Open Theism Discussion Board
  HomeLog InRegisterSearch the ForumHelp
   
Open Theism Discussion Board > Public Forums > Tearing down walls > Gay couples rush to get married in California  Forum Quick Jump
 
New Topic Post Reply Printable Version
62 posts in this thread.
Viewing Page :
 1  2  3 
[ << Previous Thread | Next Thread >> | Show Newest Post First ]

BBBCanada
Registered Member




Date Joined Jun 2001
Total Posts : 2763
 
   Posted 6/21/2008 6:16 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Z:  Brandon, not I, brought up the entirely unrelated matter of free association. He spoke of the government protecting this right. I responded by saying that a new legal definition of marriage does not grant or protect this right since it is sufficiently granted and protected by the First Amendment. While making this argument I repeatedly expressed that it is entirely immaterial to the issue at hand which has nothing to do with the right to free association.
 
B:  Just for the record, YOU linked the issue of the right of free association to marriage (which are two separate issues).  I was merely addressing the issue of how government protects non-governmental organizations and institutions.  Then when I responded (at your constant behest) by showing HOW government does protect your bowling team by saying:
 
"B: In order for government to protect your bowling team it develops a law that protects the freedom of association--which is in affect a recognition of your bowling team. Get it? That you admit that there is a law on the books for this (a bill of rights to associate freely) is simply an acknowledgement (a nod towards) of the fact that government protects these non-governmental institutions--that these things exist.

You said:

Z: Yes. I've never denied this."
 
Of course you didn't deny it.  But you WERE wondering HOW it does this!  That's how government protects your tiny bowling team!  How does the government protect your religious freedom? I never did respond to your question about baptism.  You said:
 
Z: "...The government doesn't recognize my baptism nor does it recognize LDS baptism for the dead. Should I fight to have Baptist baptism legally recognized in such a way that LDS baptism is excluded?..."
 
I responded by saying:  B: "...I don’t know what it means to ask, “Is injustice done to groups that are not legally recognized?” (Your question).  Why is it that I don't know what it means to ask your question?  Because ALL groups ARE legally and politically recognized via the First Amendment.  The government **DOES** recognize your baptism and LDS baptism for the dead.  How?  Well...the First Amendment is contradicted if the very government which is suppose to respect individual consciences and confessional communities turns around and seeks to PRE-define religion in a way that violates religious freedom.  WH, for example has some theological committments and convictions.  What would a good and just PUBLIC law look like?  It is one that leaves the determination of those convictions in the hands of WH, right?  Not in the hands of government, right?  It is one that says, "Oh Mr. Government, you don't have jurisdiction over what we here at WH say about God! Oh no you don't!"  And why is that?  It's because there are both political and ecclesastical JURISDICTIONS of authority.  A jursidiction is what?  Competent.  Government has public-legal competencies while the Church has theological competencies.  Government would be acting UNJUSTLY if it told the LDS what to believe about baptism.  Government would be acting unjustly if it told the Baptists what to believe about baptism.  Government would ACT JUSTLY when it doesn't act OMNI-COMPETENTLY such as when it doesn't take over the ecclesastical jurisdiction and when it allows those insitutions to fulfill their confessional and institutional responsibilities.
 
The whole point in saying how government publicly and legally recognizes non-governmental institutions and organizations has nothing to do with relating the freedom of association to the same-sex "marriage" issue.  It is about how government protects non-governmental insitutions.  I'll get on your other stuff tonight or tmw.


Brandon
It is the purpose that makes strong the vow, but vows to every purpose must not hold.--A friend.
To love without love is slavery--Mother Teresa

Post Edited (BBBCanada) : 6/21/2008 6:23:46 PM (GMT-5)

Back to Top
 

Sahid
Megistered Rember




Date Joined Jun 2004
Total Posts : 2013
 
   Posted 6/22/2008 2:44 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
J: There still are SOME differences in rights and liabilities for legally married people even in state law.

Z: Like what?


J: Even the ones that want a label change want it for what ELSE that gets them.

Z: Maybe they think it gets them something. So far I've heard a grand total of one gay Californian express why this matter is important, and that was the one I quoted at the beginning of this thread. The legal Californian definition of hate speech already deals with anti-homosexual speech.


J: Sorry I was confused. But it seemed like you were being adamant that there would be NO change at all.

Z: I am being adamant that there will be NO "legal" change at all. So far no one has deigned to mention any change except terminology. Maybe this otherwise inconsequential issue will bring awareness and momentum to a real issue. But that's just speculation. I don't hear the talking heads or sound bites saying that.


B: Just for the record, YOU linked the issue of the right of free association to marriage (which are two separate issues).

Z: I thought we were talking about gay marriage. I thought I was making an analogy. But I am apparently not a very good communicator. You say that non-governmental entities can be protected by the government through self-restricting laws (correct me if I misrepresent you). I understand this perfectly well. I wonder why you thought it necessary to bring the subject up. I can only guess that it is because I failed to adequately communicate that the bowling and baptism comments were intended to draw analogies to the gay marriage issue.

But I'm hopeful that we are in agreement about my original comment. Gay couples could already legally obtain all the same privileges as a married couple in California before this ruling. This particular ruling only directly legally changes terminology. Do you agree with me up to this point?

Then I want to answer you follow up question as transparently as possible.


B: Say you pray before a car race. Should that be considered a prayer meeting or a church meeting of some sort?

Z: By whom? The government? The local church? Those participating? My personal feeling are if two or more are gathered in His name, he is among them. Consider it church, a prayer meeting... heck, consider it fried chicken. I don't care what it's considered.


B: Say you have two friends living together but are not sexually involved with each other. Should we call that a marriage?

Z: Who is we? The government? The local church? Those participating? I personally don't make much use of 'marriage' as an institution. If two people commit to sharing everything for their entire lives, they can call it marriage, union, or fried chicken. I don't care what it's called. Why should I care what it's called? The name matters zero. The actually thing itself is what matters. Should the local church call it marriage? If they want. Language is only useful insofar as it signifies very similar referents to its users. So if the church members understand 'marriage' to include "two friends living together but are not sexually involved with each other", then they can go ahead and consider it marriage. But as it's an entirely semantic issue, I only judge it based on its semantic usefulness. There is no platonic ideal, mind-of-God form of 'marriage'. According to the New Testament marriage is something that is best avoided and only indulged as a last resort. That doesn't sound like "two friends living together but are not sexually involved with each other" to me. That seems too praiseworthy to be marriage.


B: Is there not a material difference here in which no civil rights are being abridged?

Z: Here is where I simply don't know what you're asking. A material difference between what two things? And how can civil rights be abridged IN a difference? Hopefully, my previous responses address what you are getting at here.


B: In other words, are those who are in relationships outside of what is identified as a marriage suffering from civil rights discrimination because they are not identified as a marriage?

Z: No, they are not. Now there may be a tribe in some corner of the earth which hunts down, taxes, ridicules, etc. all people who form relationships which are not marriage. I personally have seriously dated two different times. Neither time did I suffer any particular civil rights discrimination as a consequence of being "in relationships outside of what is identified as a marriage". Someone more acquainted with the legal workings of Kansas and Texas can correct me if I'm wrong, but had we been of adequate age, we would be privy to all the privileges enjoyed my a married couple. As far as I know, there is no privilege which is unique to marriage.


B: Nope. Here let me ask it like this. Say you have two friends who share a same home together but are not sexually active with each other. Say they want to declare their relationship a marriage. Should this be recognized as a marriage?

Z: Once again. Recognized by whom? The government? Since there is nothing legally unique about marriage, I'd have to answer with a firm "I don't care".


B: Are their civil rights being abridged if society (the law) does not recognize this relationship as a marriage?

Z: No.


B: Why or why not?

Z: Because there is nothing to my knowledge which is legally unique to marriage.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Back to Top
 

Similitude
Registered Member


Date Joined Apr 2004
Total Posts : 4968
 
   Posted 6/22/2008 10:16 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
J: There still are SOME differences in rights and liabilities for legally married people even in state law.

Z: Like what?

J: I'm not interested enough to remember what the few differences are at the state level. A homosexual lawyer friend of mine sent an email with the list. Maybe the greater ease of getting alimony or child support in separations is the biggy at the state level. My company just recently provided insurance benefits for unmarried homosexual partners, and they did this because of changes in STATE LAWS. But the more important federal goals are social security benefits and hate speech laws that will be attained more quickly if States start recognizing homosexual marriage.

Supreme Court Justices use European law as grounds for their decisions, so it only makes sense that they would use American State law as well. I realize state law has nothing to do with what the constitution actually says, but these matters are used to give "support" to "constitutional" decisions, nonetheless. And many a political-savvy homosexual knows this. Don't underestimate their intelligence. They're not stupid.

