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JET
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   Posted 2/27/2003 3:02 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
I think the distinction (between LF and SDF) is critical to the discussion between Molinism and the OV. I see the Molinist and the OVer talking right past each other because they're really talking about different things. Until you come to the grounding objection. Then it becomes clear that the Molinist has to admit either:

1. That the truth of CCF's exists independently "somewhere out there"

OR

2. That the truth of CCF's are grounded in the agent itself.

Once the Molinist admits (2) [as Craig seems to do in the last quote above], then all of Doc's arguments against Molinism take force.

Once the Molinist admits (2), then the Molinist has gone beyond LF ("the power to do otherwise") and has basically said that a (finite) agent has the power to "create" the truth of a CCF--a truth which did not exist (and therefore could not be known) at the logical moment prior to the Divine Creative Decree.



Edited by - JET on 02/27/2003 08:07:06 AM
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JET
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   Posted 2/27/2003 3:09 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
P.S. I'm not saying the OV does not affirm LF. It does. But the OV goes beyond LF and affirms SDF.

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JET
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   Posted 2/27/2003 4:54 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Alan: I still don't see the difference between LF and SDF. Can you help me out with an example of how an agent could have LF but not SDF, or vice-versa?

JET: Let's assume that if offered a choice between cookies and liver and onions, Mrs. Craig has the power to choose either the cookies or the liver and onions. Assume there is absolutely nothing stopping Mrs. Craig from choosing the liver and onions.

Under these assumptions, Mrs. Craig by definition has LF.

Now, lets further assume that Mrs. Craig is offered the choice and she chooses the cookies. Let's forget about the grounding objection and further assume that: (1) true CCF's independently exist from eternity and (2) based on God's knowlegde of CCF's, God knew from eternity that Mrs. Craig would choose the cookies.

So far, nothing in these assumptions detracts from Mrs. Craig's power to choose the liver and onions. Remember, the CCF's just exist independently, and God of course knows them. Nothing was stopping her from choosing the liver and onions--it was "within her power" to so choose. We don't know where the truth of CCF's come from, and we don't know what made Mrs. Craig choose the cookies (despite her power to choose the liver and onions). All we know is that: (1) although she had it within her power to choose the liver and onions, she choose the cookies and (2) God just happened to know she would choose the cookies as a result of God's knowledge of all true CCF's.

So we have preserved Mrs. Craig's LF (but we had to forget about the grounding objection in the process).

However, because we have assumed that God knew from eternity that Mrs. Craig would choose the cookies based on God's knowledge of true CCF's independently existing from eternity, then we know that whatever made Mrs. Craig choose the cookies (despite her power to choose the liver and onions) was not determinied by Mrs. Craig (because she is a finite being).

So under these assumptions, Mrs. Craig has LF, but not SDF.



Edited by - JET on 02/27/2003 3:42:02 PM
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Alan Rhoda
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   Posted 2/27/2003 1:05 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
Alan, what does it mean to be “transitive” here? Explanatory priority is transitive? What's that mean?


Transitivity is a kind of relation. A relation R is transitive if and only if
If (aRb and bRc) then aRc.

For example, equality is a transitive relation: If x=y and y=z, then x=z.

When Craig says that explanatory priority is not transitive, he is claiming that it can be true that A explains B, true that B explains C, and false that A explains C.

An example of a non-transitive relation is that of "mother". If A is the mother of B and B is the mother of C, it does not follow that A is the mother of C. Rather A is the grandmother of C.

Hope that helps.
Alan

Edited by - Alan Rhoda on 02/27/2003 7:51:30 PM
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JET
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   Posted 2/27/2003 3:44 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom,
Check out this paragraph from Craig’s article on “Robert Adams's New Anti-Molinist Argument”:
quote:
But more than that; the reductio also fails because (12) is false. Adams's intuition seems to be that if F* were explanatorily prior to my doing A in C, then I could not refrain from A, which is a necessary condition of my doing A freely. But such an assumption seems doubly wrong. First, it represents the fallacious reasoning of fatalism. Though F* is (ex concessionis) in fact explanatorily prior to my freely doing A in C, it is within my power to refrain from doing A in C; only if I were to do so, F* would not then be explanatorily prior to my action nor a part of God's middle knowledge. Until Adams can show that the content of God's middle knowledge is a "hard fact," his argument based on (12) is undercut. Second, my being able to refrain from doing A in C is not a necessary condition of my freely doing A in C. For perhaps I do A in C without any causal constraint, but it is also the case that God would not permit me to refrain from A in C. Flint's essay on papal infallibility, which appears in the same volume as Adams's, provides a good illustration: though God would not permit the Pope to promulgate false doctrine, nevertheless he freely promulgates correct doctrine.{7} If such a scenario is coherent--and Flint seems to have refuted all objections to it--, then (12) is false.

See? Craig is talking about libertarian freedom (“within my power to refrain”), while Adams is talking about self-determining freedom (“If I freely do A in C, no truth that is strictly inconsistent with my refraining from A in C is explanatorily prior to my choosing and acting as I do in C”).


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Alan Rhoda
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   Posted 2/27/2003 4:25 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom: As I pointed out regarding the worlds C and D which, though ontologically distinct, are in every particular identical, the same would hold true of Peter in worlds C and D. They’d have the same DNA, history, character, etc., though they would be ontologically distinct as far as the CCFs are concerned. Both worlds are identical up to the instant the choice is made. The ONLY difference is that in C Peter denies Christ while in D he defends Christ. It must be possible for God to create a world D in which Peter shares every particular of history and character in common with our Peter and yet chooses to defend Christ. Why? Because of libertarian freedom. If there CANNOT exist a world identical to ours in which Peter defends Christ, then we ARE nothing more than the sum of our history and circumstances and our choices ARE exhaustively determined by antecedent factors. The alterative world I describe must be possible or determinism is true.

