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| Open Theism Discussion Board > Public Forums > The raging debate continues here... > A Question For Greg Boyd. (About God being fundamentally opposed to evil.) | Forum Quick Jump
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|  JEE Registered Member
 Date Joined Jul 2004 Total Posts : 1466 | Posted 4/13/2005 3:43 PM (GMT -6) |   | Theoretically, if God were to sin, the wages of sin being death, the result would be the death of God and the annihilation of the universe.
I think the stickier problem in this discussion is if God can't sin, then rightarianism (might makes right) and Calvinistic determinism would not present a moral problem at all, for whatever God does is right because God does it, not because it is inherently the right thing to do.
All moral action is voluntary in nature, by definition. If God says "be holy for I am holy," but He can't help being holy and we can't help being sinful, then we are once again thrown into the quandary of even knowing what "good" and "holy" is.
May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.
JohnE
http://revivaltheology.netPost Edited (JEE) : 4/13/2005 6:09:52 PM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 4/13/2005 6:24 PM (GMT -6) |   | |
Hey John-
John: Theoretically, if God were to sin, with the wages of sin being death, the result would be the death of God and the annihilation of the universe.
Tom: Do you accept the death of God then (on the assumption that God exists of course) as possible? Conceivable? Given your belief that God exists, are you conceding the real possibility that God cease to exist? This entails God’s being a contingent being. Are you OK with that?
John: I think the stickier problem in this discussion is if God can't sin, then rightarianism (might makes right) and determinism would not present a moral problem at all.
Tom: I don’t see this, John, though I understand it’s one of the objections against necessary goodness. As I see it, God’s being necessarily good and so incapable of evil would not mean God could unconditionally determine peoples’ evil choices and send them to hell for it without this constituting a problem, for such a determination would presummably be one of the things a necessarily good God would be incapable of doing. At least it’s not the sort of thing one would expect God as revealed in scripture to do, nor would it be something we could meaningfully claim is true without also sacrificing other things we insist are true (like OUR being morally responsible). So saying God can’t sin doesn’t mean we can attribute just any old act to him without creating problems. Nor does saying God isn’t morally obliged mean we wouldn’t have a basis for objecting to the idea of his doing evil.
But it's interesting that your prefer to problem of conceding the possibility of God's ceasing to exist over the problem of how best to object to the idea of a necessarily good God's unconditionally decreeing evil. I'd much rather deal with the latter.
John: If God says "be holy for I am holy," but He can't help being holy and we can't help being sinful, then we are once again thrown into the quandary of even knowing what "good" and "holy" is.
Tom: Perhaps, but since it's not the case that we can't help being sinful where's the problem.
I'm interested in knowing, John. If God is morally obliged to something or someone, morally responsible to something or someone, some standard, what or who would that be? Godself? And that makes sense of our intuitions? Is my being responsible to no one and nothing other than myself a notion of accountability that would fly in everyday life? So how would it shore up your objection to determinism? Just wondering.
Tom Post Edited (TGB) : 4/13/2005 6:35:52 PM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  JEE Registered Member
 Date Joined Jul 2004 Total Posts : 1466 | Posted 4/14/2005 9:32 AM (GMT -6) |   | |
John: Theoretically, if God were to sin, with the wages of sin being death, the result would be the death of God and the annihilation of the universe.
Tom: Do you accept the death of God then (on the assumption that God exists of course) as possible? Conceivable? Given your belief that God exists, are you conceding the real possibility that God cease to exist? This entails God’s being a contingent being. Are you OK with that?
John: When I say "theoretically," that's all I mean. As I have previously tried to make clear on this board, I believe God cannot sin--because He wills not to.
John: I think the stickier problem in this discussion is if God can't sin, then rightarianism (might makes right) and determinism would not present a moral problem at all.
Tom: I don’t see this, John, though I understand it’s one of the objections against necessary goodness. As I see it, God’s being necessarily good and so incapable of evil would not mean God could unconditionally determine peoples’ evil choices and send them to hell for it without this constituting a problem, for such a determination would presummably be one of the things a necessarily good God would be incapable of doing. At least it’s not the sort of thing one would expect God as revealed in scripture to do, nor would it be something we could meaningfully claim is true without also sacrificing other things we insist are true (like OUR being morally responsible). So saying God can’t sin doesn’t mean we can attribute just any old act to him without creating problems. Nor does saying God isn’t morally obliged mean we wouldn’t have a basis for objecting to the idea of his doing evil.
But it's interesting that your prefer to problem of conceding the possibility of God's ceasing to exist over the problem of how best to object to the idea of a necessarily good God's unconditionally decreeing evil. I'd much rather deal with the latter.
John: Did not Abraham say, when bargaining with God over the judgment of Sodom & Gomorrah, "Shall not the Judge of all the earth do right?" How can Jesus' words, "Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father in heaven is perfect," be even remotely reasonable and a righteous command, if in fact God is a virtually "holy machine" whose righteousness is automatic, while sinfulness is our "default setting?"
John: If God says "be holy for I am holy," but He can't help being holy and we can't help being sinful, then we are once again thrown into the quandary of even knowing what "good" and "holy" is.
Tom: Perhaps, but since it's not the case that we can't help being sinful where's the problem.
John: Peter, Paul, and John all say in one way or another that we are to be imitators of God, and to love as He has loved us. Indeed, love is the fulfilling of the law. And, as love must be chosen to actually be love, then it necessarily must be that God's love is voluntary. This seems to me to exalt God's moral character and real personhood to the highest possible degree.
I'm interested in knowing, John. If God is morally obliged to something or someone, morally responsible to something or someone, some standard, what or who would that be? Godself?
The everlasting and perpetually true moral law of the universe (love), to which He holds himself responsible. He does not say, "Do as I say but not as I do."
Blessings,
John
May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.
