those who could never know anything about it. Or do we even say that people HAVE to believe something about the incarnation, even post-mortem, to be forgiven? If not, then aren't we saying that there is no KIND of effect that the incarnation has universally? Zach, you would agree with this, wouldn't you?

 

Another thing: If fallen angels are reconciled, would the incarnation really have anything to do with that? I can't see how.


 

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Tom
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   Posted 3/24/2008 3:18 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Zach, somewhere along the line I never picked up on your objection to this. I wouldn’t mind revisiting it.

 

-----------------

 

Tom: We already know that ‘forgiveness’ is unconditional. God doesn’t have to incarnate in order to forgive. So that moves us on to atonement/reconciliation. And we’ve said before that all that’s needed for us to experience God’s forgiveness and be reconciled with him is for us to take responsibility for our actions.

 

Jeff: In a sense, to say "all that's needed for us to experience God's forgiveness...is for us to..." is to say that forgiveness is conditional. Wouldn't you agree?

 

Tom: Not really. We went through all of this last year when we were debating forgiveness and anger. Can’t remember. But we made the distinction (a correct one I think) between God’s loving attitude toward us (i.e., forgiveness) and our experiencing the benefits of that (reconciliation), the difference between God’s not holding our sins against us, on the one hand, and our being restored relationally. I think forgiveness is a given of infinite love and can obtain on God’s part even if the offending party rejects God, while the enjoyment of relational intimacy require the offender to take responsibility for his offense.

 

--------------------

 

Jeff: Assuming the incarnation has a role in forgiveness/reconciliation, we need to explain how it has effects on those who could never know anything about it. Or do we even say that people HAVE to believe something about the incarnation, even post-mortem, to be forgiven?

 

Tom: This is where the discussion needs to go, ‘cause there’s something there.  In Brummer’s Atonement, Christology and the Trinity (2005), he talks about what’s necessary for relational intimacy to occur between two parties when the relationship has been wounded by one party’s offense. The offended party can unconditionally ‘forgive’ (which just means that party make the free choice to bear/suffer the pain of the offense without demanding retributive justice and exacting the just consequences from the offender). But for relational intimacy to be restored (i.e., reconciliation), the offending party must take responsibility for (repent of) its actions. This is where Brummer offers a rationale for WHY the incarnation and Cross are necessary. He says they’re the necessary means to making clear to the offender the nature of her offense, something the offender MUST perceive if she’s to take responsibility for what she’s done. So incarnation is necessary to demonstrating the will and purposes of God for human being (which we in our sin are sufficiently ignorant of and which the Old Testament Law was unable to accomplish) and (with the cross) to demonstrating the consequences which our offenses have for God, the suffering we have caused him. We have to perceive both the nature of our offense and the pain we cause those we offend before our taking responsibility can be an existential option at all. Incarnation/Cross are necessary in this two-fold sense.

 

Maybe, m-a-y-b-e, some will say, “It’s totally possible for a human being to perceive the nature of her offense to God and the depth of the suffering she's caused God without any knowledge of the incarnation and cross." I wouldn’t agree that this is possible, but let’s assume it is, on some minimal level. It doesn’t really matter. Such a person would only come into the most minimal experience of restored relationally to God. Communal existence, faith in relationship with others, etc., requires shared stories and reasons for existing. And there’s not enough ‘content’ to a community story that is also void of all gospel content, to enable that community to live fully, reconciled lives to God on earth and to really enjoy relational intimacy. But in the end, such a person would have no problems with affirming the incarnation as demonstrating the human being she (somehow) knew she failed to be and as declaring the depth of suffering which she (somehow) knew her offense caused God.  When she finally met up with the facts, she’d say, “Exactly! That’s what I sensed was my failure and offense all along.” There would still be the obtaining of relational intimacy that's fulfilled in response to finally coming to perceive the whole truth.

 

We can move closer to God without knowing about the incarnation and cross, but we really be said to BE 'restored' to the intimacy we were created for apart from perceiving the truth revealed in the incarnation and cross.

 

I seriously doubt whether fallen human beings make the necessary connections on their own, without divine revelation. But even if it were metaphysically possible, not all DO make the connection. MOST do NOT. And what would love do to provide the necessary means for THESE? It would incarnate and die.

 

Exactly.

 

What d’ya think? In a way, one can still agree with Gregory in a general sort of way, that God has to assume a mode of existence (human) that both educates us about the content of our failure as human beings (we need to see what God’s will for us as human beings is) and demonstrates the depth of divine suffering  which we are responsible for, both necessary means for making possible our taking responsibility for our offense to God and experience the restoration of relational intimacy.

 

Jeff: Another thing: If fallen angels are reconciled, would the incarnation really have anything to do with that? I can't see how.

