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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 6/28/2003 6:52 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Whoa, Albert.

So much to digest.

Thanks for clearing up the "quote" business.

I can see that your "existential" framework makes for quite a difference between us.

You made a mess of the Trinity by turning the Son and the Spirit into created being. (We need history here!)

Speaking of history... those who developed the doctrines, themselves, never felt that they had things in a "nutshell." They felt VERY uneasy with even the thought that it be treated like arithmatic. Mystery is that we know Father and Son and Spirit. We know that each of them is Personal because we know each as God. Yet we know only one God. Gregory of Naz. and Gregory Nyssa's expressions are good on this mystery. No wonder they talk of three flames and one flame. It doesn't describe or analyse God, but it does give a good picture of both our real experience and our limitednesses.

Fred


quote:
Albert: As I understand it, the Greek framework in your quote argues that the personal hypostasis of the Father wills the substance of the one God to be and to be one God, and wills the hypostases of the Son and the Holy Spirit.


I'm uncomfortable with this. I know God's will ONLY in the Economy. I do NOT know God as essence. Only the Persons of the Trinity do. I don't embrace the phrase: "the Father wills the substance of the one God." Water getting deep, but it seems that it creates a linkage: God...wills...substance. Maybe you don't like that anymore than I do.

I especially don't like that the Person of the Second and the Third are then "willed." I agree with you that it would make them created. I hope you agree with me that such is plain WRONG.

"BEGOTTEN, NOT MADE"


quote:
Albert: these early writers are operating from a very different metaphysical framework to what I am.


CLEARLY. And I think you identify it as the "existential" thing. I'm share being different from the other view you described; but I differ with you on the "existential" thing.

How can Creatures define their Creator.


quote:
Albert: an original personal primordial subject (which I guess you could call a hypostasis, although I think that's misleading) "differentiated" into Father, Son and Holy Spirit as first act.


This seems very CONTRARY to the declarations made: "ETERNALLY BEGOTTEN."


quote:
Albert: an original personal primordial subject. . ."differentiated" into Father, Son and Holy Spirit as first act. . .and brought time into being.


Now, you EITHER have Time before the Creation, OR you have created for yourself what you mistakenly got from the Greek writer but did not yourself like at all: the Son and Spirit as creatures. Wow!


quote:
Albert: This act also brought into being the thing that plays the role of the "substance" of God in my view, the phenomenal consciousness which they all share.


My recommendation is that you STOP calling it an "act." "Act" speaks to a one time. Do you have THREE God's? "Eternally Begotten" is an ongoing and unbeginning thing. (Right?) I read impressionistically when I'm not familiar with things--your ideas are unfamiliar to me. So, I like the part about focusing the commonness in the Father. That sounds familiar. But...


quote:
Albert: Please keep in mind that my concept of a person or subject is basically existentialist, not classical. So I regard the subject as being unanalyzable, as having no attributes, as having its essence determined only by its actions.


MOST of that sounds fine. But I'm not quick to make the attributes be after the person any more than I am to accept the Western attributes preceeding person. I made this mistake when I was seeing this all for the first time. (I hoped it would be simple; but it is not!!!) Run from the temptation to make it fit expectations.

But, what I'm troubled by is the "existentialist" part.

Part of the problem -- seems to me -- is that it makes God passible. There are other problems too though.


quote:
Albert: Essentialism I would define as the view that the person of God (note, person, not substance) is something which has eternal attributes which were "given" and not chosen by the person. So for example, many people who say that God's nature is good, mean by that there is some thing "the good" which eternally resides in God and motivates or influences or (for some Calvinists) causally determines his actions.


I think I'm with you there.


quote:
Albert: As actualist/functionalist view says...


I'd CAUTION that conceptual handles like "actualist/functionalist" are merely tools. Don't expect everything to conform to categories. (JUST LIKE YOU SAID IN ANOTHER THREAD RECENTLY.


quote:
Albert: The person's essence is determined by its choices. This is an existentialist conception of the person or the subject.