JohnE
http://revivaltheology.net | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 4/15/2005 2:34 PM (GMT -6) |   | |
Tom: Hey John, watch me pull a rabbit out of my hat.
John: What, again?!
Tom: Just roll up my sleeve, and presto…
Previous Convo said...
John: Theoretically, if God were to sin, with the wages of sin being death, the result would be the death of God and the annihilation of the universe.
Tom: Do you accept the death of God then (on the assumption that God exists of course) as possible? Conceivable? Given your belief that God exists, are you conceding the real possibility that God cease to exist? This entails God’s being a contingent being. Are you OK with that?
John: When I say "theoretically," that's all I mean. As I have previously tried to make clear on this board, I believe God cannot sin--because He wills not to.
I don’t really understand this. I want to, but I just can’t see what’s really being said. I’m trying to figure out what “cannot” means in “God cannot sin because he wills not to sin.” In my mind, we ‘can’ and ‘cannot’ choose according to what we are ‘able’ or ‘unable’ to choose. So to say “God can’t sin because he chooses not to sin” doesn’t at all help. It just begs the question, ‘Well, can God will to sin?’
Earlier you objected that problems arise if God is thought of as being incapable of sinning. That tells me you think God can sin. But here you say God cannot sin “because he wills not to.” So now my question just becomes, Can God will to sin? To explain the inability to sin by saying God “wills not to” just pushes the question back.
But if this is all ‘theoretical’, then what’s the point? God is theoretically able to sin but actually unable? Or he’s actually able but theoretically unable? I mean, either the theoretical consequences of God’s sinning entail logical impossibilities or not. If they do, then we can’t meaningfully theorize that God can sin, can we? I’m not following what you’re saying by limiting yourself to the “theoretical” that you couldn’t or wouldn’t just flat our say is in fact the case or not.
Help me follow you here John.
John said...
John: Did not Abraham say, when bargaining with God over the judgment of Sodom & Gomorrah, "Shall not the Judge of all the earth do right?"
I’ve never thought this meant Abraham was holding some standard over God’s head (and certainly not that God would have actually “sinned” had Abraham not held God’s feet to the fire so to speak). It always seemed to me that this statement told us more about Abraham than it did about God. I mean, Abraham is expressing his own belief in God’s faithfulness and character and that gets worked out in his own reasoning as he talks with God. But if Abraham really believed he was holding God to an objective standard and that his doing so actually DID hold God to that standard, then wouldn’t you face the same problem I face? I mean, you admit God can’t sin ‘because he won’t’. How does THAT belief explain Abraham’s comment? It seems that if taken this way, Abraham’s comment proves a bit too much.
Why didn’t Abraham say this same thing a couple of chapters later when God told him to sacrifice Isaac? He should have said something like, “Hold on a minute, God. You can’t ask me to kill Isaac. Shouldn’t you do what’s right?” Instead, Abraham just obeyed. True, he did reason that if Isaac was killed God would raise him from the dead (Heb). But that would suggest just what I’m suggesting, i.e., that Abraham refused to believe God was capable of lying or failing to keep his word. It just wasn’t a possibility Abraham was willing to accept.
John said...
John: How can Jesus' words, "Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father in heaven is perfect," be even remotely reasonable and a righteous command, if in fact God is a virtually "holy machine" whose righteousness is automatic…
Seems to me all this passage explicitly does is ‘oblige’ us to be as loving and good as God, the only trustworthy measurement of love and good there is. But this makes sense if God IS the standard. If there were some higher objective measurement that is itself not God (i.e., your “everlasting moral law of the universe” for example) then shouldn’t Christ have pointed us to THAT measurement if he believed that’s the standard God is also measured by? I don’t know.
So the passage says God is obliging, I agree. But this doesn’t seem to also mean that God is as obliged as we are to obey such and such a standard. I’m not saying “not being obliged” = “being free to do any old thing.” That doesn’t follow either.
John said...
John: Peter, Paul, and John all say in one way or another that we are to be imitators of God, and to love as He has loved us. Indeed, love is the fulfilling of the law. And, as love must be chosen to actually be love, then it necessarily must be that God's love is voluntary.
It’s just possible that the necessities required by finite contingent creatures like us (viz., LFW) who have to BECOME loving are not required by a non-contingent (= necessary) being like God to BE loving. I mean, if we’re going to press the “imitation” metaphor and reason backwards from what’s true about US to what must be true about GOD, then we’d have also to conclude that God BECOMES loving and good like us (that’s how we do it so that has to be figured into our “imitation” of God), that his moral character was developed over time, that in fact he used to be a sinner and got saved. But neither of us does this, so we draw a line somewhere in understanding just what the point is behind Paul’s telling us to “imitate” God morally. I think it just means “do what God does, love like he loves, hate what he hates, take GOD as your measure. Be like God.” But we can do that meaningfully without having to suppose that God is really capable of being morally ambivalent or arbitrary.
Previous Convo said...
Tom: I'm interested in knowing, John. If God is morally obliged to something or someone, morally responsible to something or someone, some standard, what or who would that be? Godself?
John: The everlasting and perpetually true moral law of the universe (love), to which He holds himself responsible.
OK then, let me ask it this way. Who or what is responsible for grounding the truth of this moral law? I can’t see that there’s really any other candidate but God. God defines that measurement, grounds that measurement. God IS that measurement. When God looks at that measurement, that ‘law of love’, God is really just looking into a mirror at himself. He’s not really looking at anything else at all. Secondly, it looks to me like you’d agree that this “eternally and perpetually true law of love” is NECESSARY. It couldn’t have been otherwise. It’s not free to be other than it is. So it looks like you ascribe the sort of ‘necessity’ to this ‘law’ that I’m arguing we ought to ascribe to God’s own goodness. Hence my question: Who or what grounds this moral law of love? As I see it, ‘who’ and ‘what’ God is grounds the truth of the law of love you mentioned. So the law of love isn’t really something that has objective existence or grounds for its existence outside of God himself. It’s someone. Wouldn’t it have to be ultimately in order to be a standard “of love”? It may be that your view in the end actually tends to depersonalize love, because you subjugate or oblige the ‘person’ of God to a ‘non-person’, a ‘law’, a ‘thing’. Now, I do think that an ultimate standard or measurement of what good is exists, I just don’t think it’s a ‘law’ or ‘thing’ at all. I think it’s a ‘person’. But if you agree to this, then the same ‘necessity’ you attribute to this ‘eternal and perpetually true law’ gets attributed to the one who defines or grounds it.