Alan: I think we're basically saying the same thing, Tom. Only in different words. We can imagine a set of possible worlds identical up until the time that Peter makes his choice to deny or not to deny. From there things diverge depending on what choice he makes. Hence the conditional "If Peter is placed in circumstances C, then Peter will freely deny Christ" is not strictly true. If Molinists want their CCF's to be strictly true, then they have to reject LF.

JET: Molinism would deny that God could create an alternate world identical to ours except that Peter does not deny Christ. I think it is fundamental to Molinism that God's choice to create free creatures entails that God is limited by CCF's. Isn't this part of the Molinist's theodicy? God created C as the best possible world given CCF's. God is not responsible for Peter's denial, because God could not have created a world equivalent to C in which Peter does not deny Christ. Rather, Peter is responsible because Peter had it "within his power" (LF) to do otherwise.

Alan: I agree that Molinism would deny this, but that very denial is inconsistent with LF. Contrary to how Molinists talk, God cannot unilaterally create either the world in which Peter freely denies Christ--he cannot create it, that is, without Peter's coorperation. Molinists falsely think of all world-possibilities as fully and eternally determinate. God can survey these possibilities, select the one he likes, and create it. But this cannot be so given LF, for LF gives rise to a branching tree of world-possibilities. God can create the initial conditions and the choice parameters, but by doing so he only chooses to create a world-tree, not a particular world. As choices are made, branches of the tree containing possibilities that were not chosen fall off.

If Peter really has it "within his power" to do otherwise in those circumstances, then it must be a real possibility that the history of the world is at it is until that time and Peter does not deny Christ. If Molinists deny this, then in so doing they undermine the very libertarian freedom that they want to affirm.

Enjoying the discussion.
Alan

Edited by - Alan Rhoda on 02/27/2003 9:55:17 PM
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Alan Rhoda
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   Posted 2/27/2003 4:51 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom: Molinists believe God is choosing to actualize not a world of possibilities (like open theists) but rather one specific world from among many possible worlds, but God does this based on what agents “would” freely do in the different worlds. Where in the open view God creates a world OF possibilities, in Molinism God creates a world FROM possibilities.

Alan: I agree completely with your understanding of Molinism, Tom.

Tom: In one of the articles I posted for Alan, Craig seems to argue that the truth of CCFs is grounded in the “individual essences” of the agents themselves (whatever that means). He also says that CCFs are true or false because they correspond to reality. There are real states of affairs to which CCFs correspond. It’s either true of false that “In 2028 Jones will be President of the United States” because it’s either true of false. That’s it.

Alan: Can Craig really mean to say that CCFs are grounded in "individual essences"??? If so, then he is committed to the idea that if Peter had chosen not to deny Christ then he would not have been Peter. What this amounts to is what Hasker has called "character determinism"--Peter, being the person he is, cannot not deny Christ in C. But if Peter cannot not deny Christ then he doesn't have libertarian freedom! How can Craig think appeal to individual essences solves anything?

Furthermore, how can CCF's correspond to reality when almost all of them describe counterfactual states-of-affairs that do not, never have, and never will exist? The truth or falsity of categorical indicative statements like "Jones becomes President in 2028" is at most adequate to ground simple foreknowledge, not middle knowledge. When Craig says that CCFs are true or false because they correspond to reality, what is the reality that they are supposed to correspond to? To individual essences? (Again, this would mean that the very idea of Peter as a particular sort of being with a particular history entails that Peter denies Christ in C.)

Alan
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JET
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   Posted 2/28/2003 1:42 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
JET: Molinism would deny that God could create an alternate world identical to ours except that Peter does not deny Christ. I think it is fundamental to Molinism that God's choice to create free creatures entails that God is limited by CCF's. Isn't this part of the Molinist's theodicy? God created C as the best possible world given CCF's. God is not responsible for Peter's denial, because God could not have created a world equivalent to C in which Peter does not deny Christ. Rather, Peter is responsible because Peter had it "within his power" (LF) to do otherwise.

Alan: I agree that Molinism would deny this, but that very denial is inconsistent with LF. Contrary to how Molinists talk, God cannot unilaterally create either the world in which Peter freely denies Christ--he cannot create it, that is, without Peter's coorperation. Molinists falsely think of all world-possibilities as fully and eternally determinate. God can survey these possibilities, select the one he likes, and create it. But this cannot be so given LF, for LF gives rise to a branching tree of world-possibilities. God can create the initial conditions and the choice parameters, but by doing so he only chooses to create a world-tree, not a particular world. As choices are made, branches of the tree containing possibilities that were not chosen fall off.

If Peter really has it "within his power" to do otherwise in those circumstances, then it must be a real possibility that the history of the world is at it is until that time and Peter does not deny Christ. If Molinists deny this, then in so doing they undermine the very libertarian freedom that they want to affirm.



JET: But Craig does not deny that it is "really possible that the history of the world is at it is until that time and Peter does not deny Christ". Based on his premise that God's middle knowledge is a "soft fact", Craig holds that Peter has it "within his power" to "bring it about" that God's middle knowledge includes Peter defending Christ in an identical world. This is what allows Craig to affirm LF (but not SDF).

What Molinists deny is that God had it within his power to create a world that is identical to ours except that Peter defends Christ. Peter, on the other hand, really has it within his power to defend Christ in circumstances C. If Peter does, then this would have been part of God's middle knowledge. In otherwords, God cannot change counterfactuals of creaturely freedom, but Peter can bring it about that God's middle knowledge was "otherwise".

At this point, I don't have a clue as to whether God's middle knowledge can be said to be a "soft fact". I haven't gotten that far yet. (In the bivalence thread, Doc mentioned that he argued in the four views book - which I haven't read - that God's knowledge is a "hard fact".)

