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| Open Theism Discussion Board > Public Forums > Tearing down walls > Feminist theology | Forum Quick Jump
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rb1963b
Registered Member
Date Joined Oct 2001
Total Posts : 93
| Posted 10/6/2001 6:37 PM (GMT -6) |   | Can someone explain 1 Cor. 11:9 and Titus 2:5?
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PotOnWheel
Registered Member
Date Joined Jul 2001
Total Posts : 9890
| Posted 10/28/2001 4:51 PM (GMT -6) | | Is anyone going to answer the above question?
quote:
1 Corinthians 11:9
for indeed man was not created for the woman's sake, but woman for the man's sake.
Titus 2:5
to be sensible, pure, workers at home, kind, being subject to their own husbands, so that the word of God will not be dishonored.
Someone has to be studied up on that stuff. (I'm not.)
The second one seems just like a simple "when in Rome" proposition. The first one seems more interesting, more complex,
Anyone???
The Genesis passage does not seem like ANY kind of subjugation to women!!! To say "for the man's sake" seems to show the entirely whole need of man for women. And, If I can say more, this seems related to the incompleteness that man was, before man was male and female (a diversity--or whatever term...). God in his wisdom made man(kind) to be male and female. Unity IN diversity. (a Two!!!!!) Later, with sin, came the fracture [better terms can apply for the job now, call 555-____].
quote:
Unity: Gen 2:24 For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh.
Fracture: Gen 3:16 To the woman He said, ""I will greatly multiply Your pain in childbirth, In pain you will <*17> bring forth children; Yet your desire will be for your husband, And <*18> he will rule over you.''
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PotOnWheel
Registered Member
Date Joined Jul 2001
Total Posts : 9890
| Posted 11/20/2001 3:30 PM (GMT -6) | | | | |
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