Tom Post Edited (TGB) : 4/15/2005 2:37:44 PM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
  |  JEE Registered Member
 Date Joined Jul 2004 Total Posts : 1466 | Posted 4/15/2005 3:29 PM (GMT -6) |   | |
I don’t really understand this. I want to, but I just can’t see what’s really being said. I’m trying to figure out what “cannot” means in “God cannot sin because he wills not to sin.” In my mind, we ‘can’ and ‘cannot’ choose according to what we are ‘able’ or ‘unable’ to choose. So to say “God can’t sin because he chooses not to sin” doesn’t at all help. It just begs the question, ‘Well, can God will to sin?’
And I'm trying to see how love can be one thing for God and another for us. If you were to say, "I cannot accept only $500 for this particular antique book," you are saying you "cannot," but the real truth is you WILL (choose) not to. It is a MORAL inability, not a physical inability that you are expressing.
But if this is all ‘theoretical’, then what’s the point?
The point is to distinguish between what one is MORALLY not able to do and what one is PHYSICALLY not able to do. In my paradigm (Moral Gov't Theology), the distinction between the physical/material and the moral/spiritual is paramount and absolutely crucial.
Blessings,
John
May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.
JohnE
http://revivaltheology.netPost Edited (JEE) : 4/15/2005 4:36:17 PM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 4/15/2005 3:38 PM (GMT -6) |   | John: Tom, Based on your responses in this thread, I honestly can't see why you would find determinism morally unacceptable, bro. A God such as you describe could murder, kill, steal, cheat, lie (or damn people to hell for something HE made them do--disobey), but it wouldn't be wrong because He did it (Might makes right).
Tom: I suck at communicating if you think I believe God can murder, steal, cheat, and lie! I thought I said God was necessarily good, which means God cannot do those things. How can you argue someone who believes God is necessarily GOOD would also have to believe God can lie, cheat, and steal with impunity? I believe God cannot sin. But that cannot is a metaphysical 'cannot' and not an ethical cannot. That's all I'm saying.
Anybody else able to make sense of what I'm saying? Am I that bad! Gosh.
I have huge problems with determinism. I find it unacceptable, among other reason, because:
a) I don't see that God has revealed himself in scripture as a deterministic God. b) Being capable only of deterministic ways of relating appears to me to be weak way of relating to others. c) Unconditionally determining others robbs them of their 'personhood' and empties the relationship of love. d) Holding others responsible for choices you unconditionally determine they make isn't just.
I'm at least trying to answer your questions Bro. But I've asked several of you too. Any responses? Do you or don't you think God exists necessarily? If yes, then how are you logically consistent to also believe God capable (theoretically or otherwise--doesn't matter, we're talking about logical consistency) of doing that which entails God's non-existence as a necessary cosequence?
Tom | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 4/15/2005 3:54 PM (GMT -6) |   | John: The point is to distinguish between what one is MORALLY not able to do and what one is PHYSICALLY not able to do. In my paradigm (Moral Gov't Theology), the distinction between the physical/material and the moral/spiritual is paramount and absolutely crucial.
Tom: This is all fine, John. But you still have to own up to the logical relationship between claims made on either side. In other words, to say (a) that God is physically/materially capable of sin and to agree (b) that God's sinning entails his non-existence are not both logically consistent with (c) the belief that God exists necessarily. Saying God is morally/spiritually incapable of sin doesn't make (a), (b), and (c) logically compatible.
Of course, when I say "I can't accept X amount of dollars" for a particular item I'm selling, I mean "I won't take...." I obviously have the physical abilty to take X amount of dollars for the item. BUT (and this is my point) if "my taking X amount of dollars" entails as a necessary consequence a state of affairs I also believe to be metaphysically impossible, I'd have to then conclude that I'm really, properly incapable of taking X amount of dollars (or give up the belief in the impossibility of of the consequence).
You're more up on this stuff than I am, John, but what does MORALLY NOT ABLE TO DO even mean? To me the words just mean "not allowed to do" or "forbidden." How does entail God's never willing to sin?
Tom
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  |  JEE Registered Member
 Date Joined Jul 2004 Total Posts : 1466 | Posted 4/15/2005 4:35 PM (GMT -6) |   | |
TGB said...
Tom: I suck at communicating if you think I believe God can murder, steal, cheat, and lie! I thought I said God was necessarily good, which means God cannot do those things. How can you argue someone who believes God is necessarily GOOD would also have to believe God can lie, cheat, and steal with impunity? I believe God cannot sin. But that cannot is a metaphysical 'cannot' and not an ethical cannot. That's all I'm saying.
Why is your distinction between two kinds of "cannot" reasonable and mine isn't?
If this is NOT an ethical "cannot," then what is morality? If God has no ethical decisions, and somehow automatically always chooses good over evil, then how is He not really nothing more than a holy machine?
I have huge problems with determinism. I find it unacceptable, among other reason, because:
c) Unconditionally determining others robbs them of their 'personhood' and empties the relationship of love.
But isn't God a person too? How is what He does loving if it is automatic and not truly chosen?
I'm at least trying to answer your questions Bro. But I've asked several of you too. Any responses? Do you or don't you think God exists necessarily?
Yes, I believe God exists necessarily.
If yes, then how are you logically consistent to also believe God capable (theoretically or otherwise--doesn't matter, we're talking about logical consistency) of doing that which entails God's non-existence as a necessary cosequence?