What I'm trying to suggest is that:

1. Given that Craig "hinges everything" (per Doc, Bivalence thread) on the distinction between hard and soft facts, then any attempt to refute Craig's Molinism must deal with this distinction, and

2. For someone whose view of God and creation assumes the reality of "self-determining freedom" as described in "Satan and the Problem of Evil", then the question of whether God's middle knowledge can be said to be a "soft fact" is purely acedemic. The only purpose of arguing that it is a "soft fact" is to allow for freedom in a liberatarian sense (as traditionally defined). It has no bearing on the OV, because the OV assumes self-determination. If SDF is true, then we know Molinism is not true. Why? Because SDF assumes that I "create" my choice; thus my choice does not exist until I "create" it; thus, my choice did not exist (had no truth content) from eternity or at the logical moment before the DCD.


Thanks,

Earl



Edited by - JET on 02/28/2003 06:43:09 AM
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Tom
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   Posted 2/28/2003 8:33 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Bill Craig’s definition of omniscience:

“For any agent x, x is omniscient = (def) For every statement s, if s is true, then x knows that s and does not believe that not-s.” Thus, God is omniscient if and only if he knows all truths and believes no falsehoods.

I wholeheartedly agree with this definition of omniscience. It is impossible that God should either fail to believe anything that is true of that God should believe any falsehood.

I’m very glad I can agree on a definition of omniscience with Craig. Now the issue is, what are the true and false statements God knows?

Read the Appendix (“Divine Eternity and God’s Knowledge of the Future”) to Bill Craig’s Time and Eternity. He says some very interesting things. He assumes that open theists (whom he does not name; he simply speaks of those who “deny divine foreknowledge”) must deny that future-tense statements are either true or false. He spends a bit of time arguing (see Doc’s thread on the principal of bivalence) that such statements much be either true or false.

I’ve been asking myself (and Doc touched on this too) why Craig would assume that open theists have to deny that future-tense statements are either true or false. Remember in Doc’s thread, Doc argued that if “X might do Y” is true, then it’s necessarily false that “X will do Y” even if X does Y in 2000?

Watch this. Craig argues in his appendix: “If ‘It is raining today’ is now true, how could ‘It will rain tomorrow’ not have been true yesterday?” There it is. This is assumed. Craig doesn’t even question it. But he’s wrong. "It will rain tomorrow" might have been false yesterday. God knows.

In the same appendix: “…if future-tense statements are neither true nor false [Craig assumes open theists have to deny the truth value of future-tense statements], the statement made in 1998 ‘George W. Bush either will or will not win the presidential election in 2000’ would not be true…But how can this be? Either Bush will win or he will not win—there is no other alternative.”

Interesting, eh? He doesn’t see how an open theist could affirm the principal of bivalence and agree that all future-tense statements are either true or false. He makes this mistake because HE categorically dismisses “might” statements about the future. They don’t even exist. (Maybe they do now that Doc had dinner with him. Let’s hope so.) He assumes that since Bush became President in 2000, that “Bush either will or will not become President in 2000” spoken in 1998 must be true for there is no other option.

But “either will or will not” is not the only alternative. “Might or might not” is an alternative. Even though Bush became President in 2000, it need not necessarily have been true in 1998 that “Bush will become President in 2000.” It may rather have been true (assuming God didn’t unconditionally determine in 1998 or earlier to unilaterally make Bush President) that “Bush may become President in 2000.”

Now, it is true that after the elections in 2000 it is true that "Bush either is or is not President." But this does not require that "Bush either will or will not be President in 2000" be true spoken before 2000.

Now, Craig has an interesting paragraph on timeless truths:
quote:
“Timeless statements are always true or false. Recall that it is possible to eliminate the tense of the verb in a statement and specify the time at which that statement is supposed to be true. For example, the statement ‘The Allies invaded Normandy’ can be made tenseless by specifying the time: ‘On June 6, 1944, the Allies invade Normandy’….If the tensed version is true, then so is the tenseless version. Thus, correlated with any true past- or present-tense statement is a true tenseless version of that statement. Furthermore, a tenseless statement, if it is true at all, is always true. This is precisely because the statement is tenseless. If ‘On June 6, 1944, the Allies invade Normandy’ is ever true, then it is always true. Therefore, the statement is true before June 6, 1944. But in that case, it is true prior to June 6, 1944, that the Allies on that date will invade Normandy, which is the same as saying that the future-tense version of the statement is true.”
This explains why Craig believes that if “It is raining today” is now true, that it must have been true yesterday that “It will rain tomorrow.” You can make a timeless truth from the present tense truth and relocate it to any time prior to "now." Since “It’s raining today, February 28, 2003 in Beirut” is now true, this can be made into a tenseless statement, “On Feb. 28, 2003 it rains in Beirut.” Since tenseless statements are always true or false, it is always true that “It rains in Beirut on Feb. 28, 2003” and thus true before Feb. 28, 2003 that “It will rain in Beirut on Feb. 28, 2003.”

I’d like to explore what’s wrong with Craig’s argument here regarding the truth value of a past- or present-tense statements made tenseless. Comments?

Tom


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Edited by - TGB on 02/28/2003 11:37:04 PM

Edited by - TGB on 02/28/2003 11:44:35 PM
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Tom
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   Posted 2/28/2003 7:32 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Regarding Craig’s argument (in my own words):

1) Timelessly indicative truths are timelessly true. This includes mathematical truths for example; 2 + 2 = 4 is timelessly true.

2) All past- and present-tense truths can be made timelessly indicative. For example, “The Allies invaded Normandy” can be made tenseless by specifying the time: ‘On June 6, 1944, the Allies invade Normandy.”

3) It follows, then, that it is true of any event x that happens in the world that it’s happening can be rendered timeless as “x happens.”

4) It also follows that if “x happens” is timelessly true that “x will happen” must be true.