 

Tom: I know Greg (and the Christus Victor model) sees the Cross as most fundamentally about the God-Satan relationship and us an implicated in that. I’m not sure. But all angels would have to do, if the ‘relational ontology’ we’re trying to describe really is an ‘ontology’ (about what’s metaphysically the case) then all Satan has to do is perceive the suffering he has caused God and take responsibility for it. That’s it. The incarnation/cross, IF it has anything of a ‘necessary’ nature to do with securing these in Satan’s case, would be the necessary means to opening up for Satan the possibility of such a perception. “You have to SEE what you’ve done to me before I take your apology seriously. So let me SHOW you what your sin does to me.” That’s all it’s about. THAT is a ‘relational’ ontology (I think!).

 

Perhaps angels, given the dimension of their perception into God’s will and experience to begin with, have all they need to perceive that apart from incarnation/cross. I don’t know. Perhaps also angels were not intended for the same relational intimacy human beings were intended for to begin with. Perhaps their existence really is more ‘utilitarian’. That might explain something too. Don’t know.

 

Tom


 

Post Edited (Tom) : 3/24/2008 3:49:45 AM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 3/24/2008 7:28 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Good stuff, Tom.

How else would human beings actually believe that God truly empathized with human suffering, EXCEPT for God Godself to take human suffering upon himself in it's totality? How could a Being who IS actually suffer the fictionalized "nothings" that our pains really are? How can REALITY ITSELF experience the depths of our existentially-felt FALSEHOODS???

How?

The "one man", Christ-the-Logos...who IS God.

"My God, My God! Why have You forsaken Me?"
--God the Logos


The "flesh" of Christ-the-Logos (full human individual; human spirit/soul and body) is extremely important. It's how we KNOW that there is actually a "Way" that God the Father himself (who is UNTOUCHABLE by anything created) can actually IDENTIFY with the loneliness, alienation, pain, and suffering of the fallen human experience.

Jesus-Christ-the-Logos suffered ALL the existential problems of meaning-making that ALL humans do...but without sin. He had no gnomic will (thus no obstruction to the Divine Center in ALL human souls), but still had EGO FORMATION (and re-formation) just like all other humans...which is based on a sense of alienation and absence (LODER!!!). He had to deal with human ego development...and it's perils...just like everyone else.

This validates all we've heard in Hebrews about having a "high priest" (like Malchezedek) who is "touched with the feeling of OUR infirmaties" and was "in all points tempted exactly as we are yet without sinning."

Not my will, but Your Will be done.
--The cry of God-the-Logos' human "soul"...that had been despairing unto death in Gethsemane.

This is the importance of the correct doctrine of Incarnation. All of the heresies, in some way, end up saying that Jesus was less than what he was: A full God "taking on" a full human reality as individualized human being. Apollinarianism and Arianism screw it up big time.

THIS is what St. Gregory the THEOLOGIAN was operating against, I believe.

At least this is what Ware says...but I find no reason to disagree.


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

Post Edited ("I am-in-I Am") : 3/24/2008 10:09:39 AM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 3/24/2008 7:34 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
    From Bishop Kallistos Ware's "The Orthodox Way", chapter 4--God as Man
    (pp73-77)

    Salvation as Sharing

    The Christian message of salvation can best be summed up in terms of sharing, or solidarity and identification. The notion of sharing is a key alike to the doctrine of God in Trinity and to the doctrine of God made man. The doctrine of the Trinity affirms that, just as man is authentically personal only when he shares with others, so God is not a single person dwelling alone, but three persons who share each other's life in perfect love. The Incarnation equally is a doctrine of sharing or participation. Christ shares to the full in what we are, and so he makes it possible for us to share in what he is, in his divine life and glory. He became what we are, so as to make us what he is.

    St. Paul expresses this metaphorically in terms of wealth and poverty: "You know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ: he was rich, yet for your sake he became poor, so that through his poverty you might become rich" (2 Cor. 8:9). Christ's riches are his eternal glory; Christ's poverty is his complete self-identification with our fallen human condition. In the words of an Orthodox Christian hymn, "Sharing wholly in our poverty, thou hast made divine our earthly nature through thy union with it and participation in it." Christ shares in our death, and we share in his life; he "empties himself" and we are "exalted" (Phil. 2:5-9). God's descent makes possible man's ascent. St. Maximus the Confessor writes: "Ineffably the infinite limits itself, while the finite is expanded to the measure of the infinite."

    As Christ said at the Last Supper: "The glory which thou hast given to me I have given to them, that they may be one, as we are one: I in them and thou in me, may they be perfectly united in one" (John 17:22-23). Christ enables us to share in the Father's divine glory. He is the bond and meeting-point: because he is man, he is one with us; because he is God, he is one with the Father. So through and in him we are one with God, and the Father's glory became our glory. God's Incarnation opens the way to man's deification. To be deified is, more specifically, to be "christified": the divine likeness that we are called to attain is the likeness of Christ. It is through Jesus the God-man that we are "ingodded", "divinized", made sharers in the divine nature" (2 Pet. 1:4). By assuming our humanity, Christ who is Son of God by nature has made us sons of God by grace. In him we are "adopted" by God the Father, becoming sons-in-the-Son.