Good question. Besides annihilation, perhaps it would be possible for God to become malevolent and yet retain his ultimate rule over all. This would avoid the problem of God's necessary existence with regard to this. (I should hasten add that this WILL NOT happen, because:
1. God is able to see perfectly all possible choices, and thus is able to "see right through" any temptations to sin. (He would see the ultimate result of such folly and would choose against it).
2. God's character has been proven time and time again as being perfectly righteous, holy and good.
I'm not expecting many to buy what I'm saying; I realize it's way to scary for most people to even contemplate such theoretical possibilities. However, even though there are some logical difficulties to my view, I see no compelling reasons to say God's moral actions are not voluntary in nature (and yet perfectly righteous in all His ways), and I see many good reasons to hold to it. May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.
JohnE
http://revivaltheology.net | | Back to Top | | |
 |  M.Carrington Registered Member
 Date Joined Mar 2005 Total Posts : 3 | Posted 4/21/2005 12:11 AM (GMT -6) |   | Hi Everyone,
Thanks for all the responses. Looking back it seems to me that if I could write my original post all over I would not have asked, "Do all that He can do?" and simply ask instead "Must He intervene or is He free to not intervene at all?".
The events of Sept. 11 did in fact occur. I do believe that God had many different options for how to intervene and I seriously doubt that God would have found His only viable option to be the option of suspending the free wills of the terrorists. I recognize that an intervention on Gods part does not necessarily guarantee a successful intervention unless He opts to make the kind of intervention that does guarantee a successful intervention.
Perhaps it should be asked if God's nature is such that He must make at least some type of intervention when He knows of a terrorist attack about to happen or is He free to not intervene at all? After all, He being God He has all of eternity to make things right in His own time.
It would seem to me that some of the respondents seem to hold to the belief that God must be completely INFLEXIBLE in His committment to His free will project and perhaps even in His own committment to keeping His word. Again please correct me if I misrepresent anyone's views. I would like to offer up some of my own thoughts here. Its running late so please forgive me if I don't take the time to look up and mention the chapter and verses that I make reference to .
In the book of Genesis God informs Abraham about the captivity and that the FOURTH generation would be the generation to return to the land. God would not have told this to Abraham if He wasn't committed to bringing it to pass. In the book of Exodus we find the lineage and discover that Moses' generation was the Fourth generation and his generation perished in the wilderness. Apparantly it was the FIFTH generation that returned to the land. In my opinion it is the book of Numbers that removes all doubt for in this book God in looking back to His decision to let Moses' generation perish in the wilderness refers to his decision as a BREACH OF PROMISE (KJV). It would seem to me that the God of the Bible has the ability to be both INFLEXIBLE in some committments and yet somewhat FLEXIBLE in other of His committments. He even has the ability to BREAK HIS OWN WORD if we sin against Him. This is how things seem to me if I understand the scriptures correctly. Please forgive me if I have misrepresented the scriptures.
It must be asked what grounds we might have for thinking that God must be absolutely INFLEXIBLE in His committment to respect and never temporarily suspend our free wills. Is this way of thinking Biblical or just philosophical? I recognize that if God was to do this to me I would temporarily become a biological automaton. I also recognize that it is one thing to suspend someone's free will to get them to do evil and another thing to supend their free will to get them to do something that is not evil. Affirming that God would suspend someones free will to get them to do evil raises some serious questions about God's holiness. I recognize that if God was to do this to me my actions would cease from being my actions and become God's actions instead.
Looking back to the scriptures we find that God temporarily removed from one of the Old Testament Kings {perhaps Darius or Nebby-k-nezzer ( however you spell that name )} his very ability to reason as a human being for a period of seven years I believe. He lived those seven years as an animal. Did God violate His nature by withdrawing this king's ability to reason as a man? This certainly would have had a significant affect on his ability to make choices so it does touch his free will. When God took back his ability to reason He took back that which was rightfully His to take. Was there some inflexible committment to a INTELLIGENT BEING PROJECT that He could not compromise? Am I to think that although God can suspend a man's ability to reason He can never suspend a man's free will? The God of the Bible took the life of king David's innocent baby and when He did He took that which was rightfully His to take. Am I to assume that although God can take my life at any time He can never take my free will even for just a moment?
To be honest it would seem to me that a more Biblical position would be to hold that God has equipped us with a SIGNIFICANT free will instead of an ABSOLUTE free will. With a SIGNIFICANT free will we possess the power of contrary choice as long as our will is not suspended. We possess our free will (with the power of contrary choice) because God graciously allows us to have it but does not owe it to us any more than the ability to reason. God remains sovereign over absolutely everything including our will to choose, our ability to reason and our ability to live.
By the way, I also believe that the future consists partly of foreordained events that are foreknown as definite and partly of non-foreordained events that are not foreknown as definite. I also believe that God strongly prefers to govern over men by means of moral influence (divine persuasion). Though God has a multitude of ways to intervene I do have a real probem with denying God the option of suspending my free will. Would such an action on God's part be unfatherlike? I don't think so and it might just save my life. It should also be mentioned that although God is fatherlike in many ways He is not fatherlike in every way. Has God ever suspended someone's free will? I don't know and I can't think of any scripture verses that mention His doing so. I also know of no verses that tell us He could never do so. The hardening of a heart does not mean the will is suspended and neither does coercion by weather or a whale or anything else that brings us to the point of making a choice.
Well I thought I'd put my two cents in. Some of you are pretty tough so go ahead and blow me away. Good to hear from you.
Sincerly,
M. Carrington | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 4/21/2005 9:24 AM (GMT -6) |   | Hi MCarrington! Where ya been? We’ve been slugging it out here for ya.
MC: Looking back it seems to me that if I could write my original post all over I would not have asked, "Do all that He can do?" and simply ask instead "Must He intervene or is He free to not intervene at all?"