My immediate reaction is:

This does seem to falsify all “might” counterfactuals. Maybe Molinism is true! But…

Doesn’t Craig’s argument prove too much? If past- and present-tense truths can be made timelessly true like mathematical truths are true, then they are also universally true in all possible worlds. 2 + 2 = 4 is believed to be true in all possible worlds. There is no possible world, presumably, God could have created in which 2 + 2 = 9, for example, is true. But if “The Allies invaded Normandy” is timelessly true in this way, then it’s universally true in this way and true in all possible worlds. But this undermines Molinism which wants to affirm that God’s decision to create the world in which the Allies freely invade Normandy was based upon his knowledge of their freely not invading Normandy in other worlds.

Here’s my 2 cents. I think 2 + 2 = 4 is true in this world because it’s true in all possible worlds first. The truth of this mathematical statement is not derived via grammatical world-play from some corresponding past- or present-tense truth. The opposite is rather true. It’s true on any past, present, or future date in our world (or any other possible world) that 2 + 2 = 4 because it’s first universally and timelessly true. It’s temporally true because it’s timelessly true. But “The Allies invade Normandy on June 6, 1944” derives its truth from the truth of “The Allies are invading Normandy” spoken on June 6, 1944. The truth value runs in the opposite direction. Timeless mathematical truths are “discovered” to be true by us and could not have been otherwise. But the truth of “The Allies invade Normandy on June 6, 1944” isn’t “discovered” to be true by the Allies on June 6, 1944. It is “determined” to be true by the Allies on June 6, 1944. So where’s this lead me? I don’t know! This needs more unpacking and I can’t do it.

Tom


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Edited by - TGB on 03/01/2003 12:33:50 AM
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JET
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   Posted 3/1/2003 2:28 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Craig’s argument doesn’t disprove the existence of true “might counterfactuals” because his argument only works if you assume there are no true might counterfactuals.

If you allow for true “might” counterfactuals, then it is not true that, as Craig says, “correlated with any true past- or present-tense statement is a true tenseless version of that statement”.

For example, assume that both of the following past-tensed statements are true:

(1) “The Allies invaded Normandy on June 6, 19944.”
(2) “The Allies might have invaded Normandy on June 5, 1944”.

The tenseless version of (2) is “On June 5, 1944, the Allies invade Normandy”, which obviously is false.

So if there are true “might counterfactuals”, it is not true that “correlated with any true past- or present-tense statement is a true tenseless version of that statement”.

What do you think?

Earl




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Tom
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   Posted 3/1/2003 5:55 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
For example, assume that both of the following past-tensed statements are true: 1) “The Allies invaded Normandy on June 6, 19944.”
2) “The Allies might have invaded Normandy on June 5, 1944”.

The tenseless version of (2) is “On June 5, 1944, the Allies invade Normandy”, which obviously is false.
Earl-

I would think that a tenseless version of (2) would rather be “On June 5, 1944, the Allies might invade Normandy,” not that they “invade Normandy.”
quote:
So if there are true “might counterfactuals”, it is not true that “correlated with any true past- or present-tense statement is a true tenseless version of that statement.”
I wanna think Craig is wrong on this too. But it sure sounds correct.

Tom


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JET
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   Posted 3/1/2003 7:20 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
TJB: I would think that a tenseless version of (2) would rather be “On June 5, 1944, the Allies might invade Normandy,” not that they “invade Normandy.”

JET: Good point. I'll have to re-think this.

Thanks,

Earl



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Tom
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   Posted 3/1/2003 7:38 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Earl-

It's TGB, TGB!

Thanks!

Tom

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Edited by - TGB on 03/01/2003 12:39:47 PM
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JET
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   Posted 3/2/2003 6:04 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
TGB (sorry about that):
quote:
I’d like to explore what’s wrong with Craig’s argument here regarding the truth value of a past- or present-tense statements made tenseless. Comments?


Craig’s argument is based on the premise that “a tenseless statement, if it is true at all, is always true.”

Tom, I think what you wrote about the bivalence of future-tense statements is sufficient to prove that premise (2) is false. Basically, you said that if it is now true that “X might happen”, then it is now false that “X will happen”.

Assume, for example:

At T1, it is true that “At T2, X might happen”
At T2, it is true that “At T2, X happens”
At T3, it is true that “At T2, X happened”

In this case, the tenseless statement (“AT T2, X happens”) is true at T2 and true at T3, but it is false at T1.

Therefore, if true might counterfactuals exist, then it is not true that “a tenseless statement, if true at all, is always true”.

Craig can only argue premise (2) if he assumes that true might counterfactuals don’t exist.

Thanks,

Earl


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JET
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   Posted 3/2/2003 6:20 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
In this case, the tenseless statement (“At T2, X happens”) is true at T2 and true at T3, but it is false at T1.


On second thought, I don't know whether the tenseless statement is false at T1. The future tense statement is false at T1. Does the same idea apply to the tenseless statement?

I give up. Intuitively, it seems like Craig is merely assuming without proving that true might counterfactuals don't exist. But I can't demonstrate this. Let me know if you figure it out.




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Tom
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   Posted 3/2/2003 6:51 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
To whomever is still reading this!

If you have the Four Views book on Foreknowledge containing Craig’s chapter on Middle Knowledge, reread it. Going back to it after having this discussion was helpful. Note the difference between the views of the Dominicans (who placed God’s knowledge of counterfactuals in the logical moment following the decree to create) and the Jesuits (who, following Molina, placed such knowledge logically prior to the decree to create. It makes a big difference (if you’re a Dominican or a Molinist!).