    This notion of salvation as sharing implies two things in particular about the Incarnation. First, it implies that Christ took not only a human body like ours but also a human spirit, mind and soul like ours. Sin, as we saw (p.58), has its source not from below but from above.; it is not physical in its origin but spiritual. (I am's Note: the FALL OF SATAN...even before Adam's) The aspect of man, then, that requires to be redeemed is not primarily his body but his will and his center of moral choice. If Christ did not have a human mind, then this would fatally undermine the second principle of salvation, that divine salvation must reach the point of human need.

    The importance of hit principle was re-emphasized during the second half of the fourth century, when Apollinarius advanced the theory -- for which he was quickly condemned as a heretic -- that at the Incarnation Christ took only a human body, but no human intellect or rational soul. To this St. Gregory the Theologian replied, "The unassumed is unhealed". Christ, that is to say, saves us by becoming what we are; he heals us by taking our broken humanity into himself, by "assuming" it as his own, by entering into our human experience and by knowing it from the inside, as being himself one of us. But had his sharing of our humanity been in some way incomplete, then man's salvation would be likewise incomplete. If we believe that Christ has brought us a total salvation, then it follows that he has assumed everything.

    Secondly, this nation of salvation as sharing implies -- although not just unfallen our fallen human nature. As the Epistle to the Hebrews insists (and in all the New Testament there is no Christological text more important than this): "We do not have a high priest who cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but he was in all points tempted exactly as we are, yet without sinning" (4:15). Christ lives out his life on earth under the conditions of the fall. He is not himself a sinful person, but in his solidarity with fallen man he accepts to the full the consequences of Adam's sin. He accepts to the full not only the physical consequences, such as weariness, bodily pain, and eventually the separation of body and soul in death. He accepts also the moral consequences, the loneliness, the alienation, the inward conflict. It may seem a bold thing to ascribe all this to the living God, but a consistent doctrine of the Incarnation requires nothing less. If Christ had merely assumed unfallen human nature, living out his earthly life in the situation of Adam in Paradise, then he would not have been touched with the feeling of ourinfirmities, nor would he have been tempted in everything exactly as we are. And in that case he would not be our Savior.

    St. Paul goes so far as to write, "God has made him who knew no sin to be sin for our sake" (2 Cor. 5:21). We are not to think here solely in terms of some juridical transaction, whereby Christ, himself guiltless, somehow has our guilt "imputed" to him in an exterior manner. Much more is involved than this. Christ saves us by experiencing from within, as one of us, all that we suffer inwardly through living in a sinful world.


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

Post Edited ("I am-in-I Am") : 3/24/2008 10:14:22 AM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 3/24/2008 7:40 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Das Nichtige, Emptiness, is never empty. 

God has filled it with Himself.

We are never alone.

We never HAVE been.

We've existed in and by Love.

Surely, God was in the house...

and we haven't known it.



Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

Post Edited ("I am-in-I Am") : 3/24/2008 7:46:17 AM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 3/24/2008 7:44 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Judas.

Peter.

What was the defining difference?

Yeah...

;-)


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

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Starkman
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   Posted 3/24/2008 10:28 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Without the shedding of blood, there is no forgiveness and similar statements demonstrate that God's willingness and ability to forgive are obvioulsy not enough to restore relationship with humanity.
 
It's one thing for God to forgive—anyone can do that—but there are still ramifications for our sin; namely, our separation from God and the inability to bridge that without the destruction of the stranglehold of death itself.
 
As "earth dwellers"—those whose lives are defined not by God but by everything in contrast to God—the human race was tied and bound to this world in every possible manner. Once Christ died for us, however, God's forgiveness is carried across the bridge between Himself and humanity. Forgivness alone didn't bridge the gap between death and life; only the death of the Son could do that.
 
It took the death of one who carried with Him indissoluble life who could carry death to its final grave and then escape its clutches while still leaving it in its grave! For He died like us, as one who was bound to this world but without the effects of sin holding Him hostage for eternity. It is only the power of eternal life that can overpower the power of eternal death. 
 
At the resurrection, a new way is found to find passage way to God and, more marvelously, for God to find passage way to us. It is a way that is not susceptable to the sting of death's onslaught. God's forgiveness has now become both manifested and effective. Eternal life has overcome eternal death.
 
Romans 5 is very instructional here and one of the most overlooked passages in Scripture with regard to this issue. Verses 17-18 sum it up perfectly:
 
For if, by the trespass of the one man, death reigned through that one man, how much more will those who receive God's abundant provision of grace and of the gift of righteousness reign in life through the one man, Jesus Christ. Consequently, just as the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men, so also the result of one act of righteousness was justification that brings life for all men.
 
God had long ago forgiven the world for its sin against Him, but it would only be when death itself was nailed to a cross of death that life could emerge and offer its springs of living water to the thirsty.
 
Starkman


 

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Tom
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   Posted 3/24/2008 11:25 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Thanks for the comments, D.