Tom: Same question really. I mean, it brings up the same fundamental issue about God’s freedom and actions.
MC: The events of Sept. 11 did in fact occur. I do believe that God had many different options for how to intervene and I seriously doubt that God would have found His only viable option to be the option of suspending the free wills of the terrorists.
Tom: I doubt suspending their free wills was a viable option at all given God’s purposes for creating. But where there are equally good options, then it makes sense to say God is free to choose among them. The question is, assuming there are not ‘equally’ good ways—assuming there is really only one ‘good’ way to pursue his purposes and ten ineffective or even evil ways to respond, is God ‘free’ to not take the good way and pursue some evil way instead?
I don’t pretend to always know what the good or best way for God to act in a situation is, but I’m relatively certain that whatever that best and good way is, that’s what God will take. This is what I mean when I say: God always does the most God can do, given his purposes and the totality of factors he has to deal with, to maximize good and minimize evil.
MC: I recognize that an intervention on Gods part does not necessarily guarantee a successful intervention unless He opts to make the kind of intervention that does guarantee a successful intervention.
Tom: An interesting pastoral question here is this: If “all God can do given the situation and the totality of factors he has to deal with” can’t always guarantee that God gets what he wants (viz., doesn’t always prevent the evil in question), then what are we trusting in and for? When we say we “trust” God in all situations, what’s that mean? Does it mean we trust that what actually happens really is God’s sovereign will? These seems to be what trust entails for Calvinists and traditional Arminians. If not, then what? I know what my answer is, but I’m interested in yours.
MC: Perhaps it should be asked if God's nature is such that He must make at least some type of intervention when He knows of a terrorist attack about to happen or is He free to not intervene at all?
Tom: Bingo. That’s what John and I have been debating. As I understand it John takes the view that God is physically/materially CAPABLE of sinning (or of not doing what he knows is the greatest good) but morally INCAPABLE of the same. I still can’t figure out what this even means. “Morally incapable” just means “not morally allowed” if it’s not the “will” itself that’s embraced by “incapable.” So all “God is morally incapable of sinning” would just mean “God’s not allowed to sin.” So what? How’s that mean God won’t sin? It doesn’t, and it just leaves us asking, Can (where “can” is physical/material ability) God will to sin? I say no. John has to say yes since he thinks God is physically/materially capable of sinning. But he wants “God is morally incapable of sinning” to mean MORE than just “God is not allowed to sin.” He wants it to assure us that God “will not” ever sin. He says as much: “God can’t sin because he will not sin.” But to get to this assurance John’s use of “incapable” in “God is morally incapable of sinning” has to reach far enough to embrace God’s “will,” which is where I’ll be standing waiting to greet John when he arrives.
MC: It would seem to me that some of the respondents seem to hold to the belief that God must be completely INFLEXIBLE in His committment to His free will project and perhaps even in His own committment to keeping His word. Again please correct me if I misrepresent anyone's views. I would like to offer up some of my own thoughts here. Its running late so please forgive me if I don't take the time to look up and mention the chapter and verses that I make reference to.
Tom: The examples you give don’t really show God being flexible in the sense of being capable of breaking his word. If God says, “I’ll do X” and he ends up not doing X, then we can conclude that God’s doing X was conditional. That’s all. Your examples show a virtuous sort of flexibility, the creative ways a perfectly good and loving God would respond in changing situations. That’s cool. But they don’t demonstrate that God’s “flexibility” includes being other than perfectly good and loving. THAT’S what John and I were debating.
I think you’re right on though in saying we have significant freedom and not absolute freedom. We’re not absolutely anything.
MC: Though God has a multitude of ways to intervene I do have a real probem with denying God the option of suspending my free will.
Tom: Well, he’s got that option, yes. What it doesn’t make sense to say is that God suspends our libertarian freedom unconditionally and then holds us morally accountable for what we do in such a state.
Again, we haven’t been debating whether or not God can or even does sometimes revoke our freedom in important ways. We’ve been debating whether or not God himself is ‘free’ to be other than good and loving.
Thanks MC!
Blessings, Tom | | Back to Top | | |
  |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 4/21/2005 10:26 AM (GMT -6) |   | John: My view has apparently been unclear to you. It is not the case that I mean God is "not ALLOWED to sin." It is the case that I mean God WILLS NOT to sin, and perpetually so. God's ultimate intention/purpose is always benevolent.
Tom: I understand YOU don’t intend “God is morally incapable of sinning” to mean “God is not allowed to sin.” I was only arguing that your view is—what’s the word? inconsistent? incomplete? incoherent? because it doesn’t actually answer the question: Can God sin? But it seems to me that you WANT “God is morally incapable of sinning” to answer this question, so you obviously mean something MORE than “God is not permitted to sin” (although you DO believe God is not permitted to sin--more on that below). As I said, you want to assure us that God cannot sin but you qualify this with “can sin materially but cannot sin morally in the sense that he eternally ‘wills not to’ sin.”
So you have both: God can sin and cannot sin (though in different senses). You affirm that God is physically/materially capable of sinning, but you deny that God is morally capable of sinning. I’m trying to figure out which of these embraces God’s ‘will’. Which delimits the metaphysical possibilities God faces when he “chooses.” If by affirming “God can materially sin” you hope to ground a) the praiseworthiness of his actions and b) the morally objectionable character of determinism (which have been the two reasons you’ve offered for believing God is materially capable of sinning), then you have to be consistent in affirming “God’s sinning” as a real, metaphysical, actualizable state of affairs. There can’t be SOME OTHER attribute (like God’s being morally incapable of sinning) that renders “God’s sinning” certain to never occur. For if the state of affairs “God’s sinning” is absolutely certain to never occur because of something about God other than his “material abilities,” then claiming that God is materially capable of sinning fails to do what you claim your affirming it does, namely, ground the praiseworthiness of God's actions and the morally objectionable character of determinism. See, God’s being free to sin only grounds the praiseworthiness of his actions (assuming it needs to, which you claim is so) if “God’s sinning” is open with regard to the future. Likewise with (b). But saying “God cannot sin because he eternally and perpetually will not sin” just empties “God is materially capable of sinning” of any force (in my small eyes at least).