Craig openly confesses (note this JET!) that there does exist a possible world in which Peter refrains from denying Christ in precisely the same circumstances as those of our world in which he denies Christ. He writes:
quote:
“For example, there is a possible world in which Peter affirms Christ in precisely the same circumstances in which he in fact denied him. But given the counterfactual truth that if Peter were in precisely those circumstances he would freely deny Christ, then the possible world in which Peter freely affirms Christ in those circumstances in not feasible for God.”
Interesting, eh? But note, Peter’s refraining from denying Christ in C is only a “logical possibility.” It is not counterfactually true. What is counterfactually true is that “If Peter were in circumstance C, he would freely deny Christ.” In conceding the logical possibility of Peter’s refraining from denying Christ in C, Craig appears to be saying only that there is nothing self-contradictory about Peter’s refraining from denying Christ. But one cannot argue from the existence of this possibility to the truth of “If Peter were in C, he would freely refraining from denying Christ.”

So I was right and wrong. Right in that Craig agrees that there is a (logically) possible world in which Peter affirms Christ in C. So, “Peter freely affirms Christ in C” and “Peter freely denies Christ in C” are both logically possible worlds. Wrong in that there is no true counterfactual that corresponds to the possible world in which Peter freely affirms Christ.

The Jesuits argued that there are two logical moments prior to God’s decree to create. The first is God’s (natural) knowledge of all logical possibilities. The second is God’s (middle) knowledge of all true counterfactuals of creaturely freedom. Peter’s freely refraining from denying Christ in C exists as a possibility in God’s natural knowledge, not as a counterfactual truth in God’s middle knowledge. Peter’s freely denying Christ in C is what God knows in his middle knowledge. And because God’s middle knowledge is logically prior to God’s decree to create, God is able to use counterfactuals of creaturely freedom to decide exactly which world best suites his purposes and free will is not undermined.

Now, whatever was true in God’s natural knowledge logicall prior to the decree to create is still true. It’s still the case that “If Peter were in C, he would freely refrain from denying Christ” is logically true.

Alan, am I reading Craig’s chapter correctly? In reading it again I noticed that Craig never explains HOW the desired world described in the counterfactuals is actualized. In his response to Craig in the Four Views book, Paul Helm brings up the objection I already voiced. Actually, I got it from him but couldn’t remember where I read it. Helm comments:
quote:
It is not clear to me how middle knowledge of the Jesuit variety…helps resolve the question of freedom and foreknowledge. Craig supposes that there is a possible world in which Peter affirmed Christ in precisely the same circumstances in which he denied him. But God wants the possible world in which Peter denies Christ to be actual. So what does he do? Can he decree that possible world? How can God be assured that when he decrees that possible world in which, in circumstances C, Peter freely denies Christ, it is that world that is actualized? ...it appears (to me at least) that God cannot decree the world in which Peter denies Christ without ensuring that Peter denies Christ, thus compromising Peter’s indeterministic freedom….”
I think Craig would respond with something like this: Though the world in which Peter affirms Christ in C is a logically possible world, God could not have decreed it. This is not owing to any defect in God, but rather to the absence of any true counterfactual stating that “If Peter were in C, he would freely affirm Christ.” And God is limited to creating “counterfactually true” worlds. Not all logically possible worlds are counterfactually true.

What makes counterfactuals true? Craig thinks the question is “inept” (Four Views) and wrongheaded (but that’s another post!). One thing is for sure. Craig would agree that GOD doesn’t make them true. That’s determinism. But where Doc seems to think that Craig would also agree that WE don’t make them true (“…for created agents are not eternal, and Craig rightly denies retroactive causation” p. 145), I think Craig might argue that we DO make them true. Craig’s arguing that tenseless truths are eternally true and that tenseless statements describing our free actions can be gotten from past- and present-tense statements (that is, gotten from US) describing those actions shows one way perhaps that Craig would argue how it is that God eternally knows what shall come to pass.

Blessings,
Tom

PS Haven't gotten to your last two posts Earl. Later!


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Tom
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   Posted 3/2/2003 7:42 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Earl: I give up.

Tom: I know how you feel! Like I said, Molinism will NEVER get off the ground with dumb people like…well, at least like me! I mean, I’ve read and read, and discussed it several times and I still don’t understand it!

Earl: On second thought, I don't know whether the tenseless statement is false at T1. The future tense statement is false at T1. Does the same idea apply to the tenseless statement?

Tom: By “tenselessly true” Craig means true in the way mathematical truths are true. 2 + 2 = 4 is timelessly true. If your “X happens at T2” is timelessly true, God knows it eternally the same way he knows eternally that 2 + 2 = 4. And if this is the case, then it would seem that all might-counterfactuals are false.

I agree that if X happened at T2, then “X happens at T2” is true. But I’m not convinced this is timelessly true and therefore eternally known by God the way 2 + 2 = 4 is eternally known by God. “X happens at T2” derives its truth from the historical fact. The historical event creates the truth which we render grammatically tenseless. But this is UNLIKE the mathematical truth of 2 + 2 = 4. This mathematical truth is not a historical event that happens at a specific time and whose truth is then rendered timeless by grammatical word play. Its truth is not derived from some event, it’s derived from God. It is only discovered by us to be true on some date in history. “X happens at T2” and “2 + 2 = 4” are entirely different animals. I’m no philosopher, but I’d word it this way: “The Allies invade Normandy on June 6, 1944” is grammatically tenseless, while “2 + 2 = 4” is metaphysically tenseless. Different animals altogether. Craig needs to do more than simply play with grammar to establish that a statement represents a metaphysically timeless truth.

Thanks JET!

Tom

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Edited by - TGB on 03/02/2003 12:43:23 PM

Edited by - TGB on 03/02/2003 12:44:29 PM
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JET
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   Posted 3/2/2003 9:18 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
Craig needs to do more than simply play with grammar to establish that a statement represents a metaphysically timeless truth.


Is it possible that our language/grammar is part of the problem?