 

D: Good stuff, Tom.

 

Tom: I thought you’d disagree, since I’m disagreeing with an important sense in which “what’s not assumed is not healed” is thought to be true. So I’m not sure you really see the point I’m trying to make.

 

D: Judas. Peter. What was the defining difference?

 

Tom: Choice, and only choice. Certainly NOT God, since infinite love was uniform, consistent, and equally available in both cases. That’s the one thing that ISN’T different between them. The difference between Peter and Judas is Peter and Judas.

 

--------------------

 

D: How else would human beings actually believe that God truly empathized with human suffering, EXCEPT to take human suffering upon himself in it's totality?...

 

Tom: Oh, I’m not talking about that. Sure, for us to believe God can “feel what we fee” we have to know God’s experienced what we experience. But that’s not in view here (for me). When I talk about us having to see or perceive something, and that the incarnation and cross are the necessary means to enabling us to see that something, I just mean that God incarnates and suffers to demonstrate the effect of our sin upon him, not to have some experience that we do so that we feel he empathizes with us.

 

D: The "flesh" of Christ-the-Logos (full human individual; human spirit/soul and body) is extremely important. It's how we KNOW that there is actually a "Way" that God the Father himself (who is UNTOUCHABLE by anything created) can actually IDENTIFY with the loneliness, alienation, pain, and suffering of the fallen human experience.

 

Tom: Again, I don’t think our knowing God can identity with us is what enables us to make the necessary perceptions required by atonement. That’s not the point. What’s necessary is that we know what our offense means to God as God, as the offended party, that we see the pain we have caused him. When that perception has occurred in us, the work of atonement is done. The suffering we cause God precedes the incarnation. God suffers our sin from the garden onwards. We just fail to perceive this adequately enough to make really taking responsibility possible. With the incarnation/cross, we get to see the abiding suffering we bring God. God brings his suffering out into the open so that we can see we are forgiven.

 

D: Jesus suffered ALL the existential problems of meaning-making that ALL humans do...but without sin. He had no gnomic will (thus no obstruction to the Divine Center in ALL human souls), but still had EGO FORMATION (and re-formation) just like all other humans...which is based on a sense of alienation and absence (LODER!!!). He had to deal with human ego development...and it's perils...just like everyone else.

 

Tom: Again, that’s not my issue here. I agree that God’s incarnate life grounds our confidence that God understands what we go through. But that all has more to do with our persevering, our growth, our not given up on hope and faith, not specifically with the issue I’m raising re: atonement and reconciliation.

 

D: By assuming our humanity, Christ who is Son of God by nature has made us sons of God by grace. In him we are "adopted" by God the Father, becoming sons-in-the-Son.

 

Tom: I’m on a different page. I’m trying to say that these sorts of metaphysical conclusions are beside the point. The point is just that in assuming our humanity we finally have the necessary means to see who we have offended and how deeply we have offended him. That’s all. Once we perceive that and repent, the relationship is restored. There’s none of the metaphysical speculations about recapitulation, etc., just “Oh, that’s what I’ve done to you? I’m sorry God.” Adoption is just a metaphor to describe the sort of personal relational intimacy to which we are restored once we repent. It’s the same KIND of intimacy that defines Father’s relationship to the Son. But there’s nothing more speculative beyond that.

 

I hope you can see how DIFFERENT this is from what I hear you saying.

 

-----------------------

 

D: The aspect of man, then, that requires to be redeemed is not primarily his body by his will and his center of moral choice. If Christ did not have a human mind, then this would fatally undermine the second principle of salvation, that divine salvation must reach the point of human need.

 

Tom: More speculation and theologizing that misses the point, in my view. It’s far simpler is what I’m trying to suggest. There’s no dissecting man to determine what ‘aspect’ requires redeeming so that we make sure we say Christ ‘became that’ or ‘assumed that’. Did he have this part? Did he have that part? I think that moves in the wrong direction. I’m trying to move away from the assumptions that require all those speculations.

 

D: The importance of hit principle was re-emphasized during the second half of the fourth century, when Apollinarius advanced the theory -- for which he was quickly condemned as a heretic -- that at the Incarnation Christ took only a human body, but no human intellect or rational soul. To this St. Gregory the Theologian replied, "The unassumed is unhealed". Christ, that is to say, saves us by becoming what we are; he heals us by taking our broken humanity into himself, by "assuming" it as his own, by entering into our human experience and by knowing it from the inside, as being himself one of us.

 

Tom: Right. This is what I’m disputing. Atonement/reconciliation only require that God forgive us and that we repent. That’s it. There’s no human experience that GOD has to have so that either of these occurs. We’re created in God’s image, so we are already on the necessary ontological continuum that relational intimacy with God requires. The incarnation doesn’t bring that about. What we have in the incarnation (so far as atonement/reconciliation are concerned) is a declaration of the suffering we have caused God, a demonstration of what God’s forgiving us means for God. It’s not substitutionary atonement and it’s not God pouring out his wrath on some pure human being who qualifies to suffer it all for us. GOD suffers it for us, and has been since the Garden. The incarnation is the embodiment in terms we can see and understand OF THAT SUFFERING, so that we can perceive what we have done to God and take responsibility for it.