NPR did a talk on it the issue while I was traveling Friday, and they went into the bigger political picture. This is NOT just about labels. Nor is it only about state law. What the average joe off the street says in a spontaneous interview has nothing to do with the bigger political goals of the STRATEGISTS. The strategists know what they're doing, and it ain't just a label change.


 

Back to Top
 

BBBCanada
Registered Member




Date Joined Jun 2001
Total Posts : 2763
 
   Posted 6/23/2008 6:37 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Z: I thought we were talking about gay marriage. I thought I was making an analogy. But I am apparently not a very good communicator. You say that non-governmental entities can be protected by the government through self-restricting laws (correct me if I misrepresent you). I understand this perfectly well. I wonder why you thought it necessary to bring the subject up. I can only guess that it is because I failed to adequately communicate that the bowling and baptism comments were intended to draw analogies to the gay marriage issue.

B:  The point in bringing up the civil law of freedom to associate was to talk about how government protect non-governmental institutions and organizations WITH REGARD TO your bowling team. Your bowling team and churches are protected via the First Amendment. They are protected by having civil rights protections in place such the right to freely associate. It protects them not only from governmental intrusion but also from the intrusion of each other into each other’s sphere. The point behind all that was to speak of how government recognizes these non-governmental institutions and organizations for what they are. A bowling team is not the same as a church. A church is not the same as a family and so on.

One of the ways that government protects marriage is to recognize it for what it is. THAT was the point. Injustice occurs when mis-identification occurs. For a government to tell WH what to do and believe would ultimately be a mis-identification of itself. Government is not a church. The opposite side of the same coin would be that since God ought to be honoured, WH should foist upon citizen’s, through Congress, laws about how God should be honoured.

-------------------------------------------

Z: But I'm hopeful that we are in agreement about my original comment. Gay couples could already legally obtain all the same privileges as a married couple in California before this ruling. This particular ruling only directly legally changes terminology. Do you agree with me up to this point?

B: Agree with the first part. The last two sentences, no. Government ought to protect the rights of those who believe that homosexuality is immoral and it ought to protect the rights of those who accept homosexuality as moral. Thus if a church desires to not marry same sex couples then government ought to protect that. They ought to be free in their friendships, marriages, schools and communities of faith to prohibit and restrict such immoral behavior just as they are free to exercise similar judgements about other behaviors they consider to be immoral. This is government’s political/legal competence. But the same protection should be afforded to homosexuals or those sympathetic to homosexuals in this way as well. They too should be allowed the civic space for their friendships, schools and communities of faith.

What this means is that those homosexuals should not seek government sanction of the removal of all barriers to homosexual practice. Meaning, that those who reject homosexual practice should not be allowed to use the government to prohibit homosexuality in every bedroom, school, and church, etc, so also, those who accept homosexuality should not be allowed to force homosexual practices into every bedroom, school and church. The civic-moral requirement is that all citizen’s be treated fairly, recognizing that friendships, families, schools and churches, etc are protected in their diversity.

The bottom line is this. Government’s role is the proper identification of diverse realities. This is this and it is not that. A church is a church. It is not a family. A company is a company it is not a family. A family is a family. It is not a union. A union is a union it is not a church and so on. At the end of the day, government has to recognize whether there is a difference between a gay relationship and a marriage. My thing is Sahid is that the a lot of the confusion on this issue is not only over what is meant by a differentiated moral discourse or argument, but over the proper identification of marriage.

At the end of the day I cannot accept your analogy of a “sports club” and a “bowling team.” It is not merely over semantics but over what they ARE.

--------------------------------------------

B: Say you pray before a car race. Should that be considered a prayer meeting or a church meeting of some sort?

Z: By whom? The government? The local church? Those participating? My personal feeling are if two or more are gathered in His name, he is among them. Consider it church, a prayer meeting... heck, consider it fried chicken. I don't care what it's considered.

B: By government.

--------------------------------------------

B: Say you have two friends living together but are not sexually involved with each other. Should we call that a marriage?

Z: Who is we? The government? The local church? Those participating? I personally don't make much use of 'marriage' as an institution. If two people commit to sharing everything for their entire lives, they can call it marriage, union, or fried chicken. I don't care what it's called. Why should I care what it's called? The name matters zero. The actually thing itself is what matters. Should the local church call it marriage? If they want. Language is only useful insofar as it signifies very similar referents to its users. So if the church members understand 'marriage' to include "two friends living together but are not sexually involved with each other", then they can go ahead and consider it marriage. But as it's an entirely semantic issue, I only judge it based on its semantic usefulness. There is no platonic ideal, mind-of-God form of 'marriage'. According to the New Testament marriage is something that is best avoided and only indulged as a last resort. That doesn't sound like "two friends living together but are not sexually involved with each other" to me. That seems too praiseworthy to be marriage.

B: Government is who I’m talking about . Is there not a difference between a friendship and a marriage? Language is useful. You and I know what a friendship is when I use the language/symbol. We know what a marriage is. Is there not a difference between these? Is saying a prayer at a car race (we use language/symbol, we “know” what that is) a church service (we use language/symbol, we “know” what that is) or a church (we use language/symbol, we “know” what that is) having a service or mass (we use language/symbol, we “know” what that is) or prayer meeting (we use language/symbol, we “know” what that is)? Is there not a material difference here? If you can’t see the difference between these things using the language or symbol then I fear that either you are downright insane or simply confused over the use of language/symbol--a possible third way is that we see what we want to see.  Don’t get me wrong, there are many of the same descriptives you could use for a tree and a bush, but you couldn’t use the same descriptives for a bush and a plane. Otherwise there is no meaning to our speech. For you to say that it is “entirely a semantic issue” is to argue your conclusion your assumption, one that I don’t accept. So the question would be, what would that material difference be?

-------------------------------------------

B: Is there not a material difference here in which no civil rights are being abridged?

Z: Here is where I simply don't know what you're asking. A material difference between what two things? And how can civil rights be abridged IN a difference? Hopefully, my previous responses address what you are getting at here.

B: A material difference between a friendship and a marriage? Do you not see the difference between these two? Are the civil rights being abridged by not recognizing a friendship as a marriage? When I asked this in the very next question you said: “No they are not.”  But if they are the same, then there would be discrimination, correct?

--------------------------------------------

B: In other words, are those who are in relationships outside of what is identified as a marriage suffering from civil rights discrimination because they are not identified as a marriage?

Z: No, they are not. Now there may be a tribe in some corner of the earth which hunts down, taxes, ridicules, etc. all people who form relationships which are not marriage. I personally have seriously dated two different times. Neither time did I suffer any particular civil rights discrimination as a consequence of being "in relationships outside of what is identified as a marriage". Someone more acquainted with the legal workings of Kansas and Texas can correct me if I'm wrong, but had we been of adequate age, we would be privy to all the privileges enjoyed my a married couple. As far as I know, there is no privilege which is unique to marriage.

B: First, how can you say, “Now there may be a tribe in some corner of the earth which hunts down, taxes, ridicules, etc. all people who form relationships which are not marriage.” when in fact there is no difference between a people who form relationships outside of a marriage and a marriage in your view??? After al, it is semantics. Regardless, the question is, “Would homosexual couples being discriminated if the state doesn’t recognize them as a marriage?” I don’t think they are, but they do. Being treated equally under the law says nothing about the nature of the institutions and organizations in which citizens participate. It says nothing about what CONSTITUES those things. It doesn’t tell you what that something is. It doesn’t give you a definition of what that something is. It doesn’t say, “This is what a marriage is,” “That is a family,” “That is school,” etc. Civil rights concerns itself with people being treated equally DEPENDING on what the material dispute is all about not with the material difference or the structural identity of the thing itself and how people should be treated WITHIN the bonds of that structure--that thing. So, for example, gays should be treated equally with that of heterosexuals. Proper legal and public recognition and protection would mean that homosexuals partners can jointly own property. If other institutions, say, insurance institutions want to recognize homosexual relationships for eligibility of benefits granted to marriages and families? Government doesn’t have a right to thwart that either. If churches want to perform certain ceremonies for gay couples who promise to remain faithful to each other for the rest of their lives? Government doesn’t have a right to thwart that too. So, I agree with civil rights protection, but that says nothing about the material dispute in question. What the thing is.

------------------------------------------

B: Are their civil rights being abridged if society (the law) does not recognize this relationship as a marriage?

Z: No.

B: I agree that civil rights are not being abridged, but I don’t agree that it is semantics. It is because there is a genuine difference that there are no rights being abridged, not because of the eradication of those distinctions.