We both agree that there are three types of true future-tense statements:

(a) X will not happen
(b) X will happen
(c) X might happen (or might not happen)

According to Craig, if any of these future-tense statements are true, there should be a correlating tenseless statement and past-tense statement that is also true. (Right???) [Edit: Actually, the past-tense statement would not be true until X happens. But, according to Craig, if the future-tense statement is true, then the correlating tenseless statement should be true before X happens, right?]

The problem is that, while we can articulate a future-tense statement of a “might counterfactual”, our language/grammar/vocabulary does not provide us with a convenient way to speak of tenseless statements or past-tense statements that “correspond” to the future-tense statement of a might counterfactual.

(There may be a utilitarian explanation for this-- once “X happens” there is usually no need to talk about the fact that X might not have happened.)

However, if true “might counterfactuals” exist, then perhaps there should be three kinds of past-tense statements:

(a’) “X did not happen”
(b’) “X happened” where, prior to T2, it was true that X will happen.
(c’) “X happened” where, prior to T2, it was true that X might or might not happen.

And three kinds of corresponding tenseless statements:

(a’’) “At T2, X does not happen”
(b’’) “At T2, X happens” where, prior to T2, it is true that X will happen
(c’’) “At T2, X happens” where, prior to T2, it is true that X might or might not happen.

If so, then tenseless statements are not timelessly true. The tenseless statement (c’’) may be true after T2, but prior to T2 it is false.

Does this get us anywhere?




Edited by - JET on 03/02/2003 2:20:55 PM

Edited by - JET on 03/03/2003 05:42:25 AM
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Tom
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   Posted 3/3/2003 4:21 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Earl: We both agree that there are three types of true future-tense statements:
(a) X will not happen
(b) X will happen
(c) X might happen (or might not happen)

Tom: The three possible statements about the future are rather:

(a) X will (or will not) happen
(b) X would (or would not) happen
(c) X might (or might not) happen

Earl: According to Craig, if any of these future-tense statements are true, there should be a correlating tenseless statement and past-tense statement that is also true. (Right???) [Edit: Actually, the past-tense statement would not be true until X happens. But, according to Craig, if the future-tense statement is true, then the correlating tenseless statement should be true before X happens, right?]

Tom: Craig would likely say that we can’t make a tenseless statement by beginning with a future-tense statement. WE are only able to make tenseless statements from past- or present-tense statements (because we’re not omniscient). It’s “The Allies invaded on June 6, 1944” first, then the tenseless “The Allies invade on June 6, 1944.” From this timeless statement then Craig argues for the truth of the future-tense “The Allies will invade on June 6, 1944.” We can never know which future-tense statements (future in relation to our present, that is) are true. Craig’s only arguing that when X happens, it can then be expressed by US in a tenseless form. Then WE see that “X will happen” is true when spoken before X happens. This means of course, that “X might happen” is false. There are no true “might-counterfactuals” which describe the events of our world prior to their happening. I could be misunderstanding Molinism here, but it seems to me that the only “might-counterfactuals” that are true are those which describe what (ready for this?) would have happened had God actualized would-counterfactuals other than those he did actualize.

Earl: …

(a’) “X did not happen”
(b’) “X happened” where prior to T2 it was true that X will happen.
(c’) “X happened” where prior to T2 it was true that X might/might not happen.

And three kinds of corresponding tenseless statements:

(a’’) “At T2, X does not happen”
(b’’) “At T2, X happens” where, prior to T2, it is true that X will happen
(c’’) “At T2, X happens” where, prior to T2, it is true that X might or might not happen.

If so, then tenseless statements are not timelessly true. The tenseless statement (c’’) may be true after T2, but prior to T2 it is false.

Tom: I see your point. But your b” is timelessly true. So some are true and some (we are arguing) are not true. The fundamental point of argument with Molinists is whether or not there can be any grammatically tenseless statements (like your c”) which are not eternally (i.e., metaphysically) true; which are in fact false prior to their happening. How to do that without assuming either that might-counterfactuals are all false (Molinism) or that there exist true might-counterfactuals is the trick.

I’m in water over my head!

Alan! Save us! Throw out the life-line!

Tom


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Alan Rhoda
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   Posted 3/3/2003 4:24 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
In the appendix to "Time and Eternity", Craig offers the following arguments on behalf of the thesis that there are truths about future contingents:

I. There is no good reason to deny that future-tense statements about the future are either true or false.
II. There are good reasons to maintain that future-tense statements are either true or false.
A. Properly understood, truth as correspondence guarantees that future-tense statements are either true or false.
B. Parity of past- and future-tense statements with respect to truth.
C. Tenseless statements are always true.
III. Denial of the truth or falsity of future-tense statements has absurd consequences.

In support of (I), he rebuts the charge that future-tense statements can't be true because there is no reality for them to correspond to. I think Craig's rebuttal is sound, but he fails to rebut a much stronger reason for thinking that future-tense statements about future-contingents can't be true. The reason is simply that the future is not completely settled.

In support of (II), he gives three arguments.

Argument (II.A) alleges that, in accordance with the correspondence theory of truth, the same state-of-affairs that makes it true now that "It is raining today" also makes it true yesterday that "It will rain tomorrow". Again, Craig overlooks the fact that a statement is true only if what it affirms is settled. If it was not settled yesterday that it rain today, then it was not true yesterday that "It will rain tomorrow" even though it is true that "It is raining today."

Argument (II.B) alleges that if future-tense statements are not true or false because there is no reality for them to correspond to, then by the same token neither are past-tense statements true or false. I think Craig is correct here, but, again, he avoids the main issue. The issue is not whether there is a reality for past- and future-tense statements to correspond to, but whether the reality that they do correspond to is settled.