 

So in the end, if Apollinarius was right, I say, big deal. It’s GOD’S suffering that I need to see, not a MAN’S suffering. If I make THAT connection I’m not going to complain that there was some “aspect” of human being not assumed by God and which won’t now be admitted into intimacy with God.

 

D: But had his sharing of our humanity been in some way incomplete, then man's salvation would be likewise incomplete. If we believe that Christ has brought us a total salvation, then it follows that he has assumed everything.

Tom: I’m not sure what ‘incomplete’ humanity would mean. But as I’m saying, all I need to see is God’s suffering.

 

D: St. Paul goes so far as to write, "God has made him who knew no sin to be sin for our sake" (2 Cor. 5:21). We are not to think here solely in terms of some juridical transaction, whereby Christ, himself guiltless, somehow has our guilt "imputed" to him in an exterior manner. Much more is involved than this. Christ saves us by experiencing from within, as one of us, all that we suffer inwardly through living in a sinful world.

 

Tom: I’ll agree that it’s not juridical and that something else is involved. But I’m disputing the something else you’re offering. I’m saying our reconciliation doesn’t metaphysically require that God experience all that we suffer inwardly living in a sinful world. What’s required is that we see all the suffering God experiences in his world. But we can only see that if God brings his suffering into our world. The incarnation brings the suffering God close so we can see not someone experiencing what we suffer, but someone suffering what we’ve done to them. In words, atonement and reconciliation are about our understanding what God’s going through, not God’s understanding what we’re going through.

 

Tom


 

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One Love
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   Posted 3/24/2008 12:20 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Amen, Starky. ;-)


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

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One Love
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   Posted 3/24/2008 12:23 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:
Adoption is just a metaphor to describe the sort of personal relational intimacy to which we are restored once we repent.

and...

Atonement/reconciliation only require that God forgive us and that we repent. That’s it.

We're gonna disagree, now, Tom.

Big time.

Still all love, though. ;-)


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

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Tom
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   Posted 3/24/2008 1:10 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Words like "adoption" and "son" (use of our relationship to God) are metaphors. No doubt about that. I hope you're not going to tell me that they directly and literally (i.e., non-metaphorcially) describe metaphysics.

On forgiveness and reconciliation all I'm doing is restating what we said last year. YOU were big on insisting on all that need be required from the human side is our taking responsibility. Actually, that makes good sense to me. That's what forgiveness is about. Brummer hit it too.

Now, when I say atonement/reconciliation only require that God forgive us and that we repent, I'm not ruling out there being necessary conditions for these to occur. I'm in fact arguing there are necessary conditions (incarnation, cross, etc.). But I dno't understand these in the sense you do I don't think.

Tom


 

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One Love
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   Posted 3/24/2008 3:22 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:
So in the end, if Apollinarius was right, I say, big deal. It’s GOD’S suffering that I need to see, not a MAN’S suffering. If I make THAT connection I’m not going to complain that there was some “aspect” of human being not assumed by God and which won’t now be admitted into intimacy with God.

So, you don't think Apollinarius being right (about Christ-the-Logos NOT assuming a human soul/spirit) meaningfully affects anything?


Whoever knows and recognizes how near God’s Kingdom is to him may say with Jacob, “God is in this place, and I knew it not.”
Meister Eckhart, "The Nearness of the Kingdom"

Once, having been asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, "The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, 'Here it is,' or 'There it is,' because the Kingdom of God is within you.

 

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Sahid
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   Posted 3/24/2008 5:49 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Similar subject.
www.opentheismboard.org/default.aspx?f=8&m=96753&p=1&ord=a

I think I can smell what you're cooking, Tom. But I think there is an important distinction between the work of Christ (when it is perceived as unique metaphysical work) and the proclamation and continuation of his work.

If Jesus was performing the necessary rituals for saving sinners demanded by metaphysical law, then maybe Incarnation and Resurrection are necessary components of such a ritual. This is essentially what I was brought up to believe in the my baptist church. There is some super-divine metaphysical law (of course these are not the terms used by proponents of this view) which force Jesus to incarnate and resurrect if he is to save/redeem/reconcile. But the very implication of super-divine law is that God is not truly God. The same can be said if we speak in terms of necessity. Many Christians are happy to point out that salvation requires divine/human blood; few if any have any idea WHY this should be the case. "There is a gap and Incarnation/Resurrection is the only bridge." Why is God unable to save apart from this particular bridge?

On the other hand you've got revelation and proclamation which are the terms I hear you speaking in. For clarity's sake I wont use "necessity" in connection with these terms because logical necessity has nothing at all to do with this. Your (or Brummer's) understanding of reconciliation makes it a matter of communication. God's love and forgiveness are already there for the taking. Likewise our sin is already an impediment to reconciliation. What is needed is for sinners to be made aware of these truths so that they might respond.