Brandon
It is the purpose that makes strong the vow, but vows to every purpose must not hold.--A friend.
To love without love is slavery--Mother Teresa

Post Edited (BBBCanada) : 6/23/2008 6:52:24 PM (GMT-5)

Back to Top
 

Sahid
Megistered Rember




Date Joined Jun 2004
Total Posts : 2013
 
   Posted 6/23/2008 9:34 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
B: Agree with the first part. The last two sentences, no. Government ought to protect the rights of those who believe that homosexuality is immoral and it ought to protect the rights of those who accept homosexuality as moral.

Z: The California ruling didn't change this.



B: Thus if a church desires to not marry same sex couples then government ought to protect that. They ought to be free in their friendships, marriages, schools and communities of faith to prohibit and restrict such immoral behavior just as they are free to exercise similar judgements about other behaviors they consider to be immoral.

Z: Or this.



B: But the same protection should be afforded to homosexuals or those sympathetic to homosexuals in this way as well. They too should be allowed the civic space for their friendships, schools and communities of faith.

Z: Or this.... The ruling does not legally affect any of the things you bring up. If it did legally affect these things one way or another, then I might form an opinion. However, nothing has changed. Gay couples can still enjoy the benefits of marriage, just like they could before the ruling. Churches can still refuse to marry anyone they want, just like before the ruling. Nothing has legally changed. You keep bringing up the principle of the matter. I understand the principle just fine. But this ruling doesn't address the principle at all. I've asked repeatedly what does the ruling legally change. This ruling does not grant or abrogate any privileges for anyone. It does not force the church to do anything differently. It does not force the church to perform or recognize gay marriage. So why should the church care? It does not give any new privilege to gay couples. So why should gay couples care? The only reason I can see is Jeff's snowballing idea. But nothing legally happened besides a name change.



B: What this means is that those homosexuals should not seek government sanction of the removal of all barriers to homosexual practice. Meaning, that those who reject homosexual practice should not be allowed to use the government to prohibit homosexuality in every bedroom, school, and church, etc, so also, those who accept homosexuality should not be allowed to force homosexual practices into every bedroom, school and church. The civic-moral requirement is that all citizen’s be treated fairly, recognizing that friendships, families, schools and churches, etc are protected in their diversity.

Z: None of any of this has happened in this case. So why do you bring it up?



B: The bottom line is this. Government’s role is the proper identification of diverse realities.

Z: Government's proper role is not at issue here since government has done NOTHING in this instance.

I ask you plainly: what legal consequence to you see issuing from this ruling... other than a name change? Whose rights were at all affected? Anyone? You said you disagreed that it was only a name change. So what else changed? The rights/privileges the government grants to married couples are already identical to those it grants to gay couples. That hasn't changed. You mentioned the church. But nothing of this has anything to do with the church. If you want to reply in the abstract, fine (it's unnecessary though). But my claim is about this particular case. So tell me what you see happening in this case.



B: At the end of the day I cannot accept your analogy of a “sports club” and a “bowling team.” It is not merely over semantics but over what they ARE.

Z: This particular court case is only concerned with semantics. I agree that "what they are" is important and worth discussing. But THIS court case doesn't touch upon "what they are".



B: Say you pray before a car race. Should that be considered a prayer meeting or a church meeting of some sort?

Z: By whom? The government? The local church? Those participating? My personal feeling are if two or more are gathered in His name, he is among them. Consider it church, a prayer meeting... heck, consider it fried chicken. I don't care what it's considered.

B: By government.

Z: Ok. Does the government actually treat a "church" differently than an informal gathering? If so, it matters. If not, who cares? In the case of marriage and gay union, the government treats them identically. So who cares?



B: Government is who I’m talking about . Is there not a difference between a friendship and a marriage?

Z: You tell me. What rights or privileges distinguish the governments meaning of the terms 'friendship' and 'marriage'? In what way does the government distinguish them? I personally think there's a difference. But since you are talking about the governments use of terms, the way you or I use the terms has no relevance. When you talk about how "we" use the term, it seemed like you were making reference to our personal use of these terms. And this right after telling me we were dealing with the government's use of the terms. You are comparing appels and oranjes. In this particular case of gay marriage, the Californian government's vocabulary does not recognize a necessary distinction between the referents of these two terms. It doesn't matter how you or I use them. You are using the colloquial and technical terms interchangeably. But the California case only affects the technical terms; it doesn't touch colloquial usage. The Californian government can recognize a marriage between a goose and a tree and the church will have no reason to care a bit, because the church's terminology is unaffected by any court ruling.



B: A material difference between a friendship and a marriage? Do you not see the difference between these two?

Z: Not a necessary legal difference, no. Sure, colloquially there is a big difference. But we are talking about government.



B: But if they are the same, then there would be discrimination, correct?

Z: No. It is not necessarily discrimination to legally include either friendship or marriage as a subset of the other. It's only discrimination if the terms lead to distinct treatment. Remember, this ruling does not affect the church's use of terms at all, only the government's.



B: ...when in fact there is no difference between a people who form relationships outside of a marriage and a marriage in your view???

Z: WAAAAAIT a second. "IN MY VIEW"??????? I must be speaking another language. There is a SHARP distinction between the government's use of language and my use of the same language. This court case has NOTHING to do with my view. NOTHING. The government could decide that 1 + 1 = 3, and that would have no bearing AT ALL on my view. There is a great difference between being inside and outside of marriage in my view. Since when are we talking about my view??? I thought we were talking about the California case. The California case does not impact ANYONE'S view of marriage. It only impacts the LEGAL definition of marriage.

I agree that homosexuals were not being discriminated against before being able to legally marry. LEGAL marriage is not LEGALLY unique. My personal understanding of marriage has nothing to do with LEGAL marriage.



B: It is because there is a genuine difference that there are no rights being abridged, not because of the eradication of those distinctions.

Z: Sure, there are genuine differences. We aren't talking about the genuine differences. We are talking about the LEGAL differences. Of which there were none - before or after the ruling.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Post Edited (Sahid) : 6/24/2008 10:52:51 AM (GMT-5)

Back to Top
 

Sahid
Megistered Rember




Date Joined Jun 2004
Total Posts : 2013
 
   Posted 6/23/2008 9:47 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
"The Californian governments recognition of gay marriage impacts ________________'s right of ______________________, because ______________________________."



My one and only contention in this thread is that these blanks cannot be filled in truthfully. Either agree, or give me one example of how to fill them in, or say you have blind faith that they can be filled truthfully but that you just don't know how.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Back to Top
 

Similitude
Registered Member


Date Joined Apr 2004
Total Posts : 4968
 
   Posted 6/24/2008 6:09 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Z: The only reason I can see is Jeff's snowballing idea.
 
J: Based on what my gay lawyer friend told me, there probably are a couple of trivial changes. But the snowball effect is the more important one for sure. My lawyer friend was a judge in California for several years. I'll email him and ask him what state, as opposed to federal, changes may have occurred.


 

Back to Top
 

Laika
Registered Member




Date Joined Mar 2003
Total Posts : 2433
 
   Posted 6/24/2008 8:26 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Sahid said...
"The Californian governments recognition of gay marriage impacts ________________'s right of ______________________, because ______________________________."



My one and only contention in this thread is that these blanks cannot be filled in truthfully. Either agree, or give me one example of how to fill them in, or say you have blind faith that they can be filled truthfully but that you just don't know how.
 
 
 
California continues to allow domestic-partner registration, a right similar to civil unions found in other states.[7] This grants "same-sex couples all state-level rights and obligations of marriage — in areas such as inheritance, income tax, insurance and hospital visitation" but does not apply to "federal-level rights of marriage that cannot be granted by states".[8]

7.^ These were first enacted in 1999 and expanded to cover the states' Community Property regime with effect from 2005.Nullis, Clare “S. Africa first to legalize gay marriage.” The Associated Press. 2006.

8.^ “Recognize Gay Couples, Say 60% of Americans.” Angus Reid Global Monitor : Polls & Research. November 15, 2006

California's domestic-partner registration already gave them rights and the state recognition of these faux marriages may have not added any additional state rights.  And still they're lacking certain federal rights, rights that states can't give.
 
I'm still looking....
 
There are "over a thousand" legal incentives for marriage, according to Tyler — from inheritance laws to hospital visitation rights to tax breaks. "We don't need a piece of paper from the government to validate our relationship," says Tyler, "but the legal rights of marriage are invaluable."
.
.
.
in 2001, Tyler and Olson applied for and received a Los Angeles domestic-partnership license. Then in 2006, they acquired California domestic-partnership status, the many benefits of which are virtually equal to those enjoyed by married heterosexual couples, and which even allows gay couples to file jointly on their state tax returns. However, there are some rights that even California's progressive domestic-partnership benefits don't match.