You NEED, here, a differentiation between Essence and Energies! The Persons SHARE one will. We know/experience that will, which puts it in the energies category. The Godhead has ONE CAUSE--THE FATHER. The Nicene Creed says, "I believe in one God, and explains: the Father Almighty, Maker of heaven and earth, and of all things visible and invisible" The Heidelberg over neatens by assigning creation to the Father, salvation to the Son
quote:
Q. 24.
How are these articles divided?

A.

Into three parts; the first is of God the Father, and our creation; the second of God the Son, and our redemption; the third of God the Holy Ghost, and our sanctification.


While the Nicene Creed says: "And in one Lord Jesus Christ. . .by whom all things were made. "

    ttp://www.oca.org/pages/orth_chri/Orthodox-Faith/Doctrine/Holy-Trinity.html "...the full manifestation of the Holy Trinity: the Father through the Son in the Spirit to us; and we in the Spirit through the Son to the Father."
      br>

      quote:
      Albert: The Father is the Father because he freely chooses to play a particular role, as law-giver.


      This seems to be getting ahead of the story. The Father was Father to the Son "the only-begotten Son of God, begotten of the Father before all worlds"

      (I keep wondering; are you "Oneness?" Modalist?)


      quote:
      Albert: The Son is the son because he freely choose to play a particular role, as in submission to the Father.


      This divides the Son from the Divine will. "Submission" is only in the humanity of Christ. And St. Maximus the Confessor showed very clearly that aligning humanity to the divine will COMPLETES humanity rather than subsumes it. St. John Chrysostom (in his 1st Corinthians Homily XXXIX) shows that the "submission" part is a figure of speech. www.ccel.org/fathers2/NPNF1-12/npnf1-12-44.htm#P1912_1165237

      quote:
      .
      .
      .




      quote:
      Albert: he Holy Spirit is the Holy Spirit because he plays a particular role, as bringing unity between the Father and the Son. But "Father", "Son" and "Holy Spirit" are functional designations, not ontological ones.


      Again, I' reading only impressionistically. But I want to re-ask: This sounds "Modalist" ("functional designations") Are you "Oneness?" You differentiate your position from "Western" and say "Eastern" is also different from Western. But while that makes it seem that your position resembles Easterm...I'm finding it to be quite different from the Orthodox.


      quote:
      Albert: ...also sees the Holy Spirit as being relational between the Father and the Son (he proceeds from both, not just from the Father).


      AUGUSTINE's Social theory of the Trinity.

      Actually, I see many great contradictions in what you are saying.


      quote:
      Albert: The concept of "differentiation" is important from my perspective, since I want to avoid the idea that an initial unitarian God created the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, which would be just as bad as the Greek view which implies that the Father created the Son and Holy Spirit.


      FIRST OFF, THE ORTHODOX DO NOT SAY THAT THE SON (OR THE SPIRIT) ARE "CREATED!" (NICEA)

      GO READ THE GREGORYs. READ BASIL.


      quote:
      Albert: Rather, it was a willing in different, mutually exclusive directions at once.


      WEIRD.


      quote:
      Albert: This initial willing as it were "split" the primordial subject (pure being) into three. ()uote]

      DITTO.


      quote:
      Albert: "split" the primordial subject (pure being)


      FLAWED!!! AGAIN, YOU HAVE "PURE BEING" IN A "BEFORE."

      Where do you gain perspective to say this. (Read Job.)



    • quote:
      Albert: I happen to think that existential phenomenology provides some very useful insights which I think are correct in their own right, but are also useful in developing an understanding of the trinity, the hypostatic union, and other matters.


      I think that the application of "existential phenomenology" to the trinity might be simply a WRONG TURN.


      quote:
      Albert: As to the persons of the trinity "being God" by virtue of loving one another, no I don't think that.