So again, I want to bring these two (God’s material ability to sin AND God’s moral inability to sin) together and ask:
(1) Which of the two (material ability or moral inability) embraces God’s ‘will’?
(2) CAN (in the material sense) God will to sin? If so, doesn’t that have to mean “God’s sinning” as a state of affairs has a probability of greater than 0 and less than 1 of occurring? It would seem so. The same logic we use to argue the open future based on libertarian free will has to apply here too. If you agree, then cool. I missed that. I’ve understood from your “God eternally wills not to sin” that the probability of God’s sinning at any time in the future is 0. My point is, if the probability of God’s sinning at any time in the future is really 0, then what can you possibly mean (and what possible benefit could you gain) from arguing that God is materially free to sin?
Just trying to figure it out.
John: It is not the case that I mean God is "not ALLOWED to sin."
Tom: Now this looks like a denial of much of what you have argued. You’ve been arguing that God IS morally obligated to keep the “eternal law of love.” I asked you: If God is morally obligated, to whom or to what is he obligated? You answered: To the eternally law of law. So you DO believe God is “not allowed to sin.” That’s what being “morally obligated” means, my friend. So:
(3) Is God morally obligated to something or someone?
TomPost Edited (TGB) : 4/21/2005 10:36:54 AM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  JEE Registered Member
 Date Joined Jul 2004 Total Posts : 1466 | Posted 4/21/2005 10:30 AM (GMT -6) |   | | Well, yeah. God is morally obligated--to the highest good of everyone. This is what I understand scripture to mean by "God is love." (The context of 1 Jn 4 indicates voluntary activity that believers ought to emulate, not an "essence.")
How else can He "swear by himself?" It is clear to me that you WILL not to understand my view, Tom. May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.
JohnE
http://revivaltheology.netPost Edited (JEE) : 4/21/2005 10:35:00 AM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 4/21/2005 10:46 AM (GMT -6) |   | I wanna get clear answers. So again, bringing together God’s material ability to sin AND God’s moral inability to sin:
(1) Which of the two (material ability or moral inability) embraces God’s ‘will’? (2) CAN (in the material sense) God will to sin? (3) Is God morally obligated to something or someone?
You’ve answered (3) with yes, God is morally obligated to someTHING, namely, the law of law. How about (1) and (2)?
Tom | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 4/21/2005 11:39 AM (GMT -6) |   | John: Well, yeah. God is morally obligated--to the highest good of everyone. This is what I understand scripture to mean by "God is love." (The context of 1 Jn 4 indicates voluntary activity that believers ought to emulate, not an "essence." How else can He "swear by himself?"
Tom: I understand “swearing by one’s self” to mean the one doing the swearing IS herself the standard, the measurement. There’s nothing higher to swear by. That’s just the point. But if you’re right and God is morally obligated to some other standard that is itself not God (i.e., some “law of love”) then shouldn’t God be swearing by that law? Seems so. After all, he’s obligated to it, subjected to it, and owes it allegiance. But in swearing by himself, God in essence says “I am the law. I am the standard” and offers himself as pledge.
So John, if God is morally obligated to the “law of love” and this law is not itself God, then it follows that who and what God is by nature doesn’t define this law, in which case it can’t be true that “God is love," at least not if "is" here points to what God is by nature. If God is love, then how is it God is morally obligated to love? That would mean God is morally obligated to what God is, which doesn’t make much sense.
Tom | | Back to Top | | |
 |  JEE Registered Member
 Date Joined Jul 2004 Total Posts : 1466 | Posted 4/21/2005 12:19 PM (GMT -6) |   | | Tom,
How does it make sense to you for First John to say, "Beloved let us (choose to) love one another, for love is of God and everyone that loves (chooses to love) is born of God and knows God. He that does not love (refuses to love) does not know God, for God is love (automatically)" if in fact God's love is automatic?
Tom said: But in swearing by himself, God in essence says “I am the law. I am the standard” and offers himself as pledge.
If so, then holiness by anyone else but God is a sheer impossibility. Also, there's no need to swear at all if God's holiness is automatic. Do you really want to say that God's holiness is automatic?
Tom: So John, if God is morally obligated to the “law of love” and this law is not itself God, then it follows that who and what God is by nature doesn’t define this law, in which case it can’t be true that “God is love," at least not if "is" here points to what God is by nature. If God is love, then how is it God is morally obligated to love? That would mean God is morally obligated to what God is, which doesn’t make much sense.
Please see my first sentence above.
Love ya (love that is chosen)
John
P.S.: If God's "love" is not freely chosen by Him, but is instead simply defined by God's choices (whatever God does is good, regardless of how it may offend our inherent sense of morality), then it seems to me that Calvinism would be perfectly justifiable on that basis (rightarianism--whatever God does is right because of Who's doing it, not God chooses the good because of its inherent quality of goodness). May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.
JohnE
http://revivaltheology.netPost Edited (JEE) : 4/21/2005 12:29:32 PM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  JEE Registered Member
 Date Joined Jul 2004 Total Posts : 1466 | Posted 4/21/2005 12:25 PM (GMT -6) |   | | (1) Which of the two (material ability or moral inability) embraces God’s ‘will’?
Hmmm. I would have to say that both do. He cannot (is materially unable) precisely because He will not (morally refuses to).
(2) CAN (in the material sense) God will to sin?
Covered in first response.
(3) Is God morally obligated to something or someone?