Post Edited (Laika) : 6/24/2008 8:47:11 AM (GMT-5)

Back to Top
 

BBBCanada
Registered Member




Date Joined Jun 2001
Total Posts : 2763
 
   Posted 6/24/2008 8:48 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Good stuff Bruce. I definitely think that the “environment” plays a role or influences our “sanctification.” Being embodied persons for me also means to be persons who are “captured” in space and time in certain environments. It isn’t merely our physical individual selves i.e. flesh and bones. Being embodied selves means that we are whole persons THROUGH our environments or have the potential to be whole persons through our environments. The self and the environment are connected--a sort of “public self” if you will. Part of our humanization is that we are not concaved selves. Isolated sorts of individuals, but individuals who exist and flourish publicly. This will occur through the expressions of our talents and responsibilities through our callings. Thus, it seems to me that some of our growth can actually be stunted not through decisions that we make (yes through those too, probably more so a combination of both private decisions and public expressions) but by the very conditions that surround us no matter how much we desire something otherwise. The fish needs it’s water.


Brandon
It is the purpose that makes strong the vow, but vows to every purpose must not hold.--A friend.
To love without love is slavery--Mother Teresa

Back to Top
 

BBBCanada
Registered Member




Date Joined Jun 2001
Total Posts : 2763
 
   Posted 6/24/2008 8:59 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Just thought of something...I think about this all the time...but think about how much of a blessing you are to someone else. Think about HOW MUCH that OTHER PERSON is LOSING OUT on enjoyment (that God wants to give them) and growth (that God wants to give them) because YOU don't exercise YOUR GIFT. Hmmm...Damn thats good.


Brandon
It is the purpose that makes strong the vow, but vows to every purpose must not hold.--A friend.
To love without love is slavery--Mother Teresa

Back to Top
 

BBBCanada
Registered Member




Date Joined Jun 2001
Total Posts : 2763
 
   Posted 6/24/2008 9:03 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
One more thing. Think ORCHESTRA. Each playing their own part.


Brandon
It is the purpose that makes strong the vow, but vows to every purpose must not hold.--A friend.
To love without love is slavery--Mother Teresa

Back to Top
 

Sahid
Megistered Rember




Date Joined Jun 2004
Total Posts : 2013
 
   Posted 6/24/2008 10:46 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
"Based on what my gay lawyer friend told me, there probably are a couple of trivial changes."

"However, there are some rights that even California's progressive domestic-partnership benefits don't match."


There may actually be something substantive. If any of us ever discover what that something is, I'll have to revise my position. I will no longer say "It's ridiculous for both sides to get worked up over nothing." Instead I will say "It is ridiculous for both sides to get worked up over such forgettable details." But for the moment I'm sticking to my original claim. Can anyone come up with any particular, legal, more-than-nominal change?

After all this time I think we should be able to agree that my position is at least "largely correct", and so I will briefly say that I think this matter betrays the compulsion to fight simply for the sake of the fight. Those who got involved in this one, whether legally or rhetorically, were so itching for conflict that they grabbed hold of one with no substance at all (or at least only small and forgettable substance). I think this motivation of discord for discord's sake is one major manifestation of all that is opposed to God's kingdom. It is (I say this with a straight face and full sobriety) satanic.

That goes for both sides. First the Jew (and those grafted in, including me) and then the gentile.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Back to Top
 

Laika
Registered Member




Date Joined Mar 2003
Total Posts : 2433
 
   Posted 6/24/2008 11:20 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Sahid said...

There may actually be something substantive. If any of us ever discover what that something is, I'll have to revise my position.
Yeah Sahid, I'm going to give you a technical knockout.
 
From what I've read, California's domestic-partnership laws have granted gays all the state's rights that married people have.
 
 
As of 2007, California affords domestic partnerships all of the same rights and responsibilities as marriages under state law (Cal. Fam. Code §297.5).
.
.
.
Some privileges are not available at all, particularly any federally administered programs. Due to the federal Defense of Marriage Act or DOMA, same-sex couples in marriages, civil unions, or domestic partnerships in the U.S. do not have the 1,138 rights that a married heterosexual couple has under federal law. [2] Likewise, some processes, such as the solemnization of a marriage by clergy has no counterpart in the domestic partnership statutes.
 
If you're bored, here's a 75 page list of federal marriage rights:
 
 
I suspect that they will never be happy....
 


Back to Top
 

Similitude
Registered Member


Date Joined Apr 2004
Total Posts : 4968
 
   Posted 6/24/2008 6:56 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Z: Can anyone come up with any particular, legal, more-than-nominal change?
 
J: My lawyer friend says, as did Laika, that CA's domestic partner law provides virtually the same thing as CA legal marriage. I didn't realize they had domestic partner laws already. I'm pretty sure all states don't have that. But he added that what is important is whether other states will "honor" the marriage under the "full faith and credit" clause of the constitution. Now, there are arguments as to why that clause can't possibly mean that. If LA allows something TX prohibits, it doesn't follow from the Constitution that TX has to allow the LA citizen to come to TX and commit the act with impunity while TX residents can not.
 
But what is important is what Laika says. They ARE looking for more. This is one step on the mile-post. Full federal rights and hate crime laws are the goals. Some of the agenda will come about from continual legislation. Some will come from court decisions. But it is clear that this continued movement is facilitating and expediting both. The squeaky, strategic, and patient wheel gets the grease in politics. Those that are expending great effort and resources in this fight are not doing so over silliness. Those who are NOT expending effort may very well be delighted MERELY with label change.


 

Back to Top
 

Sahid
Megistered Rember




Date Joined Jun 2004
Total Posts : 2013
 
   Posted 6/25/2008 1:15 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Agreed Jeff. Those who see this as only one step to a larger goal... "satanic" is too harsh. And I'm sure almost everyone would jump to talk about larger goals if it were brought up. Thing is, it isn't brought up. Perhaps certain lobbyists and activists have kept such focus, but so far every interview I've heard or read deals with the superficial. Something like: "We were domestic partners and married in Canada, but there was always something missing..." or "This court decision violates the sanctity of marriage". People who spout this nonsense are either fighting for the sake of the fight or don't understand what's going on.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Back to Top
 

BBBCanada
Registered Member




Date Joined Jun 2001
Total Posts : 2763
 
   Posted 6/25/2008 11:14 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Z: None of any of this has happened in this case. So why do you bring it up?

Zach, I realize that much of what I said did not change with the California ruling. But I keep reiterating to you as to why I did bring these things up. Government’s job is to protect the diverse realities. By doing this it first needs to recognize what these realities in fact ARE. So in this case it has to understand that there is difference between a marriage and a friendship--just as it would with the other realities. It has to make a judgment call. This is this and this is not that. So when this is brought up…

“B: The bottom line is this. Government’s role is the proper identification of diverse realities.

Z: Government's proper role is not at issue here since government has done NOTHING in this instance.

I ask you plainly: what legal consequence to you see issuing from this ruling... other than a name change? Whose rights were at all affected? Anyone? You said you disagreed that it was only a name change. So what else changed? The rights/privileges the government grants to married couples are already identical to those it grants to gay couples. That hasn't changed. You mentioned the church. But nothing of this has anything to do with the church. If you want to reply in the abstract, fine (it's unnecessary though). But my claim is about this particular case. So tell me what you see happening in this case.”

I say, yes, government‘s proper role IS at issue (and more fundamentally HOW we govern ourselves) because government **HAS DONE** something here. It has mis-identified the difference between two realities. You are simply arguing your conclusion just as you did with your analogy of the sports club (all male bowling team) and the bowling team. You are arguing that it is merely semantics because you don’t see the difference between those two realities and in this case a difference between a marriage and friendship because of everything else surrounding it ie. they both get benefits, they both get this, they both get that, etc. So it can ONLY be semantics right?

The analogy was off because in reality both the sports club (all male bowling team) and the bowling team ARE protected by government. They both have BASIC civil rights to free association and one club is not being told that they have to have badminton practices or that they have to be a university. Nobody’s rights are being abridged. Neither the bowling team’s nor the badminton team’s rights are being stepped on. And THAT’S the difference. You and I agreed on that. The analogy should more properly be located between a bowling team and a badminton team and or a university, etc.

When it comes to the basic civil rights, both teams should not be ignored. And you and I agree that nobody’s basic civil rights are being ignored here. But civil rights, as I said above, “….concerns itself with people being treated equally DEPENDING on what the material dispute is all about not with the material difference or the structural identity of the thing itself and how people should be treated WITHIN the bonds of that structure--that thing.”

If a bowling team insists on being called a badminton team then I would certainly have some issues with that. They should not be treated as equals. Yes, both have the right to exist, both have the right to freely associate. There are many benefits that should be enjoyed by both teams. However, marriage law, not civil rights law is what is at issue here in this discussion. And it is many homosexuals who are trying to say that they are not being treated fairly (their civil rights are being abridged) because they are being told that they don’t have a right to call themselves a marriage or in the case of my analogy, a bowling team is being refused the “right” to call itself a badminton team or a university or something other than it is.