      You just introduced time/sequence into it!!!!! ("by virtue of")


      [quote]Albert: But saying "God is love" doesn't mean that love is constitutive of God, any more than saying "I am a bad Autralian rules football player" means that being a bad Australian rules football player is constitutive of me. Being love is a logical consequence of being God, a corollary of being God if you will. But being God means being the creator, the omniscient, omnipotent origin of all things. When Jesus says "I am the truth", I take that to mean that he knows all truth and expresses only truth. I don't take it woodenly literally to mean that truth is suddenly a "thing" which exists in Jesus. It isn't. Truth consists in propositions, not in things.


    • HOW DID YOU GET THAT SO COMPLETELY BACKWARDS????

      I think I just read you saying "being God means being the creator." Wasn't God God before the Creation? Of isn't the Son God -- The Son is not the origin of the Father? You accept "creator" as necessary of God, but you lay aside "Love" and "Truth" "Truth" is beyond our Evangelical framework: we reduce it to mere data as yo did. We also have a hard time understanding that the Son is the "Word." But pause for a moment on "Life" (in 'the way the truth and the life'). Life/Being.


      ========================================================


      I'm not trying to be heavy-handed. I hope it does not come across that way, Albert. There are so many details, that it becomes overwelming.

      Fred

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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 6/28/2003 7:06 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Communion and Otherness

This is about how "Person" is: neither autonomous from, nor disolved into, the "other."

quote:
Personhood

Theology and Church life involve a certain conception of the human being: personhood. This term, sanctified through its use in connection with the very being of God and of Christ, is rich in its implications.

The Person is otherness in communion and communion in otherness. The Person is an identity that emerges through relationship (schesis, in the terminology of the Fathers); it is an “I” that can exist only as long as it relates to a “Thou” which affirms its existence and its otherness. If we isolate the “I” from the “Thou,” we lose not only its otherness butalso its very being; it simply cannot be without the other. This is what distinguishes the person from the individual.

The Orthodox understanding of the Holy Trinity is the only way to arrive at this concept of Personhood: the Father cannot be conceived for a moment without the Son and the Spirit, and the same applies to the other two Persons in their relation with the Father and with each other. At the same time each of these Persons is so unique that their hypostatic or personal properties are totally incommunicable from one Person to the Other.

Personhood is inconceivable without freedom; it is the freedom of being other. I hesitate to say “different” instead of “other” because “different” can be understood in the sense of qualities (clever, beautiful, holy, etc.), which is not what the person is about. In God all such qualities are common to the each three Persons. Person implies not simply the freedom to have different qualities but mainly the freedom simply to be yourself. This means that a person is not subject to norms and stereotypes and cannot be classified in any way; its uniqueness is absolute. This means that only a person is free in the true sense.

And yet one person is no person; freedom is not freedom from the other but freedom for the other. Freedom becomes identical with love. God is love because He is Trinity. We can love only if we are persons, allowing the other to be truly other and yet be in communion with us. If we love the other not in spite of his or her being different but because they are different from us, or rather other than ourselves, we live in freedom as love and in love as freedom.

The other is a condition of our freedom. Freedom is not from but for something other than ourselves. This makes the person ec-static, going outside and beyond the boundaries of the self. But this ecstasis is not to be understood as a movement towards the unknown and the infinite; it is a movement of affirmation of the other.


John Zizioulas, Metropolitan of Pergamon
Communion and Otherness
Orthodox Peace Fellowship
Occasional Paper no. 19, summer 1994.
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 6/29/2003 4:39 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Albert: I've got in deep on another thread which is taking all my energy at the moment.

PoW: I'm enjoying it.


Albert: No, I am not a modalist or oneness.

PoW: Good. Sorry to hear your "Openness." But I agree that the "Opennss" only changed half of what's needed. (Shave Greg's beard!!!)


Albert: In any case, the decrees of councils are not scripture.

PoW: Hope you know that doesn't amount to saying anything. The writers didn't put themselves ahead of anything either. They wrote: It seemed good to us and to the Holy Spirit. Which means that what you really have to pay attention to is whether the councils decrees are the result of the Spirit's leading. What you are less than free then, is to take your own newly hatched ideas and decide that they are the moving of the Spirit. (Lacking 'all times and all places'...)