Argument (II.C)
quote:
“Timeless statements are always true or false. Recall that it is possible to eliminate the tense of the verb in a statement and specify the time at which that statement is supposed to be true. For example, the statement ‘The Allies invaded Normandy’ can be made tenseless by specifying the time: ‘On June 6, 1944, the Allies invade Normandy’….If the tensed version is true, then so is the tenseless version. Thus, correlated with any true past- or present-tense statement is a true tenseless version of that statement. Furthermore, a tenseless statement, if it is true at all, is always true. This is precisely because the statement is tenseless. If ‘On June 6, 1944, the Allies invade Normandy’ is ever true, then it is always true. Therefore, the statement is true before June 6, 1944. But in that case, it is true prior to June 6, 1944, that the Allies on that date will invade Normandy, which is the same as saying that the future-tense version of the statement is true.”

Craig's argument as I make it out:
(1) Any tensed statement can be converted into a tenseless statement, and vice-versa, while preserving truth value.
(2) Tenseless statements, if ever true, are always true.
(3) Therefore, tenseless statements referring to temporal events are true prior to those events. (by 2)
(4) Therefore, future-tense statements are either true or false prior to those events. (by 1 and 3)

In response to this argument, Tom, you have challenged the second premise (2):
quote:
I agree that if X happened at T2, then “X happens at T2” is true. But I’m not convinced this is timelessly true and therefore eternally known by God the way 2 + 2 = 4 is eternally known by God. “X happens at T2” derives its truth from the historical fact. The historical event creates the truth which we render grammatically tenseless. But this is UNLIKE the mathematical truth of 2 + 2 = 4. This mathematical truth is not a historical event that happens at a specific time and whose truth is then rendered timeless by grammatical word play. Its truth is not derived from some event, it’s derived from God. It is only discovered by us to be true on some date in history. “X happens at T2” and “2 + 2 = 4” are entirely different animals. I’m no philosopher, but I’d word it this way: “The Allies invade Normandy on June 6, 1944” is grammatically tenseless, while “2 + 2 = 4” is metaphysically tenseless. Different animals altogether. Craig needs to do more than simply play with grammar to establish that a statement represents a metaphysically timeless truth.

I think you are correct in your analysis, Tom. Good job. If (2) is right then it requires that all statements referring to temporal events be timelessly settled, or metaphysically tenseless, as you put it. This just begs the question against open theism. Moreover, it is inconsistent with Craig's own committment to an A theory of time (according to which temporal becoming is real and not simply a matter of one's perspective).

Here's my take. While it is certainly the case that some tenseless statements are always true, e.g., '2+2=4', this does not follows, as Craig alleges, simply from the fact that the statement is tenseless. Rather, it follows because the content of the statement contains no temporal references. As with all statements, tenseless statements referring to temporal events (e.g., "At time T, event E occurred") are true only to the extent that what they affirm is settled.

In support of (III), Craig argues that if future-tense statements are neither true nor false then compound statements with future-tense components will be neither true nor false, with counterintuitive consequences. Thus he says, "if future-tense statements are neither true nor false, the statement made in 1998 'George W. Bush either will or will not win the presidential election in 2000' would not be true....But how can this be? Either Bush will win or he will not win-—there is no other alternative. Equally absurd, we could not say that a statement such as 'Bush both will and will not win the presidential election in 2000' is false....But surely this statement is false, for it is a self-contradiction: Bush cannot both win and not win the election!"

The problem with the argument is again that Craig assumes the future to be completely settled. If Bush's winning in 2000 was not settled in 1998, then neither "GWB will win in 2000" nor "GWB will not win in 2000" is true. What is true is 1998 is that "GWB might win in 2000". Craig's either-or is a false dichotomy. Similarly, "GWB will win in 2000 and not win in 2000" is not a contradiction because, as Doc has shown, the contradictory of "GWB will win in 2000" is not "GWB will not win in 2000" but "GWB might not win in 2000", and the contradictory of "GWB will not win in 2000" is "GWB might win in 2000".

In summary, Craig consistently begs the question against open theism by assuming without argument that the future is settled.

Alan
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GregBoyd
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   Posted 3/11/2003 12:37 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Is this another way of saying what Alan and TGB are saying:

The truth of some tenseless statements are trans-possible world (e.g. mathematical truths).

The truth of other tenseless statements are indexed to possible worlds (e.g. future contingents).

"George Bush is elected president in 2000" is an example of a truth indexed to a possible world, viz. the world in which free agents freely elect GB as president in 2000.

If agents possess LFW, WHICH possible world is to be actualized is not settled prior to their settling it.

Hence, the truth value of "George Bush is elected president in 2000" is not settled until agents settle it.

Hence, the statement "George Bush is elected president i 2000" IS timelessly true relative to possible worlds x,y and z, is timelessly false relative to possible worlds x1, y1, z1, and IS NEITHER TRUE OR FALSE relative to which possible world will end up being actualized.


Love the discussion. Hope to have more time to jump in later.

Gotta go.

In him
Greg

"In Christ...the ONLY THING that matters is faith energized by love." Galatians 5:6
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Alan Rhoda
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   Posted 3/11/2003 2:00 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
Is this another way of saying what Alan and TGB are saying:
The truth of some tenseless statements are trans-possible world (e.g. mathematical truths).
The truth of other tenseless statements are indexed to possible worlds (e.g. future contingents).
...
Hence, the statement "George Bush is elected president in 2000" IS timelessly true relative to possible worlds x,y and z, is timelessly false relative to possible worlds x1, y1, z1, and IS NEITHER TRUE OR FALSE relative to which possible world will end up being actualized.


Interesting formulation, Doc. According to this formulation we could say that Craig is assuming (falsely) that all tenseless statements have a trans-world truth value.