Government’s proper role is to identify what this or that is and in this case what CONSTITUTES (the material difference) a marriage and what constitutes a friendship. This has nothing to do with the “goodness” or “badness” of these kinds of relationships (these things in themselves) anymore than it has to do with the goodness or badness of heterosexual relationships that may or may not be healthy. Thus, the offshoot questions of the “larger goals” or the like is not really important at this point in legal consideration.

Having said that, MARRIAGE LAW has concerned itself with a PARTICULAR KIND OF ENDURING BOND. Marriage has been identified as a man and a woman that includes sexual intercourse that CAN or MAY lead to the woman’s pregnancy (not that it HAS TO as I‘ve read on these boards before). Can a homosexual relationship do this? No. No matter the commitment or how enduring and loving the relationship is, there can be no sexual intercourse leading to pregnancy. For the law to recognize THIS as a marriage and not some other relationship as a marriage involves no discrimination whatsoever against those whose personal bonds do not and cannot include sexual intercourse.

Someone yelling “DISCRIMINATION!” is more akin to someone who is an unqualified to be a nurse yelling discrimination because they do not get hired to be a nurse (denied opportunities). There is a material difference between a qualified nurse and someone who thinks of himself as a nurse but is not qualified to be one. What divides them is not an illegitimate prejudice by the trained nurse or by hospital administrators who hire nurses!? And so, the question behind marriage, in other words, is a structural one that precedes and underlies lawmaking it is not first of all a legal argument about how people should be treated WITHIN the bonds of that structure as I said before. Is the bowling team being discriminated against because the law and government does not recognize it as badminton team? Is a drama club being discriminated against because the law or government doesn’t recognize it as a union?

So if someone comes along and says to the government, “You need to recognize my bowling team as a badminton team” wouldn’t you think that slightly odd? Who is the side being silly here? You can’t say, “Both sides,” and you surely can’t say the badminton team is. Bowling teams that insist on being called badminton teams or any other kind of team seem like the flakes to me.


Brandon
It is the purpose that makes strong the vow, but vows to every purpose must not hold.--A friend.
To love without love is slavery--Mother Teresa

Back to Top
 

Sahid
Megistered Rember




Date Joined Jun 2004
Total Posts : 2013
 
   Posted 6/25/2008 12:46 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
B: It has mis-identified the difference between two realities.

Z: This is where you're wrong. Reality is not what has been idenitified or misindentified. Reality is not at issue. Legal categorizations might be easier understood if they correspond to some independent reality. That'd be nice. But it is not necessarily (or frequently) the case. There is no reason why legal language must correspond to everyday language.

It might be easier to understand if government didn't use the word 'marriage' at all. What if the government just had something called a CLASS M contract? People joined by CLASS M contract share possessions, can adopt, etc. The CLASS M contract shares traits in common with what you and I would call marriage. Maybe it's a perfect match to our conception of marriage. But that's neither here nor there. Government can organize itself however it chooses. If it wants to look similar to other institutions, that fine, but not obligatory. The very idea of government is that of authority. The government is whatever institution or people have authority over certain people or places. Having authority means they make the rules. They are sovereign. If they want CLASS M contracts to be allowed between two men, that's their prerogative. You may wish government was subject to a higher authority, but no such higher authority is or has ever been legally acknowledged by California (those more acquainted with the details may prove me wrong).

States that claim to be sovereign are claiming to be sovereign. If you claim that someone or something else (God or your idea of marriage) is sovereign over the same jurisdiction, then you are contradicting THE foundational and overarching claim of the "sovereign" state.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Back to Top
 

BBBCanada
Registered Member




Date Joined Jun 2001
Total Posts : 2763
 
   Posted 6/26/2008 9:37 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

B: It has mis-identified the difference between two realities.

Z: This is where you're wrong. Reality is not what has been idenitified or misindentified. Reality is not at issue. Legal categorizations might be easier understood if they correspond to some independent reality. That'd be nice. But it is not necessarily (or frequently) the case. There is no reason why legal language must correspond to everyday language.

It might be easier to understand if government didn't use the word 'marriage' at all. What if the government just had something called a CLASS M contract? People joined by CLASS M contract share possessions, can adopt, etc. The CLASS M contract shares traits in common with what you and I would call marriage. Maybe it's a perfect match to our conception of marriage. But that's neither here nor there. Government can organize itself however it chooses. If it wants to look similar to other institutions, that fine, but not obligatory. The very idea of government is that of authority. The government is whatever institution or people have authority over certain people or places. Having authority means they make the rules. They are sovereign. If they want CLASS M contracts to be allowed between two men, that's their prerogative. You may wish government was subject to a higher authority, but no such higher authority is or has ever been legally acknowledged by California (those more acquainted with the details may prove me wrong).

States that claim to be sovereign are claiming to be sovereign. If you claim that someone or something else (God or your idea of marriage) is sovereign over the same jurisdiction, then you are contradicting THE foundational and overarching claim of the "sovereign" state.

B:  Sorry bud...doesn't do it for me. I don't find your analogy very helpful at all. You are STILL assuming your conclusion that they are both the same. What if the law (not civil rights law but marriage law) stated, "This is what makes CLASS M" or "This is what we mean by "CLASS M" and it listed very specific criteria? See, what I’m saying? All you've done is attempt to get around what that something is by calling it something else. It’s like call a marriage, “CLASS Z” it doesn’t change the thing itself, it would still be what it is. Changing it’s name doesn’t change the reality. And that’s the thing. You are confusing basic civil rights with marriage law. Marriage law **DOES** concern itself with specifics.

When you say, “Maybe it’s a perfect match to our conception of marriage” Let’s look at it like this. Let’s use your example with my badminton example. Both are clubs. Both are teams. Both wear uniforms. Both have team leaders. Both have locker rooms. Both keep score. Both have trophies. Both meet in specialized places. OK? Calling both “CLASS M” is good as far as “sports clubs” are concerned (civil rights), but you can’t call them both “CLASS M” when you seek to identify what they in fact individually are (badminton law/bowling law/marriage law). What they are in their diversity. One is bowling and one is badminton.

And that’s the difference Sahid. Let’s carry this into law speak. Civil rights is about one’s standing in the political community under government. Equal treatment for all citizens means that no citizen should be treated differently than any other citizen, SIMPLY AS CITIZEN. And the whole system depends on government recognizing that much of what people are, as people, is more than simply their identity as citizens. So that means that if citizens are recognized as having religious freedom, then all citizens should enjoy religious freedom. If citizens who have families are deserving of tax breaks for their minor, dependent children, then all citizens with families should enjoy the same treatment. So, civil rights law means that “equal treatment” depends on what is “material” to the law. (The latter phrase about materiality gets at different kinds of primary matters of law---family law, maritime law, education law, etc, and in our examples above, bowling law and badminton law). Therefore, to be able to decide who should enjoy “equal civil treatment” UNDER MARRIAGE LAW requires a PRE-JUDGMENT as to who is included in marriage-law considerations. In our examples above, what or who qualifies as either a bowling team or a badminton team--bowling team mate and a badminton team mate. The way gays are now being dealt with as deserving of consideration under marriage law reveals an arbitrary revision of material marriage law without an actual legal demonstration that a gay relationship is a form of marriage relationship. Under the rubric of civil rights law, the judges and courts are actually going in the back door of marriage law and making the tail of “civil rights” wag the dog of “marriage law.” Capeche?  You are confusing civil rights law with marriage law. Can't do that.


Brandon
It is the purpose that makes strong the vow, but vows to every purpose must not hold.--A friend.
To love without love is slavery--Mother Teresa

Post Edited (BBBCanada) : 6/26/2008 9:44:42 AM (GMT-5)

Back to Top
 

Sahid
Megistered Rember




Date Joined Jun 2004
Total Posts : 2013
 
   Posted 6/27/2008 2:10 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
B: You are STILL assuming your conclusion that they are both the same.

Z: The government MAKES legal terms mean what they do. IF they correspond to their actually colloquial meanings, that's lovely, but not necessary.


B: The way gays are now being dealt with as deserving of consideration under marriage law reveals an arbitrary revision of material marriage law...

Z: Yeah...


B: ...without an actual legal demonstration that a gay relationship is a form of marriage relationship.

Z: They DON'T HAVE TO demonstrate any such thing. Why should they?


B: Under the rubric of civil rights law, the judges and courts are actually going in the back door of marriage law and making the tail of “civil rights” wag the dog of “marriage law.” Capeche?

Z: Of course. So what?


B: You are confusing civil rights law with marriage law.

Z: You are confusing actual marriage with legal marriage. An actual marriage can exist without legal recognition. A legal marriage can exist without any real marriage.