Albert: As for "eternally begotten", that's a difficult one on anyone's estimation. I don't think the Greek position is helpful at all - in fact I think it's downright wrong.

PoW: PROVE IT!


Albert: But I haven't necessarily got a much better suggestion at this point in time.

PoW: Speculating about God. Isn't that a kind of idolotry. (seriously)


Albert: Perhaps this relates to the relationship between the law giver and the one in submission.

PoW: Didn't you read... (Oh, I didn't post it -- just the link.) YOU NEED TO READ CHRYSOSTOM ON THAT FABRICATION OF YOURS. The Son is not "in submission" as someone less or subservant to the Father. That is heresy! Its terribly unBiblical! it makes a shambles of Christology--as it confuses Christ's divine and human natures. Its dangerous territory. READ CHRYSOSTOM'S "Homily XXXIX!" www.ccel.org/fathers2/NPNF1-12/npnf1-12-44.htm#P1912_1165237

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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 6/29/2003 5:18 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
From CHRYSOSTOM'S "Homily XXXIX"-- http://www.ccel.org/fathers2/NPNF1-12/npnf1-12-44.htm#P1912_1165237


quote:
. . .But it was for the reason which I mentioned, and that he might show all things to be common to Father and Son which were done in our behalf. For that Himself alone was sufficient to "put all things in subjection under Him," hear again Paul saying, (Philippians chapter 3, verse 21) "Who shall fashion anew the body of our humiliation that it may be conformed to the body of His glory, according to the working whereby He is able even to subject all things unto Himself."

Then also he uses a correction, saying, "But when He saith, all things are put in subjection, it is evident that He is excepted who did subject all things unto Him," testifying even thence no small glory to the Only-Begotten. For if He were less and much inferior, this fear would never have been entertained by him. Neither is he content with this, but also adds another thing, as follows. I say, lest any should doubtingly ask, "And what if the Father hath not been `put under Him?' this doth not at all hinder the Son from being the more mighty;" fearing this impious supposition, because that expression was not sufficient to point out this also, he added, going very much beyond it, "But when all things have been subjected unto Him, then shall the Son also Himself be subjected;" showing His great concord with the Father, and that He is the principle of all other good things and the first Cause, who hath begotten One so great in power and in achievements.



The Father and the Son are IN CONCORD WITH EACH OTHER. There is none of this "submission" stuff.

(Albert: "...the relationship between the law giver and the one in submission.")

Were you just to say that the Father is the source of the divine will, that would be fine. But to introduce discord that then needs to be overcome, in order to earn merit next to human psychological standards. . .that's the doorway of idolotry.
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 6/29/2003 5:23 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Here is a passage about a verse sometimes confused to mean that the Son is to submit to the Father.

quote:
CHRYSOSTOM'S "Homily XXXIX"-- http://www.ccel.org/fathers2/NPNF1-12/npnf1-12-44.htm#P1912_1165237

But what is, "that God may be all in all?" That all things may be dependent upon Him, that none may suppose two authorities without a beginning, nor another kingdom separated off; that nothing may exist independent of him. For when the enemies shall be lying under the feet of the Son, and He having them cast under His feet be at no variance with His Father, but at concord with Him in entire perfection, then He shall Himself "be all in all."



This shows the ECONOMY of salvation: "nor another kingdom separated off; that nothing may exist independent of him..." It does not suggest a rift that needs healed. It does not say that the Son is eternally in submission to the Father.

The Economy and the InterTrinitiarian Communion should not be allowed to be confused.

Sometimes Male-headship people will try to use this part of 1 Corinthians and its supposed "submission" of the Son to proove female submission. Then some Equality people have reacted and claim that Christ will actually shed his humanity eventually--so as to no longer be in submission. (one BGC pastor in Chicago with a MA from Wheaton College in Theo.) Bad theology.