So Christ's work does NOTHING to change God's love for us or offer of forgiveness. There is no metaphysical work being done to appease God or the rules that supposedly bind him. But rather...

John said...
Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up, that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life. For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him. Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because he has not believed in the name of God's one and only Son.




Starkman: It took the death of one who carried with Him indissoluble life who could carry death to its final grave and then escape its clutches while still leaving it in its grave!

Zach: This is what I'm referring to when I talk about super-divine metaphysical rules or laws. This is also what I mean by reassertion rather than explanation. It remains to be explained why God is bound to this "higher law." This law is stated with the impersonal "It", but it is applied to God! This is a constraint placed on the otherwise omnipotent God. Unless this law is somehow derived from logical necessity such an idea is well out of bounds for the theist.


Starkman: it would only be when death itself was nailed to a cross of death that life could emerge and offer its springs of living water to the thirsty.

Zach: So long as it is "would" and not "could"... But actually, Jesus was offering living water before being nailed to the cross.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Post Edited (Sahid) : 3/25/2008 12:00:10 AM (GMT-5)

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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 3/24/2008 6:40 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Here's some scripture:
Hebrews 2:18
Because he himself suffered when he was tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted.
 
 
 
Hebrews 4:15
For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are—yet was without sin.
 

 


(o)

Post Edited (pulp-pincher) : 3/24/2008 6:59:19 PM (GMT-5)

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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 3/24/2008 6:56 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

More...

2 Corinthians 13:4
For to be sure, he was crucified in weakness, yet he lives by God's power. Likewise, we are weak in him, yet by God's power we will live with him to serve you.

 

Ephesians 4:24
and to put on the new self, created to be like God in true righteousness and holiness.

 

Philippians 3:10
I want to know Christ and the power of his resurrection and the fellowship of sharing in his sufferings, becoming like him in his death,

 

Philippians 3:21
who, by the power that enables him to bring everything under his control, will transform our lowly bodies so that they will be like his glorious body.

 

Hebrews 2:5
[ Jesus Made Like His Brothers ] It is not to angels that he has subjected the world to come, about which we are speaking.

 

Hebrews 2:17
For this reason he had to be made like his brothers in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people.

 

1 John 3:2
Dear friends, now we are children of God, and what we will be has not yet been made known. But we know that when he appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is.

 

1 John 4:17
In this way, love is made complete among us so that we will have confidence on the day of judgment, because in this world we are like him.

 

Revelation 14:14
[ The Harvest of the Earth ] I looked, and there before me was a white cloud, and seated on the cloud was one "like a son of man" with a crown of gold on his head and a sharp sickle in his hand.

 


(o)

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Tom
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   Posted 3/25/2008 12:22 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Zach: I think I can smell what you're cooking, Tom. But I think there is an important distinction between the work of Christ (when it is perceived as unique metaphysical work) and the proclamation and continuation of his work.

 

Tom: Not sure I’m following ya.

 

Zach: If Jesus was performing the necessary rituals for saving sinners demanded by metaphysical law, then maybe Incarnation and Resurrection are necessary components of such a ritual. This is essentially what I was brought up to believe in the my baptist church. There is some super-human metaphysical law (of course these are not the terms used by proponents of this view) which force Jesus to incarnate and resurrect if he is to save/redeem/reconcile.

 

Tom: Right. And the metaphysical law is usually this: God’s been offended, but God loves and wants to forgive, but justice won’t let him forgive and embrace us (EVEN IF WE’RE SORRY AND BEG FOR FOGIVENESS) until some innocent member of the offending class/race suffers for everybody’s sin. God says, “Hey, I’ll be that perfect human sacrifice and appease myself. That way I'll satisfy the competing metaphysical rules which I myself am the grounds of!”

 

Zach: But the very implication of super-divine law is that God is not truly God.

 

Tom: Well, there are at least some good reasons to reject that picture of the atonement.

 

Zach: On the other hand you've got revelation and proclamation which are the terms I hear you speaking in. For clarity's sake I wont use "necessity" in connection with these terms because logical necessity has nothing at all to do with this.

 

Tom: Right. Logical necessity wasn’t the sort of necessity I was talking about anyway. (Logical necessity isn’t the only kind of necessity.)

 

Zach: Your (or Brummer's) understanding of reconciliation makes it a matter of communication. God's love and forgiveness are already there for the taking. Likewise our sin is already an impediment to reconciliation. What is needed is for sinners to be made aware of these truths so that they might respond.

 

Tom: Exactly. But this is not ‘extra-metaphysical’ so to speak. That is, forgiveness, reconciliation, perceiving our offenses and repenting of them, etc., are how relationships and intimacy work. So it’s metaphysical. It’s just not what your Baptist church taught you.l

Zach: So Christ's work does NOTHING to change God's love for us or offer of forgiveness.