Marriage law is whatever the government says it is. Your civil rights are whatever the government says they are. If government wants to relate them arbitrarily, they can do so. Being sovereign, there are no standards by which they may be judged.

You want to complain about what the government has done. This is a government that you recognize as sovereign I presume. These are legally appointed judges who ruled. What they say goes. They are exercising the state's sovereignty. If one of the checks or balances overrules this decision, then being legally appointed whatever that check or balance says goes. And whatever they say, they are your sovereign government. That makes them right - regardless of what they say or do.

If they want to confuse marriage law and civil rights, so what? They are allowed. If the legal processes of a sovereign power come to a decision legally, then it is truth - even if they say 1 + 1 = 3.


-------------


But all this, ALL THIS, is beside the point, because you can't answer my simple question.

"The Californian governments recognition of gay marriage impacts ________________'s right of ______________________, because ______________________________."

Here I'll make it easier:

"The Californian governments recognition of gay marriage violated the law of ________________, because ______________________________."

The decision didn't affect anyone's rights. It didn't violate any law. There is NO legal consequence AT ALL. If you are aware of one, just name it.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Post Edited (Sahid) : 6/27/2008 2:14:53 AM (GMT-5)

Back to Top
 

Similitude
Registered Member


Date Joined Apr 2004
Total Posts : 4968
 
   Posted 6/28/2008 10:04 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Z: Here I'll make it easier:

"The Californian governments recognition of gay marriage violated the law of ________________, because ______________________________."
 
J: Don't know about Brandon, but my answer would be,
 
"The Californian governments recogition of gay marriage violated the law of God because there is no power but of God: the powers that be are ordained of God (Rom. 13:1).
 
Now if you read the rest of Rom. 13, it is obvious that Paul is saying the same thing as Genesis (after the flood) and Deuteronomy--that God delegated to human society (not individuals) the role of wielding justice as a means of motivating people FROM EVIL by FEAR of just recompense. Thus, God never ordained any human "power" to do evil. And of course we could go into the ideas of jurisdiction and usurpation to expound on this thesis. Jurisdictional boundaries and usurpation are ideas that have bona-fide moral import.
 
But isn't it arbitrary, and hence evil, to tax people so one group can get certain monetary benefits at the expense of another when there is no GOOD to be attained by this? How is the world gonna be better off because gay couples now get monetary benefits at the expense of their neighbors? I realize the same question can be asked of married heterosexual couples. And I think it OUGHT to. And it ought to be answered with a justification grounded in consequentialism.
 
I would go further and say how is the world better off for penalizing hate speech against classes or groups but NOT against individuals? What argument could be made to justify the one over the other? Justice doesn't apply to groups defined in terms of some classification. Class membership, per se, can't even exempt one from capital punishment.
 
Rather, justice applies to individuals because of their individual capacities which ground their rights/duties. Only individuals are real entities. Only individuals HAVE God-given rights and duties. And government has never been delegated the power to CREATE rights that have no REAL relation to a common good of society grounded in human capacities and the rights/duties entailed in those capacities.
 
But since rights and duties are correlative, it follows that my view can only be true IF humans HAVE duties. This means, in keeping with your non-covenanter view, that once a human is mentally capable of recognizing that he/she is obligated to live in peace with the creator, the only way they can retain non-accountable status while refusing to perform their duty, is to just commit suicide then. To continue to live sinfully in the knowledge that you are causing sentient dissatisfaction to God is to be accountable.
 
Where capacities are GIVEN, choices are REQUIRED. Jesus didn't say where people CONSENT to have capacities, choices are REQUIRED. But one can choose to not have capacities by just committing suicide and exiting the moral order. This is the only conceivable way (and I'm not sure it is even a real way) to avoid accountability that I can see. So people that are actually running around participating in society are not such non-accountable people, by definition.
 
In short, all makes sense once accountability is real. But since you don't believe in accountability in terms of DEGREE (only annihilation), none of this matters to you. But what else could "where much/little is given, much/little is required" even mean but accountability? How does the idea of degree (much vs. little) play into annihilation? Are there degrees of being annihilated? And if so, wouldn't this entail the very bona-fide idea of accountability you're trying to avoid?
 
P.S. Some say that God gave humans civil law because that was the greatest good they were capable of until the NT times. But isn't obvious that NT times are not unique? We could say that the Spirit provides for different human capacities. But that would still only apply to those having the Spirit. It would still be true, by that argument, that civil government is probably the best means to the greatest good that can be attained by human society as a whole. And Paul seems to be saying that the State's ministry UNTO GOOD for human society, via its ordinances and associated punishments, are essentially  the very ordinances of God for this very reason (Rom. 13:2).
 
What must be true for this argument to be sound is that negative motivation CAN be the best case scenario in some cases. It does not follow that it is the best motivation in all cases. Indeed, Christ and Paul seem to be arguing that the opposite is the case--namely, that there are many cases where the greatest good is attained by overcoming evil WITH good, as opposed to punishment. And for that consequentialist reason, we are to do that in those cases.
 
But how could Paul say, on the one hand that we are to overcome evil with good, and on the other that the State, by instilling fear, is a ministry unto good, unless there is a place for positive AND negative motivation in this world. God Himself uses negative motivation when He disciplines His own. He judges us when we don't judge ourselves lest we be condemned with the world (1 Cor. 11:31-32). 
 
And of course we aren't to take brethren to law. It is better to be defrauded in those cases because to take a fellow-believer to law is to suggest, by implication, that they (secular judges, etc) are wiser than God, as Paul says (1 Cor. 6).


 

Post Edited (Similtude) : 6/28/2008 11:53:42 AM (GMT-5)

Back to Top
 

Sahid
Megistered Rember




Date Joined Jun 2004
Total Posts : 2013
 
   Posted 6/29/2008 3:40 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
J: Now if you read the rest of Rom. 13, it is obvious that Paul is saying the same thing as Genesis (after the flood) and Deuteronomy--that God delegated to human society (not individuals) the role of wielding justice as a means of motivating people FROM EVIL by FEAR of just recompense.

Z: So what do you do with someone like me or Menno Simmons or John Yoder or Dorothy Day or Leo Tolstoy or Andre Trocme or Stanley Hauerwas? If it's obvious, then why don't we see it? Are we stupid? Stubborn? What, besides a preconceived notion that they SHOULD go together, leads you to believe that the passages are meant to convey the same message? I don't want to be unfair, but if memory serves, you justify this claim by appeal to Matt 5:17. But since your interpretation of this passage is also disputed, such an appeal amounts to question begging. Your conclusion is based on a premise which is in just as much need of support.


J: Only individuals are real entities. Only individuals HAVE God-given rights and duties.

Z: How do you support this claim?


J: But since rights and duties are correlative...

Z: Or this?


J: But what else could "where much/little is given, much/little is required" even mean but accountability?

Z: "And that slave who knew his master's will and did not get ready or act in accord with his will, will receive many lashes,"

Slavery is bad. Even for the Jews. It was the last resort of the poorest of the poor. It was a legal agreement - a bilateral covenant. And even within the covenant of slavery, Jesus is distinguishing degrees of accountability. Why rule out zero accountability for those with who have agreed to zero covenant. Wouldn't that fit the teaching of proportionality here? But maybe Jesus is referring to Roman slaves or American slaves held against their will - that was probably the reality for Jewish slaves too. Then I could see how you'd say the proportionality isn't so well correlated. But I've answered the question. It still means accountability, just not the accountability cast upon everyone regardless of choice which you advocate.


J: How does the idea of degree (much vs. little) play into annihilation?

Z: I'd just extend this idea into our context. In our society there are people who have not entered into the covenant of slavery. So it becomes "much vs. little vs. none". So the consequences would be many lashes, few lashes, or none.


J: Are there degrees of being annihilated?

Z: I don't imagine so. Different times, different reasons maybe.


J: ...civil government is probably the best means to the greatest good that can be attained by human society as a whole. And Paul seems to be saying that the State's ministry UNTO GOOD for human society, via its ordinances and associated punishments, are essentially the very ordinances of God for this very reason (Rom. 13:2).

Z: No. He says this for a different reason: because EVERY (not just some - not only the just ones), EVERY authority (even abusive fathers, and dirty cops, Nazis, and the invaders of East Timor), EVERY authority is established by God. That is the reason Paul gives for saying that those who oppose authority oppose God. He does not appeal to consequentialism to justify the correlation between God's ordinances and state ordinances.


J: What must be true for this argument to be sound is that negative motivation CAN be the best case scenario in some cases.

Z: Sure. But it's an argument Paul doesn't make. In fact such an argument opposes those made by Paul and other New Testament authors, so that both cannot be true.


J: Indeed, Christ and Paul seem to be arguing that the opposite is the case--namely, that there are many cases where the greatest good is attained by overcoming evil WITH good, as opposed to punishment.