Fred/PoW



Edited by - PotOnWheel on 06/29/2003 10:26:57 PM
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 6/30/2003 3:10 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Albert: Firstly, your argument that the Son would be inferior to the Father if he is eternally in submission to him is faulty. Being in voluntary submission to another person does not in any way whatsoever entail any inferiority of being or status. It is just a different functional role.

PoW: But the fact is that their is ONE divine will that all the Persons SHARE in. That is NOT "submission" it is participation. "Perichoresis!" Check it out!!!

+


Albert: Secondly, my position on this issue is identical to that of Karl Barth. So it isn't my fabrication, its Barths.

PoW: Yes. I recognize that.

+


Albert: But in fact it has a long history in the West.

PoW: And all the problems that follow in its wake. For you, you have the contradition of holding to a possition ("existentialist" that is contrary to the essentialist framework that holds the "opposition of relationships" social theory of the Trinity together. (ou are sawing on the branch you sit on. Ooops.)

+


Albert: But I leave that question to those interested in the finer points of Chrysostom exegesis.

PoW: "Cop out."

+


Albert: Thirdly, if the Son being in submission to the Father was only in his human nature, then Jesus incarnate could not be called "God with us" and could not be said to reveal the divine nature.

PoW: Christ revealation of the divine nature was 100% with respect to the same way that he was "fully divine" and also "fully human." God's grace IN US is also 100% of the divine (not a sub-divided portion). BUT, that does not mean that

+


Albert: We are repeatedly told that Jesus came as a servant and his whole mission was to serve. His entire mission, every thing he did, was in submission to the Father. But if being a servant and being in submission are not expressions of the divine nature, then nothing Jesus ever did revealed anything about the divine nature. Is that what you think?

PoW: It was the will of the Trinity that Christ come. The Father's will, the Spirit's will, the Son's will. "The Father, through the Son, in the Spirit." It was IN CONCORD that the Divine Son became incarnate. (Divine nature) It was in his HUMANITY that Christ was in submission to the Father's will (and his own divine will).

And THAT did not mean a disolution of his own human will, as humanity is created by nature to will to be in realationship with the divine.

+


Albert: Fourthly, I would say that being a servant and being in submission are essential elements of God's intrinsic nature, and that any doctrine of God that doesn't understand this, is gravely defective.

PoW: NO. Are you saying that the Father, then, is "in submission." (I'd say with Zizioulas that He is "in communion.) You are badly contradicting yourself here, Albert. First the Father is the Law Giver and the Son is in submission. Now the Father is in submission and the Son is Law Giver?

The Zizioulas quotes I posted cover the "Communion as being God's ontological mode of being" bit. Go read them. (Especially if you jumped over it.) But if you are saying just the same as that, then we are having an arguement for no reason.

+


Albert: Finally, I note that on the other thread someone's now accusing me of having "tendencies to tri-theism", whereas on this thread I'm being accused of modalism. I must be getting something right!

PoW: Both were my questioning you. (I'm PoW, Al and Fred, and (o)) But they are one after the other, not all at once.

+

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rossfadeinout
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   Posted 6/30/2003 3:29 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Albert,
What is the other thread that you are on, I would like to look in on it. Also, I know that you are busy with that one but i would still love to hear more on the differences in your understanding of an essentialist view of God's nature and a functionalist/actualist view. You said in your last post...
quote:
Fourthly, I would say that being a servant and being in submission are essential elements of God's intrinsic nature, and that any doctrine of God that doesn't understand this, is gravely defective.

In your view I thought that God doesn't have an intrinsic nature but his nature is defined by his actions. It would help me out alot if You could clarify what you mean by your position, stated a couple of posts ago...
quote:
As actualist/functionalist view says that the person has no attributes to begin with at all. The person's essence is determined by its choices. This is an existentialist conception of the person or the subject. It is the conception Karl Barth held. The Father is the Father because he freely chooses to play a particular role, as law-giver. The Son is the son because he freely choose to play a particular role, as in submission to the Father. The Holy Spirit is the Holy Spirit because he plays a particular role, as bringing unity between the Father and the Son. But "Father", "Son" and "Holy Spirit" are functional designations, not ontological ones.