He is morally obligated to the highest good of all persons (benevolence), and he has placed this obligation upon himself. But to make this an either/or issue misses the whole point of the moral law, Tom--it is the law of universal benevolence, the highest good of ALL moral creatures that is the law of love.
| | Back to Top | | |
 |  Similitude Registered Member
 Date Joined Apr 2004 Total Posts : 4968 | Posted 4/21/2005 10:02 PM (GMT -6) |   | John, you had once said to me, in an earlier debate similar to this one, that God's mind is perfectly objective at all times. Might it be that since God is the absolute being, He can never be tempted above what He is able, and being perfectly objective, could never choose other than the very goodness He naturally loves - even to the point of suffering from those choices? Then, when judgement time arrives, that same perfect objectivity "keeps" Him completely righteous in His judgements.
In short, might God's perfect objectivity combined with His benevolent nature work in concert to completely assure God's consistency of character? His character would, then, be consistent, but He would not be completely machine-like, for He would be suffering to accomplish that consistency. wjs | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Starkman Registered Member

Date Joined Oct 2001 Total Posts : 1747 | Posted 4/22/2005 10:48 PM (GMT -6) |   | | John,
Tom's right here. You can't have it both ways. Here's the deal. In your view, here's what God must to say to Himself at any given time: "I can neither will to sin nor sin, because it has already been determined that I will not. If I could will to sin, I still could not sin, because my destiny to never sin is determined."
Now, looking at the closely, there is no room to add to this, "I, God, am physically capable of sinning," because—it having already been determined that God simply can never sin—there is simply no place for a phyisical capability. John, it can't be both ways.
Now, if you were to hold to the physical-can with an open future of, say, might-but-will-always-choose-not-to, there might be something said for this. As it is, though, your view consigns and conscripts God to an eternity of never sinning, whether He ever wanted to or not.
Jeffscott,
John, you had once said to me, in an earlier debate similar to this one, that God's mind is perfectly objective at all times. Might it be that since God is the absolute being, He can never be tempted above what He is able, and being perfectly objective, could never choose other than the very goodness He naturally loves - even to the point of suffering from those choices? Then, when judgement time arrives, that same perfect objectivity "keeps" Him completely righteous in His judgements.
In short, might God's perfect objectivity combined with His benevolent nature work in concert to completely assure God's consistency of character? His character would, then, be consistent, but He would not be completely machine-like, for He would be suffering to accomplish that consistency.
You're idea, as I see it, is no different than John's original position. Notice the language you use: "He can never be tempted above what He is able . . . could never choose other than the very goodness He naturally loves . . . " The only way I can see your presentation differing from John's is if you are allowing for an open future: it's possible for God to sin, but we can be assured that He will always choose not to. That is not John's position, however.
Further, we must remember the thrust of James 1:13
Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am being tempted by God,” for God cannot be tempted with evil, and he himself tempts no one.
If God were to sin, it wouldn't be because He was tempted. It would have to be from some other reason.
For God not sinning,
Starkman
My teacher used to say that whenever he read Scripture, he would always ask the question, "What does this have to say about the character of God?" Working off his thinking, as I read Scripture, I have come to ask, "What does this have to say about the heart and passion of God's desire for relationship for us?Post Edited (Starkman) : 4/22/2005 10:52:08 PM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Similitude Registered Member
 Date Joined Apr 2004 Total Posts : 4968 | Posted 4/23/2005 11:20 AM (GMT -6) |   |
Starkman said...
You're idea, as I see it, is no different than John's original position. Notice the language you use: "He can never be tempted above what He is able . . . could never choose other than the very goodness He naturally loves . . . " The only way I can see your presentation differing from John's is if you are allowing for an open future: it's possible for God to sin, but we can be assured that He will always choose not to. That is not John's position, however.
Further, we must remember the thrust of James 1:13
Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am being tempted by God,” for God cannot be tempted with evil, and he himself tempts no one.
If God were to sin, it wouldn't be because He was tempted. It would have to be from some other reason. Keith, I agree with you and Tom - I believe God cannot do evil or lie. I was trying to account for that fact in a way that deals with some of John's objections. In fact, John had once argued similarly to me. It is true that God cannot be tempted by evils, but that might not imply that He can't be tempted at all. Why else does the scripture say don't tempt God. Seemingly, God can be tempted to do certain things. Those things are not, however, evil. If a person shakes their fist at the heavens and curses God, they are in some sense tempting God. But if God strikes that person dead, He has done no evil, for the person deserved it. See the difference?
My only point to John was that part of what accounts for God's inability to lie or do intrinisic evil may be His perfectly objective mind. Rational beings don't do what is irrational unless their rationality is degraded or diminished by suffering or desire. God has no such problem since He is pure benevolent spirit with perfect intellectual objectivity - even when suffering. He simply cannot, as perfectly rational, choose to do what is contrary to His own interest. And His interest is that which gives Him the greatest satisfaction - which just happens to be that which is righteous because His intrinsic nature is benevolent and holy.
Christ, however, had to contend with a physical, human body. That limited His capabilities - He grew in knowledge and wisdom. In that sense, He had to be perfected by suffering. In other words, there were things that He could not do at 12 which He could do at 30. The sufferings strengthened Him as they do us. But I'm not sure He could be tempted by intrinsic moral evils any more than the Father. There may have been nothing in Him to provide grounds to be tempted in that way.
wjs | | Back to Top | | |
  |  Similitude Registered Member
 Date Joined Apr 2004 Total Posts : 4968 | Posted 4/23/2005 5:32 PM (GMT -6) |   | John: What advantage is there is thinking of God's holiness as automatic?
Jeff: It allows me to take at face value the scripture that says God can't lie, and others like it. There are ways for the scripture to convey the idea that God is not intrinisically faithful and honest, but it doesn't convey those ideas that I'm aware of. Moreover, God surely has some kind of nature doesn't He? If His nature is neutral with respect to what we call "moral" qualities, how could He deem it "better" to act benevolently? Better only for us, or better for Him, too? But how could it be better for Him if His intrinsic nature is indifferent to such qualities? And yet scripture says that God is glorified because of His benevolence, leading me to believe that His nature is not neutral with respect to benevolent qualities. In short, there is implicit and explicit scriptural evidence that God simply IS benevolent and holy.