Z: Really? Where do you see Christ or Paul making the greater good argument? I'd be interested in the context or those arguments.


J: But how could Paul say, on the one hand that we are to overcome evil with good, and on the other that the State, by instilling fear, is a ministry unto good, unless there is a place for positive AND negative motivation in this world.

Z: Agree 100%. There is a place for both. The church does one. The state does the other. (I do believe in the legitimacy of Church discipline which is negative. But here we have bilateral covenant.)


J: God Himself uses negative motivation when He disciplines His own.

Z: Yes. Let me echo. "His own." And how does he handle those who are not his own? This is not a hard question to answer. Let me check the news real quick... Yep. God is letting Mugabe make his own decisions. The state does what it wants. Non-believers do what they want. Christians are even allowed to do what they want: submit to Christ's lordship and discipline.


J: And of course we aren't to take brethren to law. It is better to be defrauded in those cases because to take a fellow-believer to law is to suggest, by implication, that they (secular judges, etc) are wiser than God, as Paul says (1 Cor. 6).

Z: Well... I agree that we shouldn't take each other to court. But I don't see the wiser-than-God argument in chapter 6. More like wiser-than-the-saints. Here you've given an explanation that that slightly distorts what the text says. This time it didn't really matter. But in cases like Romans 13, it does matter what is actually said in the text.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Post Edited (Sahid) : 6/29/2008 3:45:48 AM (GMT-5)

Back to Top
 

Similitude
Registered Member


Date Joined Apr 2004
Total Posts : 4968
 
   Posted 6/29/2008 11:27 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Z: "And that slave who knew his master's will and did not get ready or act in accord with his will, will receive many lashes,"

Slavery is bad. Even for the Jews. It was the last resort of the poorest of the poor. It was a legal agreement - a bilateral covenant. And even within the covenant of slavery, Jesus is distinguishing degrees of accountability. Why rule out zero accountability for those with who have agreed to zero covenant. Wouldn't that fit the teaching of proportionality here? But maybe Jesus is referring to Roman slaves or American slaves held against their will - that was probably the reality for Jewish slaves too. Then I could see how you'd say the proportionality isn't so well correlated. But I've answered the question. It still means accountability, just not the accountability cast upon everyone regardless of choice which you advocate.
 
J: It is the MASTER that gives lashes. You have argued that God doesn't hold people accountable. He only gives them what they want or choose. I'm not going to rehash our argument on this because you never would say that God ressurects for the PURPOSE of holding people accountable. You say God ressurects people because they CHOSE to be ressurected. But people can't CHOOSE to be ressurected. They might WANT to be ressurected. But God doesn't give everyone what they want. He doesn't even give everyone everything they ask Him for. This is not controversial to me.
 
Your view conflates a wish with a real volitional choice. A choice is an exercise of a volitional capacity made in time. Humans have no CAPACITY to ressurect themselves. Therefore they can't CHOOSE it. Therefore, your whole bi-lateral covenant thing makes no sense with respect to ressurection or post-mortem consequences.
 
Z: No. He says this for a different reason: because EVERY (not just some - not only the just ones), EVERY authority (even abusive fathers, and dirty cops, Nazis, and the invaders of East Timor), EVERY authority is established by God. That is the reason Paul gives for saying that those who oppose authority oppose God. He does not appeal to consequentialism to justify the correlation between God's ordinances and state ordinances.
 
AND...
 
Z: Really? Where do you see Christ or Paul making the greater good argument? I'd be interested in the context or those arguments.
J: Zach, read the verses of Rom. 13 and note the use of the words like "FOR" and "THEREFORE." At no point does Paul say we should submit to authorities or pay them taxes except for the fact that what they do (bearing the sword of God's vengeance) is a ministry to GOOD. If that is not consequentialism, I don't know what is. And this follows RIGHT after he says we, as individuals, are not to avenge ourselves, but attempt to overcome evil with good.
 
It doesn't matter that governments do evil things. So do parents. But BECAUSE their (state/parents) exercise of authority results in a lesser evil than the absence of such authority, their exercise of GOD-given authority IS a ministry UNTO good. Does this mean that we must always submit? No. It is the very fact that we only submit to authorities because of the good that results from that exercise that we can discern WHEN to be unsubmissive. By your view of Rom. 13, it seems we could never refuse submission to government. Yet you don't believe that. How, then, are you not being illogical, here? Or are you saying that Rom. 13 is to be ignored by christians because it contradicts Christ?
 
With respect to Matt. 5, my point has always been that Christ was not trying to trump the Law, but explain how to adjudicate it. And the Law provided for government. Therefore, government was not being denounced by him as some intrinsic evil. Jesus says the Father avenges. Therefore, there is nothing irrational about God delegating that role to "the authorities" for the purpose of temporal deterrance.
 
Divine vengeance is either evil or not. If God is good and He avenges, then divine vengeance is not evil. This only contradicts Matt. 5 if you assume that "do not resist evil" is absolute. But you don't say "give to him who asks is absolute." So I don't see what grounds your distinction between the two phrases (one being absolute and the other not) such that you are warranted in rendering the rest of the bible one huge contradiction to the one phrase in Matthew with respect to the legitimacy of government.
 
By your view, the OT really does rule out the legitimacy of government merely by saying "love thy neighbor as thyself." But that, itself, would prove too much. For it would imply that the Torah is one contradiction after another. And if that is so, we are free to take whichever OT verses as we choose. We could do the same with Christ's language by absolutizing some of his phrases even when they would contradict other of his statements by doing so.
 
For example, we could say that since Christ said that the Father avenges AND that we are to be perfect as our Father in heaven, that we are to avenge. How can we make exegetical progress with such an approach? It would constantly create antagonism between different statements that Christ made.
 
I only bring all this up in this thread because nothing that Brandon is arguing about jurisdiction has any relevance UNTIL you recognize the legitimacy of civil government and the fact that it has NO absolute sovereignty. Jurisdiction has no moral import apart from the legitmacy of civil government. And the state, even if divinely authorized, can only have functional sovereignty within its DELEGATED JURISDICTION.
 
The only reason why we should do or not do ANYTHING is because of consequentialism--NOT because of might makes right or because of the mere fact that Jesus IS lord. Jesus must be RIGHTEOUS for his lordship to amount to a hill of beans with respect to human motivation. E.G., Satan is stronger than me in some respects, but that in of itself has no motivating influence on me because his might is not exercised for my good.

J: God Himself uses negative motivation when He disciplines His own.

Z: Yes. Let me echo. "His own." And how does he handle those who are not his own? This is not a hard question to answer. Let me check the news real quick... Yep. God is letting Mugabe make his own decisions. The state does what it wants. Non-believers do what they want. Christians are even allowed to do what they want: submit to Christ's lordship and discipline.

J: 1) The fact that God is not intervening, personally, does not mean that Mugabe will not be held accountable eventually in a ressurection to judgment. Prove THAT and you're saying something relevant. 2) God disciplines His own whether they want discipline or not. Nowhere does it say that God disciplines His own if they WANT it. When comparing His discipline to human parental discipline, the writer of Hebrews says discipline in both cases is grievous. He does NOT say that children WANT or CHOOSE discipline. This is non-controversial to me. Did you want or choose discipline when you were a child? I know I didn't.


 

Post Edited (Similtude) : 6/29/2008 11:54:24 AM (GMT-5)

Back to Top
 

Sahid
Megistered Rember




Date Joined Jun 2004
Total Posts : 2013
 
   Posted 6/29/2008 1:37 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
J: You say God ressurects people because they CHOSE to be ressurected.

Z: I don't recall ever saying that. If memory serves, I specifically argued against that (with the implication that God grants the ability to actualize this and every other choice). This is a caricature of my position which adds things I firmly reject.


J: Your view conflates a wish with a real volitional choice. A choice is an exercise of a volitional capacity made in time. Humans have no CAPACITY to ressurect themselves. Therefore they can't CHOOSE it.

Z: All this is true except the word "Your" at the beginning. It is not my view at all.


J: Zach, read the verses of Rom. 13 and note the use of the words like "FOR" and "THEREFORE." At no point does Paul say we should submit to authorities or pay them taxes except for the fact that what they do (bearing the sword of God's vengeance) is a ministry to GOOD.

Z: This is plainly false.

"...for there is no authority except that which God has established."

"...Consequently, he who rebels against the authority is rebelling against what God has instituted"

Paul does say, "For he is God's servant to do you good. But if you do wrong, be afraid, for he does not bear the sword for nothing. He is God's servant, an agent of wrath to bring punishment on the wrongdoer."