I probably have a bad characterization of your position in my head, but the way that I see how you describe your position it would lead to all kinds of problems. If God chose to value destruction, would that be his nature? If the Son chose freely to NOT be in submission, but in rebellion, would we then have some sort of dualism with the Father and the Son in opposition to each other?

Couldn't one hold to an essentialist positionand say that God by his nature is Love, while realizing that God's being love doesn't determine his actions. God has genuine choices before him as to how to express his nature, even though by his nature some choices are not open to him. "God cannot lie" "God is faithful" etc.

Again, I probably have a naive understanding of your position, so I look forward to hearing back from you on this...

Ross

"Let us remember how common the folly is of going from one faulty extreme into the opposite." -Thomas Reid
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 6/30/2003 8:30 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
rossfadeinout: Albert, What is the other thread that you are on, I would like to look in on it.

PoW: Ross, his ID page says he's posted on:
  • Might-Counterfactuals

  • Is God free?

  • What constitutes a "settled event"?


Edited by - PotOnWheel on 06/30/2003 1:32:45 PM
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 7/1/2003 6:18 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Albert: (oh ye of many names)

Fred: Different computer, different name.


Thanks for these responses!

quote:
(c) I think I have confused you about something, though. Whe you say that there is concord amongst the persons of the trinity, I agree with you 100%. There is no discord or conflict whatsoever. The Son rejoices to carry out the righteous judgements of the Father; the Father delights to see the Son executing his commands. The Holy Spirit delights in the union of the two. So it is quite untrue to say there is disharmony. In this I agree with Chrysostom. So proving that their is harmony amongst the persons of the trinity, does not constitute a refutation of my position. In fact, it is in perfect concord (if I may use the term!) with my position.


GOOD, I THOUGHT SO. I would be undercutting the Orthodox position if I denied the (using your term) "law" of the Father's originating the (my term now) "Divine will." I 100% agre with: "the Father delights to see the Son executing his commands." That's Orthodox. I disagree with this Augustinian notion however, that says: "The Holy Spirit delights in the union of the two." I think the filoque Which is perfectly fine in its own right when aimed as it orivinally was by Augustine and the Spanish in an "economic" fashion) is an awful thing when an attempt to make is a statement (in the same paragraph as defining the "begottenness" of the Son).

*****************************************************
BTW - I don't remember. Do you have a problem with the begottenness of the Son?
*****************************************************


Where I might want to continue to examine the plusses and minuses of "concord" verses "submition" (I'm not shopping for a perfect word--just mulling.) is in whether there is any lessening of the Son in his "submitting." Jesus' human nature "submitted" -- which was a completely "natural" thing. (Sin is un-natural; concord with God's will is according-to-nature for humans.) But that natural submission makes sense in my mind as one kind of motif. (I'm an artist--I like motifs. And I like the field of Design, which is the study of different sorts of deigns in conpositions and configurations. That's probably a more predominant mode of looking at this for me than "logic." There is more than one kind of logic!!! ) The motif of humanity "submitting" to God is that of two different natures. The relationship has a penetration of one into the other; but not the other way around. The incarnation, too, was (as George Florovsky refered to it) an "assymetrical union." www.holytrinitymission.org/books/english/byzantine_theology_j_meyendorf.htm (...an "asymmetrical union" of God and man in Christ: while the hypostatic source of life — the goal and pattern — remains divine, man is not diminished or swallowed by the union; he becomes again fully human. )


That may be the best point to lead off with. Maybe it will make the others more solvable.


quote:
(a) The Bible clearly teaches that each of the person of the trinity has a will. There are three wills. If there are not three wills, then there are not three persons.