 

Tom: What would it even mean to say that Christ’s work changes God’s love for us? No. Christ’s work IS God’s love, it expresses and embodies God’s love (and his offer of forgiveness).

 

Zach: There is no metaphysical work being done to appease God or the rules that supposedly bind him.

 

Tom: Exactly. If God is truly "appeased" then we have retributive justice and hence, no forgiveness. If the cost is paid, the debt's not 'forgiven'.

 

Tom

 



 

Post Edited (Tom) : 3/25/2008 12:29:55 AM (GMT-5)

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Tom
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   Posted 3/25/2008 12:27 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
POW, I believe all those verses you posted. D, I'm not sure about Apollinarius. Don't know what he REALLY believed, and there's so much reconstruction of the context that has to be done to understand those guys in context, I don't know that that's a profitiable way to spend my time. I can't discect Jesus like you do. So I'm withdrawing from your anatomy class! ;o)

T


 

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Sahid
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   Posted 3/25/2008 2:58 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom: God says, “Hey, I’ll be that perfect human sacrifice and appease myself. That way I'll satisfy the competing metaphysical rules which I myself am the grounds of!”

Zach: If you say that God is the ground of the rules of salvation, then isn't this equivalent to saying there are no rules of salvation to which God is (should I say, "was originally" ) bound? I'm fine with discussing God-made rules. But if we are trying to understand the scandal of the cross or incarnation with resort to "It was the only way...", aren't we implying that the rules are NOT God made? I'm happy to hear the confession that God is the grounds of the rules of salvation, but I don't think this confession is consistent with the "It was the only way..." argument.


Tom: What would it even mean to say that Christ’s work changes God’s love for us?

Zach: Maybe a better way to put it would be to claim that Christ's work allows God to manifest love for us in forgiveness and reconciliation. Ultimately though, it still begs the question. But even ignoring this chicken-egg problem, we are left with the idea of an omnipotent being actualizing hitherto mere potential. We must either lose the omnipotence or the actualizing. (Forgive me if I'm misusing technical philosophical terms; I'm not up to speed, but I hope the point gets across.)


Tom: No. Christ’s work IS God’s love, it expresses and embodies God’s love (and his offer of forgiveness).

Zach: Agreed. I think we can all agree here. It's just the trimming off of inconsistencies that seems to be the objection.


In response to the verses, I would like to say that there is quite a bit to be gained from reading the Bible in this way (minus God-binding rules). This is especially true of those passages which before seemed to best articulate the prior view. Hebrews is probably the best example. Just as the Torah re-appropriates pagan language, themes, and stories, the letter to the Hebrews (which draws so heavily from the Torah and, I think, it's method of shining new light on old themes) takes the language of priesthood and sacrifice and gives them new life. I think we should be careful when we interpret Hebrews (and other passages) based primarily upon the inherited significance of it's themes. After all, the writer of Hebrews was surely just as familiar with the 8th century prophets as the Torah. I may be using the term incorrectly, but isn't there a degree of irony involved when older categories are re-appropriated to incorporate something new? The Christian reader of the New Testament now reads the Old from a position of greater understanding than the original writers and audience. The Christian reader can now reasonably and faithfully re-conceive Old Testament themes in ways that would have been scandalous and unfaithful in the original context.

So, having abandoned the notion of objectively effective sacrifice (as revealed in scripture hundreds of years before the Incarnation), we re-appropriate ancient themes in the new light of Christ. We know it was not the Father's will that Jesus be lynched (Matt 21:37), but he nevertheless sent him knowing our violence (Matt 23:37). So when we reread the ancient themes (such as Heb 9:22 for instance), we are not expected to rip Hosea and Micah from our Bibles any more than we are expected to rip out the Torah after reading Matt 5-7. But I think we are expected to do exactly what was expected of the early audience to the stories of Gen 1-11: we are expected to re-imagine the old in the light of the new.

Take for example priesthood. Jesus who is quite obviously NOT a priest is given the title High Priest (the title of the chief conspirator in his murder). We, Jews and gentiles alike, are called a kingdom of priests. This is not just surprising. It is flatly wrong. In the old sense neither Jesus nor we are priests. Even in his natural life apparently no one thought to stretch priesthood into a metaphor wide enough to include Jesus. The only way these New Testament claims can make any sense is if we redefine what it means to be a priest. Even a traditional reading of Hebrews tips it's hat to this. Certainly there remains a sort of continuity (explicated perhaps to exhaustion in Hebrews), but previously there was nothing priestly about claiming to be king and then being humiliated and killed on a cross.

All this holds even if I am 100% wrong about necessity and incarnation. There is something drastically new and different about how we can now view priesthood, sacrifice, and a number of other themes the New Testament takes from the Old, regardless of whether salvation/reconciliation necessarily demands consubstantiation.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Post Edited (Sahid) : 3/25/2008 3:58:00 AM (GMT-5)

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Tom
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   Posted 3/25/2008 10:50 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Tom: God says, “Hey, I’ll be that perfect human sacrifice and appease myself. That way I'll satisfy the competing metaphysical rules which I myself am the grounds of!”