But none of this constitutes a consequentalist or greater-good argument. He is saying that you should submit to authority, because authority (ALL authority, Nazis and Romans included) rewards good and punishes evil. What this passage falls short of doing is justifying such state behavior. Paul's point is that we are to submit to EVERY authority, even those that are obviously evil, even those condemned as evil by the prophets. Paul is speaking of EVERY authority. So if he is making a greater-good argument it must apply to EVERY authority. Does it apply to Nazis? Does it apply to the Nazis and the Allies simultaneously? Or if the anachronism is a problem, does it apply to the Greeks and Maccabees simultaneously?


J: If that is not consequentialism, I don't know what is.

Z: Paul says we should submit and be good because EVERY authority rewards good and punishes evil. He DOES NOT say that the state is just in doing so, because it results in greater good. THAT is what would be consequentialism. And THAT is what is noticeably lacking from the text, hundreds of years of wishful Constantinian thinking not withstanding.


J: But BECAUSE their (state/parents) exercise of authority results in a lesser evil than the absence of such authority, their exercise of GOD-given authority IS a ministry UNTO good.

Z: This idea is nowhere to be found in Romans 13.


J: Does this mean that we must always submit? No.

Paul: Everyone must submit himself to the governing authorities, for there is no authority except that which God has established.

Z: I don't know how it could be any clearer.


J: It is the very fact that we only submit to authorities because of the good that results from that exercise that we can discern WHEN to be unsubmissive.

Z: No. It is because "there is no authority except that which God has established" that "everyone must submit himself to the governing authorities".


J: By your view of Rom. 13, it seems we could never refuse submission to government. Yet you don't believe that.

Z: I don't? That's news to me! I thought I'd been harping on this for a couple years now. I thought I was getting annoying because I said it too much.


J: For example, we could say that since Christ said that the Father avenges AND that we are to be perfect as our Father in heaven, that we are to avenge. How can we make exegetical progress with such an approach? It would constantly create antagonism between different statements that Christ made.

Z: We could use some of the basic rules of interpretation - like looking at context for instance.


J: I only bring all this up in this thread because nothing that Brandon is arguing about jurisdiction has any relevance UNTIL you recognize the legitimacy of civil government and the fact that it has NO absolute sovereignty.

Z: Tell that to civil government. Tell it that it has no absolute sovereignty. The government will listen politely and then ignore you. Talk til you're blue in the face about higher authority; the state has its own idea. Brandon wants to apply God's law to American law. What Brandon fails to understand is that this would amount to revolution. The state is fundamentally opposed to God's sovereignty. Even the most naive, optimistic outlook only puts the will of the people at the top of the heap. Maybe if these people were to conform American law to the law of God, it would still be the choice of the people. They would still be the gatekeepers - still ultimately sovereign. Vote Jesus for president; you are still retaining the authority to install him - still retaining ultimate sovereignty.


J: 1) The fact that God is not intervening, personally, does not mean that Mugabe will not be held accountable eventually in a ressurection to judgment. Prove THAT and you're saying something relevant.

Z: Prove the opposite and so will you.


J: 2) God disciplines His own whether they want discipline or not. Nowhere does it say that God disciplines His own if they WANT it. When comparing His discipline to human parental discipline, the writer of Hebrews says discipline in both cases is grievous. He does NOT say that children WANT or CHOOSE discipline.

Z: The very fact they they are his is voluntary. Sure, we may not want the particulars, but we have already submitted to his lordship.


J: Did you want or choose discipline when you were a child? I know I didn't.

Z: Did you submit to Christ's lordship involuntarily? I know I didn't.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Post Edited (Sahid) : 6/29/2008 1:40:11 PM (GMT-5)

Back to Top
 

Similitude
Registered Member


Date Joined Apr 2004
Total Posts : 4968
 
   Posted 6/29/2008 7:22 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Am I wrong in remembering that you don't believe God holds people accountable? Do you believe that God gives covenanters what they "want" with respect to their covenantal systems? If so, does the bible say that anywhere? Do you believe God gives every person everything they want? If so, what verse do you get that from--the one that says "ask and it shall be given?" I think I remember you saying that if that verse is absolutely true, it creates an existential contradiction. If so, why should it be used in an argument against your fellow-man?

J: 2) God disciplines His own whether they want discipline or not. Nowhere does it say that God disciplines His own if they WANT it. When comparing His discipline to human parental discipline, the writer of Hebrews says discipline in both cases is grievous. He does NOT say that children WANT or CHOOSE discipline.

Z: The very fact they they are his is voluntary. Sure, we may not want the particulars, but we have already submitted to his lordship.

 
J: We wouldn't BE disciplined unless we were unsubmissive to Christ's lordship in some particular.
 
J: Zach, read the verses of Rom. 13 and note the use of the words like "FOR" and "THEREFORE." At no point does Paul say we should submit to authorities or pay them taxes except for the fact that what they do (bearing the sword of God's vengeance) is a ministry to GOOD.

Z: This is plainly false.

"...for there is no authority except that which God has established."

"...Consequently, he who rebels against the authority is rebelling against what God has instituted"

Paul does say, "For he is God's servant to do you good. But if you do wrong, be afraid, for he does not bear the sword for nothing. He is God's servant, an agent of wrath to bring punishment on the wrongdoer."

But none of this constitutes a consequentalist or greater-good argument.
 
J: The word "FOR" in "For he is God's minister unto good for you" most certainly DOES establish the consequentialist argument in the text. The same is made for why we should pay them taxes. NO where does it say they are authorities MERELY because they have might.
 
J: But BECAUSE their (state/parents) exercise of authority results in a lesser evil than the absence of such authority, their exercise of GOD-given authority IS a ministry UNTO good.

Z: This idea is nowhere to be found in Romans 13.
 
J: How else COULD it be a minister unto good? It can't be because everything it does IS good (same with parental authority). That is obviously false. If you can think of another way it can be a minister unto good, fine. I can't.
 
J: If that is not consequentialism, I don't know what is.

Z: Paul says we should submit and be good because EVERY authority rewards good and punishes evil. He DOES NOT say that the state is just in doing so, because it results in greater good. THAT is what would be consequentialism.
 
J: Consequentialism is the view that what I do is what brings me the best consequences. Paul says submit to and pay taxes to government because it is a minister to my good. How could it be more clear? It doesn't follow that everything they do is just or good. All that is required for the state to be a minister of good in the role of God's own servant is that 1) God delegated to them the authority to do justice (not injustice, since God judges justly) and 2) that they serve, in the exercise of their authority, either as a good which is greater, or an evil which is less, than that which would result in the absence of such authority. Same applies for parents and so on. This is quintessential consequentialism.
 
In Rom. 13, Paul is only arguing for why we DO submit to authorities. He, like the other apostles and OT saints, was perfectly aware that they were to be disobeyed at times as well. He doesn't address that point in that chapter. But he does qualify WHY we're to be submissive, thereby leaving logical room for those cases when the apostles were unsubmissive to government.
 
J: For example, we could say that since Christ said that the Father avenges AND that we are to be perfect as our Father in heaven, that we are to avenge. How can we make exegetical progress with such an approach? It would constantly create antagonism between different statements that Christ made.

Z: We could use some of the basic rules of interpretation - like looking at context for instance.
 
J: And the definition of the word "FOR."
 
Z: Brandon wants to apply God's law to American law. What Brandon fails to understand is that this would amount to revolution.
 
J: Brandon was talking about jurisdictional boundaries. Nothing about discerning jurisdictional boundaries has anything to do with revolution unless you mean that any disobedience to the state is revolution. Moreover, there are many areas where the state goes beyond what I think are its jurisdictional boundaries. But I don't think I am to be unsubmissive in all of these cases anyway. A jurisdictional boundary is one thing; non-submission is another. The same rule applies for parental authority.
 
J: By your view of Rom. 13, it seems we could never refuse submission to government. Yet you don't believe that.

Z: I don't? That's news to me! I thought I'd been harping on this for a couple years now. I thought I was getting annoying because I said it too much.
 
J: Then what constitutes the grounds of when we obey the government? If the government tells you to do something Jesus never told you to do, how do you know whether to submit or not? You don't think it has to do with consequentialism. So what is it?


 

Post Edited (Similtude) : 6/29/2008 9:37:46 PM (GMT-5)

Back to Top
 

BBBCanada
Registered Member




Date Joined Jun 2001
Total Posts : 2763
 
   Posted 7/1/2008 10:03 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Richard Mouw of Fuller Theological Seminary weighs in: Marriage: the Public Debate


Brandon
It is the purpose that makes strong the vow, but vows to every purpose must not hold.--A friend.
To love without love is slavery--Mother Teresa

Back to Top
 
New Topic Post Reply Printable Version
62 posts in this thread.
Viewing Page :
 1  2  3 
   
Forum Information
Currently it is Monday, November 09, 2026 1:39 PM (GMT -6)
There are a total of 97,718 posts in 6,040 threads.
In the last 3 days there were 0 new threads and 0 reply posts. View Active Threads