I have a couple suggestions, though. First, talk about "possible worlds" conveys the misleading impression that there is a set of distinct and fully determinate worlds. Rather, there is only one world--the actual one--and several possible ways this world can go depending on creaturely choices. All REAL possibilities (as opposed to merely logical possibilities) need to be grounded in an actuality. As reality changes and choices are made, some possibilities become actualities and others cease to be real possibilities. If the future is genuinely open, then there are no fully determinate possible worlds describing the future.

Second, I don't think it's accurate to say that "George Bush is elected president in 2000" is TIMELESSLY true relative to any possible world in which the truth of that statement depends on libertarianly free creaturely choices. Having a world-indexed (as opposed to a trans-world) truth value is a necessary condition for a tenseless statement to not be timelessly true, but it is not sufficient. A statement could be true in some worlds and not in others and not be timelessly true (or timelessly false) in any of those worlds. For a statement about a temporal state-of-affairs to be timelessly true in any possible world requires that that possible world be determinate in the relevant respects at any time prior to the occurrence of that state-of-affairs.

Alan
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Tom
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   Posted 3/11/2003 10:37 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Alan: …talk about "possible worlds" conveys the misleading impression that there is a set of distinct and fully determinate worlds. Rather, there is only one world--the actual one--and several possible ways this world can go depending on creaturely choices.

Tom: I see what you’re saying. How the possibilities will be resolved is not yet definite. But if there are “several possible ways” this world “can” go “depending on” creaturely (and divine) choices, then there is a set of distinct and determinate worlds, not in the sense Craig seems to mean. I mean “determinate” in the sense that possibilities are “definite.” It’s definitely possible that the sun will rise tomorrow,” definitely possible that “Tom will have a great time in St. Paul this weekend.” If these are really possible futures, then there are definitely or determinately possible. I hope I’m not just splitting hairs. There is a distinct and/or determinate set of possible worlds. Open theists are just unique in arguing that the set of possible worlds (which set of possibilities God determined in deciding to create) remains a set of possible worlds FOR US IN THIS WORLD. They’re still out in front of us.

Alan: All REAL possibilities (as opposed to merely logical possibilities) need to be grounded in an actuality. As reality changes and choices are made, some possibilities become actualities and others cease to be real possibilities. If the future is genuinely open, then there are no fully determinate possible worlds describing the future.

Tom: Again, I know what you’re saying, but it’s a little confusing to me. Since the possibilities you speak of are REAL, they comprise a determinate (= definite) set of possibilities. Simple enough. And what those possibilities are is fully determined. And they’re determined by God’s choice to create. You already agreed that where Molinism sees God as creating a world FROM possibilities (which is what you’re “full determinate possible worlds” is speaking of), we see God creating a world OF possibilities. I just think there’s room for using language like “definite” and “determinate” when speaking of the ontological status of these possibilities. We sometimes speak of “possibilities” as opposed to “actualities.” That’s OK. But this shouldn’t led us to view possibilities as not “actual.” Possibilities ARE actual.

Alan: A statement could be true in some worlds and not in others and not be timelessly true (or timelessly false) in any of those worlds.

Tom: Are you arguing FROM the truth of this statement or FOR its truth? Can you give us an example of such a statement?

Tom


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Tom
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   Posted 3/12/2003 6:18 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Alan-

I want to post a bit of a conversation I’ve had with Bill Hasker about this thread. He’s pretty busy and apologized for not being able to visit the site. I don’t think he’ll mind my posting some of his comments.

I sent him the entire first page and then asked:

Tom: I'm particularly interested in knowing whether Molinists agree that there exists a possible world identical to our own up to the instant of, say, Peter's denial of Christ, but in which Peter defends Christ.

Hasker: First, a "possible world" is a comprehensive "way things could be." Once you have a possible world, there are no further possibilities within that world. According to Molinism, God actualizes a possible world by performing a particular creative act (or set of such acts).

Second, you ask how God guarantees that the world in which Peter denies Christ is actualized, rather than one in which he does not do so. The answer is, God does not guarantee this. What guarantees it is the counterfactual of freedom which states that, if Peter were placed in such-and-such a situation, he would deny Christ. God knows that counterfactual to be true, but God does not control the truth of the counterfactual.

Tom: OK, so he actualizes the world in which Peter denies Christ by placing Peter in C, that is, in the circumstances spoken of in the counterfactual "If Peter were in C, he would freely deny Christ." But if there's a possible world in which Peter defends Christ in the same circumstances, then how does God know that Peter will not defend Christ when placed in C?

Hasker: He knows this because he knows that the counterfactual "If Peter were in C, he would freely deny Christ," is *true.* An additional point, which you may be unaware of, is that the same counterfactuals of freedom are true in all the worlds God can actualize [italics mine]. (Thus, they define what Tom Flint has called the "galaxy" of actualizable [or feasible] worlds.) So no matter what world God chose to actualize, the counterfactual, "If Peter were in C, he would freely deny Christ" is true -- though of course, in many of these worlds Peter never is in C.

---- End of Correspondence ----

What interested me is Hasker’s comment that “the same counterfactuals of freedom are true in all the worlds God can actualize.” This seemed inaccurate to me, but I wasn’t gonna say that to Hasker! I understood Craig affirmed the existence of a possible world in which Peter defends Christ in precisely the same circumstances as those in which he denied Christ. But after reading Craig again, it seems that this world is only a “logically possible” world. It’s not a “feasible” world; that is, it’s not “actualizable.” So, I’ll have to revise things a bit. There is no true counterfactual “If Peter were in D (where D is a set of circumstances identical to those in which Peter in fact denied Christ), he would freely defend Christ.” Such a world is a logically possible world, but it’s not a “middle knowledge” world; it’s not among those “feasible” or “actualizable” worlds God can choose to create.

Oh well.

Tom

PS This is the problem with Molinism. For your average sort of person like me (a non-academic, non-Ph.D sort a guy), by the time you understand Molinism and can make a decision about whether to belive it or not, you've already lived 4/5ths of your life believing something else.


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