I think that the Orthodox view is that each "shares in" on Divine will. As each is a Person, I can come part way to your urge. But I do not agree with what Iconoclast (someone on this board) called "centers of willing." I completely disagree with anything that says the Persons of the Trinity EVER will different things. I STAND on the experssion that the one divine will has its source in the Father. Maybe you are accomplishing that by calling the Father the Law-giver. (You can perhaps see the direction where I'm wondering whether we can agree to understand but not embrace each others speach.)


quote:
(b) Jesus has two natures, but he is ONE PERSON. A nature cannot be in submission to anything. Only a PERSON can be in submission. Jesus is one person. That PERSON is in submission. When Jesus talks of his "I" he is talking about his ego, his person, his self. It is crazy exegesis to say that he is only talking about one or the other nature. In my view, your position (oh ye of many names) is effectively Nestorian.


Why can not human nature be in submission? I'm just thinking freely here; but it does occur to me to wonder whether what you said infers that the human person does not also reside in the body. you say "Only a PERSON can be in submission." Jesus either could or could not be in submission, depending on how that verb is defined. (Borrowing from your observation: The Divine Son could NOT be said to be "in submission" if submission were defined as overcoming "discord or conflict" -- because there was none!) We both felt comfortable with the word "concord." (Though that word is only newly familiar to me.)

The incarnation is a mystery. You are right when you say, "When Jesus talks of his "I" he is talking about his. . .self. He relly did have ignorance. Yet he remained completely divine. That is a mystery. He really did experience abandonment by God. Yet, He remained all the timw "One" with the Father and the Spirit. Again: mystery. But it is not "Nestorian" for scripture to lay out for us literary divices that let us see both the economic work of God and the Divine. Just as the mystery of the eschatological "now and to come" presents a mysterious truth of the "kingdom" being inwardly present though "to come" in its full and outward reality; also does Christ show in talking about "the day" from the point-of-view that he shares with us as human (Yet Scripture also says that whatever the Father knows he shares with the Son.) Why should this not be? And this certainly would not run counter to the message of the Scriptures.

quote:
"All things have been committed to me by my Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him." Matthew 11:27



quote:
(d) I think the confusion has come about because of what I said about differentiation. I was talking there about a logical conflict (not a conflict of one will versus another) which brought the persons of the trinity into being. Once they were in existence, however, the "conflict" was completely resolved and perfect harmony was in place. "Conflict" is perhaps a bad word to use. This just consisted in the desire to play several equally good and important but mutually exclusive roles. It was logically impossible for one person to play all three roles, so there was a split into three, a differentiation. That was the origin of all time.


I'm going to just leave this one on the table. I don't like trying to perform metaphysical experiments on God to see "how he ticks." This in only a theory--what you say above. But I don't "go there." Moveing along...


quote:
(e) In relation to your question about the Father, no he is not in submission. He is the head. The whole point is that perfect deity must express both headship and submission, but it is LOGICALLY IMPOSSIBLE for the one person to express both. That is why there must be three persons in the trinity. Otherwise the fullness of deity could not be expressed.


You say: "perfect deity must express both headship and submission." Maybe this stems from a necessity created with your point-d. But in the Orthodox understanding, of the Father being the "fountainhead" this is not called for.


But I think that you might REALLY LIKE READING this. It jibes' with what you say of: "Otherwise the fullness of deity could not be expressed.":

quote:
According to St. Maximus, God is "identically a monad and a triad."{24} He is not merely one and three; he is 1=3 and 3=1. That is to say, here we are not concerned with number as signifying quantity: absolute diversities cannot be made the subjects of sums of addition; they have not even opposition in common. If, as we have said, a personal God cannot be a monad– if he must be more than a single person– neither can he be a dyad. The dyad is always an opposition of two terms, and, in that sense, it cannot signify an absolute diversity. When we say that God is Trinity we are emerging from the series of countable or calculable numbers.{25} The procession of the Holy Spirit is an infinite [85] passage beyond the dyad, which consecrates the absolute (as opposed to relative) diversity of the persons. This passage beyond the dyad is not an infinite series of persons but the infinity of the procession of the Third Person: the Triad suffices to denote the Living God of revelation.{26} If God is a monad equal to a triad, there is no place in him for a dyad. Thus the seemingly necessary opposition between the Father and the Son, which gives rise to a dyad, is purely artificial, the result of an illicit abstraction. Where the Trinity is concerned, we are in the presence of the One or of the Three, but never of two.

