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MattBrown
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Date Joined Nov 2004
Total Posts : 74
 
   Posted 11/15/2004 12:54 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Hello,
I am looking for an exegesis of Prov 16:4 in light of the Open view.
Thanks,
Matt
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Holiday
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Date Joined Nov 2003
Total Posts : 22
 
   Posted 11/15/2004 7:58 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Hello friend,

Good luck on your paper.

I know Adam Clark has been cited by J. Sanders and Doc as someone who at least writes with O.V. sentiments. Though I don't know if they say Clark himself was an Open Theist. Anyhow, as far as I know he is the only one who is has written commentaries and been an O.T. As for Prov. 16:4 I don't know what Clark says.


Good luck. If you find any other commentators let me know.

Oh, just thought of one other guy. Terrance Freithem (I'm not sure on the spelling) is an Old Testament scholar out of Luther Seminary. He's not an open theists, but he is big into the relational model and is cited by Sanders at length in The God Who Risks. I know he at leasts takes the anthroporphisms seriously. But I have no Idea what he too might say about your verse.

go get em'

Holiday
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rossfadeinout
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Date Joined Oct 2002
Total Posts : 428
 
   Posted 11/15/2004 12:01 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Here is what Adam Clarke said in his commentary.

Verse 4. The Lord hath made all things for himself
He has so framed and executed every part of his creation, that it manifests his wisdom, power, goodness, and truth.

Even the wicked for the day of evil.
vegam rasha leyom raah. The whole verse is translated by the Chaldee thus: "All the works of the LORD are for those who obey him; and the wicked is reserved for the evil day."

As raah literally signifies to feed, it has been conjectured that the clause might be read, yea, even the wicked he feeds by the day, or daily.

If we take the words as they stand in our present version, they mean no more than what is expressed by the Chaldee and Syriac: and as far as we can learn from their present confused state, by the Septuagint and Arabic, that "the wicked are reserved for the day of punishment." Coverdale has given, as he generally does, a good sense: "The Lorde doth all thinges for his owne sake; yea, and when he kepeth the ungodly for the daye of wrath." He does not make the wicked or ungodly man; but when man has made himself such, even then God bears with him. But if he repent not, when the measure of his iniquity is filled up, he shall fall under the wrath of God his Maker.

www.studylight.org/com/acc/view.cgi?book=pr&chapter=016

Peace, Ross


"Let us remember how common the folly is of going from one faulty extreme into the opposite." -Thomas Reid

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lock
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Date Joined Jul 2004
Total Posts : 701
 
   Posted 11/15/2004 5:46 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
If we take the words as they stand in our present version, they mean no more than what is expressed by the Chaldee and Syriac: and as far as we can learn from their present confused state, by the Septuagint and Arabic, that "the wicked are reserved for the day of punishment." Coverdale has given, as he generally does, a good sense: "The Lorde doth all thinges for his owne sake; yea, and when he kepeth the ungodly for the daye of wrath." He does not make the wicked or ungodly man; but when man has made himself such, even then God bears with him. But if he repent not, when the measure of his iniquity is filled up, he shall fall under the wrath of God his Maker.



According to this, Coverdale and Clarke equate the day of evil (raa) with the day of God's wrath. Is God's judgment of the wicked evil?


His achievement are we, being created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God makes ready beforehand, that we should be walking in them.

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MattBrown
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Date Joined Nov 2004
Total Posts : 74
 
   Posted 11/20/2004 5:15 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
The Net Bible says on this verse:

16:4 The Lord works1 everything for its own ends2--even the wicked for the day of disaster.3

----------------------------------------------------------------------
1 sn The Hebrew verb translated "works" (lu^P*, pa’al) means "to work out; to bring about; to accomplish." It is used of God's sovereign control of life (e.g., Num 23:23; Isa 26:12).

2 tn Heb "for its answer." The term Whn}u&M^l^ (lamma’anehu) has been taken to mean either "for his purpose" or "for its answer." The Hebrew word is hn\u&m^ (ma’aneh, "answer") and not /u^m^l= (lema’an, "purpose"). So the suffix likely refers to "everything" (lK), kol). God ensures that everyone's actions and the consequences of those actions correspond-certainly the wicked for the day of calamity. In God's order there is just retribution for every act.

3 sn This is an example of synthetic parallelism ("A, what's more B"). The A-line affirms a truth, and the B-line expands on it with a specific application about the wicked-whatever disaster comes their way is an appropriate correspondent for their life.
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http://www.bible.org/netbible2/index.php?book=pro&chapter=16&verse=4&submit=Lookup+Verse

Does that hold water?
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