But that leaves us with explaining the relationship between God's longsuffering and His faithfulness. It is conceivable that God could be tempted to punish someone even if it directly or indirectly would render a promise unfulfilled. Here I think is where God's perfect objectivity and intrinisic righteousness "conspire" to render it impossible for God to succomb to the "temptation" to act contrary to His promise - even if it requires His own suffering. To remain faithful IS God's greatest self-interest, and He can never be blinded to that fact. So, I think for God to act in His own self-interest is only a "choice" in a purely formal sense. It is not a machine-like "decision" because it is a decision based on knowledge and interest (which implies sentience). And in that sense, these decisions are not automatic - they are derived from knowledge and wisdom as well as the weighing matters in light of His own benevolent sensibilites.
We, on the other hand, CAN be blinded to what is our self-interest. We have to suffer to even get into and REMAIN in a continous objective state. We have to exercise self-discipline to "watch," praying always. We have to exercise self-discipline to even learn from scripture what is in our self-interest. All this is contrary to our nature until we are renewed.
It certainly is a difficult subject, but the above is the best I can come up with to account for what I think the language of scripture is saying.
wjsPost Edited (jefscott) : 4/23/2005 6:49:09 PM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 4/24/2005 12:50 AM (GMT -6) |   | |
John: I really think you guys should just concede the whole thing to the determinists, for your understanding of God's moral "choices" is perfectly automatic and deterministic.
Tom: Wait a sec, John. YOU believe God’s doing good is just as determined as I do. You and I both agree that the objective probability of God’s doing evil is 0. So you’re in the same both here bro. That you attribute this objective probability to God’s morally choosing good in spite of being able to sin while I attribute this probability to necessary goodness, it doesn’t change the fact that we both believe the probability of God’s doing evil is 0. In fact, you ended up admitting that "God is materially unable to sin."
So I'm not the only one that's got to iron this out in objecting to determinists. But seriously, though, there's not problem (especially not for me, though pershaps for you a bit) in this regard. Saying God is necessarily, by nature, good doesn't at all allow me to agree with the determinist that God can unconditionally determine the choices of others and send them to hell for those choices. If God’s “doing good” is determinate with regard to his future choices, then that God would not do evil is also determined, in which case I have grounds on which to object to the determinist that God would not, indeed could not, do such a thing. You on the other hand have more of a problem objecting to the determinist, for you agree with him that God is "materially capable" of doing precisely what they attribute to God—unconditionally determining people for hell. You deny God is morally capable of doing this, yes. So you’d have to rely on that. But you still believe God is materially capable of sinning, and that brings up other difficulties (though not for the determinist who doesn't think God's unconditionally determining people for hell is at all an "evil" thing to do).
Again, believing God is necessarily GOOD doesn’t mean God makes up what ‘good’ is arbitrarily as he goes along, one morning inclined to a good of one sort and the next day to a good of a contradictory sort, or that there aren’t things which would violate God's goodness were he to perform them (like unconditionally determining peoples’ choices and then holding them accountable for those choices).
John: Why don't any of you answer this objection? What advantage is there is thinking of God's holiness as automatic?
Tom: That’s easy. It saves us from having to affirm a logical impossibility, namely, that God can cease to exist or that he could turn into Hannibal Lecter or become Lucifer (or whatever you think the consequences of God’s sinning would be). If the necessary consequence of God’s sinning is itself impossible, then God’s sinning is impossible. You do the math.
You seem to agree actually. You want it to be true that God “will not” sin, that the objective probability of God’s sinning is 0, but you want to ground this “will not” in God’s “moral inability to sin” while affirming God’s “material ability to sin.” But John, if the real objective probability of God’s sinning is 0 this would by definition have to include God’s not being materially capable of sinning. It just makes no sense to say the God has the material ability to actualize that which has an objective probability of 0 of obtaining. That much is just plain definition.
I think Starky touched on this too, and that is when I asked “Which of the two (material ability or moral inability) embraces God’s ‘will’?” you answered, “Both.” But honestly Bro, this means God is both capable and incapable of the same thing in the same respect (viz., with regard to the exercise of his will). But to say the will CAN actualize evil choice E entails E’s having a probability of greater than 0 of obtaining, while to say the will CANNOT actualize E entails E’s having a probability of 0 of obtaining. It’s contradictory.
But then you really confuse me, John. In answer to this same question you said: “God cannot (is materially unable) precisely because He will not (morally refuses to).” Now that’s confusing, because all along you’ve been AFFIRMING that God IS materially capable of sinning. His being “materially unable” to sin is what WE’VE been arguing for. But now you admit God IS “materially unable” to sin. Yes, you say he’s materially unable to sin “because he will not sin." (By the way, how would the sheer exercise of his "will" determine him "materially"? Hmm?) So now you’re agreeing God is both materially incapable and morally incapable of sinning? I’m lost again. For the time being I’ll keep assuming you believe “God can sin” (i.e., God is materially capable of sin).
I don’t have all the answers either, but surely it can’t be found along the line of arguing that God is capable of evil, especially when the necessary consequence of what you affirm God is materially capable of is a logically impossible state of affairs (God’s passing out of existence). So for the time being, I’ll hang on to necessary goodness and try to iron out whatever conceptual difficulties that involves (which do NOT include my being unable to object to determinism on the basis that God can’t perform the evil of unconditionally determining peoples’ choices and holding them accountable for those choices; necessary goodness would rule out God’s being capable of such a thing).
Jeff’s last post is excellent too.
Tom Post Edited (TGB) : 4/24/2005 1:54:37 PM (GMT-5) | | Back to Top | | |
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