The procession of the Holy Spirit ab utroque does not signify passage beyond the dyad but rather re-absorption of the dyad in the monad, the return of the monad upon itself. It is a dialectic of the monad opening out into the dyad and closing again into its simplicity.{27} On the other hand, procession of the Holy Spirit from the Father alone, by emphasizing the monarchy of the Father as the concrete principle of the unity of the Three, passes beyond the dyad without a return to primordial unity, without the necessity of God retiring into the simplicity of the essence. For this reason the procession of the Holy Spirit from the Father alone confronts us with the mystery of the "Tri-Unity." We have here not a simple, self-enclosed essence, upon which relations of opposition have been superimposed in order to masquerade a god of philosophy as the God of Christian revelation. We say "the simple Trinity," and this antinomic expression, characteristic of Orthodox hymnography,{28} points out a simplicity which the absolute diversity of the three persons can in no way relativize.

http://www.jbburnett.com/auctor/lossky/lossky_img4-process-filioq.pdf


The other portion LINKED below you might find even more rewarding.


==============================================
Summer reading list:
    Vladimir Lossky, "God in Trinity" Chapter 3 of The Mystical Theology of the Eastern Church (SVS Press, Crestwood, NY: 1976), pp. 44-67.
    http://www.jbburnett.com/auctor/lossky/lossky_myst1-trinity.pdf

    Vladimir Lossky, "The Procession of the Holy Spirit in Orthodox Trinitarian Doctrine": Chapter 4 of In the Image and Likeness of God (SVS Press, Crestwood, NY: 1974), pp. 71-96.

http://www.jbburnett.com/auctor/lossky/lossky_img4-process-filioq.pdf




Edited by - fred on 07/01/2003 11:19:28 AM
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Laika
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Date Joined Mar 2003
Total Posts : 2433
 
   Posted 7/1/2003 6:38 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:

Albert: (oh ye of many names)

Fred: Different computer, different name.



<lightbulb>

wakatta


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rossfadeinout
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Date Joined Oct 2002
Total Posts : 428
 
   Posted 7/1/2003 7:31 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Albert,

Maybe you could direct me to the posts that explain your position on this essentialist vs. actualist/functunalist position, because your brief response to me confused me more. You said
quote:
God is perfectly good because (a) moral imperatives/prohibitions are objectively true (b) he knows all moral imperatives/prohibitions and (c) he is perfectly free (and therefore has no irrational motivations). I think it follows from this that he would be perfectly good. But as I said in the other thread, that still leaves an enormous degree of scope for him to express his freedom. Ethics does not prescribe only a single course of action.


So my question now is,
--when you say "(a) moral imperatives/prohibitions are objectively true," what makes them true? Do moral laws just exist "out there" like Platonic Ideals? From your other posts I'm sure that would not be your position. It sounds like you're saying that the moral imperatives exist outside of God and are binding on him.
-- However, if you say that this is not the case, then the moral imperatives/prohibitions originate from God. And that brings us back to my original question- are the moral imperatives what they are because God wills them to be that way (in which case he could have willed destruction to be perfectly good) or are the moral imperatives an expression of God's character (which would lead to an essentialist position in my mind)

Just trying to understand where you are coming from, because your three points sound just like what I said, and I would consider myself to be an essentialist in your terms.

Again, I have enjoyed reading what you have said on this post and others, and I hope that maybe I can learn something on why you say that you hold to the actualist/functunalist postion (which to me has always boiled down to whatever God does is what is good, and who are we to judge God's actions)

Ross

"Let us remember how common the folly is of going from one faulty extreme into the opposite." -Thomas Reid
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 7/19/2003 5:00 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.



So, count the votes.............. Is God free?
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