Zach: If you say that God is the ground of the rules of salvation, then isn't this equivalent to saying there are no rules of salvation to which God is (should I say, "was originally") bound?

 

Tom: I don’t think so. But I was just agreeing with you that it’s not the case that there are competing tendencies in God; nor are there objective metaphysical rules (about justice or forgiveness) that God has to conform to. When I talk about metaphysical laws, I don’t mean laws that constrain reality’s behavior (like the way the speed limit constrains the behavior of drivers who COULD drive faster but who obey the law). We talk abut nature ‘obeying’ physical laws, but it’s not technically correct. By metaphysical laws I mean laws that describe the regularity of reality’s behavior, so far as we understand it — laws like love requires freedom, freedom implies risk, and others. And that regularity, reality’s freedom to behave this way and not that way, is grounded in none other than God.

 

So, there’s no metaphysical law, no regularity of divine or created reality grounded in God, that says God can’t forgive unconditionally (where forgiveness just describes God’s free choice to suffer the consequences of our offense and not seek to exact the just penalty from us). But there are some laws which define/describe how interpersonal relationships behave and the conditions under which such relationships are broken, wounded, and subsequently healed and reconciled. Reconciliation, as far as I can tell, requires something from the offended party and something else from the offending party. From the offended party, reconciliation requires forgiveness, the willingness to suffer the consequences of the offense and not seek retributive justice. From the offending part, reconciliation requires penitence. And that’s where the cross comes in for me, because repentance in turn requires (by definition) of the offender an adequate understanding and appreciation on the injury/offense done to the offended. This is what one ‘repents of’, so it must be adequately perceived. Brummer is suggesting hat getting us to perceive that is what the cross is about.

 

But I agree with you, I don’t think that the incarnation/cross is what permits God the freedom to forgive us, nor is it what qualifies us (probably not the right word, but you get my point) to be forgiven by paying some objective metaphysical debt that we’ve accrued, so that God looks at the account and says, “OK, paid in full. Good, I can now forgive you if you repent.” If it’s paid, it’s not forgiven. If we’re forgiven, the cross can’t be about paying for, requiting as it were, the debt we owe God. That’s NEVER paid. God absorbs the offense and suffers the injury of our rejection without seeking to balance the metaphysical scales by exacting payment from God.

 

Just thinking through it.

 

Jeff? Corey?

 

Tom


 

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feelinahole
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   Posted 3/25/2008 12:35 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom, I recently read this in "Partakers Of The Divine Nature." May or may not be helpful.

"However, Gregory's Christology is more developed and his deificational language is much stronger. In Letter 101, where Gregory refutes the Christology of Apollinarius, he states, "For that which he (Christ) has not assumed, he has not healed; but that which is united to his Godhead is also saved." This Christological affirmation in Gregory reinforces the Athanasian deification "exchange formula." If Athanasius does not strongly advocate a strict parallelism between God becoming fully human in order for human beings to become fully gods, Gregory on the contrary is remarkably more forceful in establishing an egalitarian and symmetrical relationship to this formula: "I migh be made god so far as he (CHrist) is made man." Or, in another place, Christ is "as much man for your sake as you are made god for his."
For what its worth...


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Tom
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   Posted 3/25/2008 1:19 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Is that by Christensen and Wittung’s book (2008)? It’s got a chapter in it by James Starr (who did his doctoral thesis on Peter’s “partakers of the divine nature”). I’ve added the book to my wish list! Looks good.

 

The Greek phrase (from 2Pet 1.4) ‘theias koinonoi fuseos” may be translated “partners of the Deity” not “partakers of divine nature.” I’m not picking sides, I’m just pointing out part of the debate. Part of the problem too is that Peter supposedly says we partake in the divine “fusis” (“nature”), not the Son’s (or anybody else’s) “hypostasis” (“person”). But a few EO guys I read on 2Pet. 1.4 say something like, “Obviously Peter can’t mean ‘nature’ in the sense of ‘ousia’ (‘essence’) [for which ‘fusis’ (‘nature’) is sometimes synonymous], it must mean….” And what’s it come out meaning? Hypostasis! Hypostatic inherence in the ‘person’ of the Son turns out to be what “partaking of the divine ‘nature’” comes out meaning.

 

I’ll withhold judgment on 2Pet. 1.4. Haven’t really gotten into it and can’t do so from here. It’ll have to wait. But I’ve run across references to Starr’s work on this verse and want to check it out.

 

T


 

Post Edited (Tom) : 3/25/2008 1:58:05 PM (GMT-5)

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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 3/25/2008 4:10 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom said...

But a few EO guys I read on 2Pet. 1.4 say something like...

Remember Jon Behr? What I've SO appreciated about him is his efort not to read back into time the debatesof later times. (Like Peter would have not worried about technical distinctions that were necessary later in another setting! Etc.)


(o)

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