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One Love
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   Posted 8/4/2005 10:03 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Jeff:
I can see how you can take scripture as historical writings and chalk up Christ's biblical views about historical events as just innocent error. But how do we move from historical and scientific error to Christ being wrong about God's character? E.g., if Christ believed that the Canaanite conquest happened at the very command of his Father, as the OT says, how can Christ, who supposedly was ONE with the Father and knew Him more intimately than all of us, believe that the Father could command the Caananite conquest IF, indeed, such a command is utterly contrary to the Father's nature? Would that not imply that Christ was morally schizophrenic? Or have you decided that the Conquest WAS commanded by God and that it is one of those wierd inexplicable acts? In which case Christ may have believed the same thing?

Could you clarify your question(s), Jeff? Maybe I'm crazy or something, but I'm not really understanding it. Did Jesus ever teach about the Canaanite conquest?


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Similitude
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   Posted 8/5/2005 6:15 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Meph, you once said:

"I agree with Scott's take. I do believe that Jesus most
likely did believe in the OT historically. He WAS fully human, after all. As
a Jew so theologically affiliated with the Pharisees of the time, how could
it be otherwise?"
 
More recently, you said:
 
"Remember, Jesus believed in the OT too. So what does that mean?"

I was assuming you included the Caananite Conquest passages, etc. If not, fine. If so, that's the context of my question. How did Christ believe the OT historically and reconcile that with his understanding of the Father's nature if, indeed, the OT is NOT consistent with the Father's nature?


wjs

Post Edited (jefscott) : 8/5/2005 6:34:24 AM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 8/5/2005 7:27 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Jeff:
If so, that's the context of my question. How did Christ believe the OT historically and reconcile that with his understanding of the Father's nature if, indeed, the OT is NOT consistent with the Father's nature?

I don't think that Jesus would have seen the Old Testament as fundamentally irreconcilable with the Father's nature. After all, in looking at Jesus's mission (being the agent by which God would free God's people, Israel, triumph over God's enemies, and usher in God's Kingdom), solid elements of this theme permeates the OT. This may have been the primary way that he saw the Canaanite conquest. God gave God's people the land that was promised to them! God as the promise keeper who, even despite Israel's constant disobedience, seeks to save them from themselves and do them well. As far as theodicy issues, perhaps Jesus just took the general stances seen in Job and the Psalms. Have faith in God REGARDLESS.

See, I'm inclined to think that Christ, more than anything, exemplified a submissive spirit to the will of his Father. I think of the Gethesemane situation. I could see wrestling with some of the things he'd seen, but in the end, trusting God and submitting to God's will. God would still be a God who has interacted with the world, blessed His people, and judged them when He felt it necessary. This is all Jesus would need to believe to have faith in God as he accomplished he accomplished his mission.

Personally, I don't think that Jesus may have had the same FORM of theodicy questions that we have currently. That's just my opinion.

Does this answer your question, Jeff?

devil


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One Love
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   Posted 8/5/2005 7:33 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Starkman:
I'm still not so sure that we can be certain that just because the above theologies are "taught" in scripture that they are taught in the context of literal historical grammatical, "It really happened this way, by god!" As Scott Jorgenson has pointed out, it is the style of the Ancient Near East to talk as if something really happened because the theology is created via this illocution. As has also been pointed out (and I can't remember that site you quoted, Meph, where teachings on the concept of Adam were given from old Rabbinic, and older, sources), there wasn't a pure, ace-in-the-whole unified teaching about Adam, Eve, creation and other Old Testament theological matters.

I contend, therefore, that it isn't as simple as confining Jesus, Paul or New Testament theology to such a conservative literal, historical and grammatical context. This does leave questions open about the origin of sin and the nature of creation, but that's beside the point.


Hmmm...as I recall, Scott also said that he believed that Paul most likely DID believe in a 7-day Creation and literal Adam and Eve. I don't think he talked more about Jesus...but I doubt that he would deny that Jesus most likely believed the same thing. Reason why? Because both Paul and Jesus were quite aligned with the Pharisaical beliefs of the time which, by and large, DID have a 7-day Creation and literal Adam and Eve as beliefs.

devil


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Starkman
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   Posted 8/5/2005 8:56 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
MephEternal said...
Hmmm...as I recall, Scott also said that he believed that Paul most likely DID believe in a 7-day Creation and literal Adam and Eve. I don't think he talked more about Jesus...but I doubt that he would deny that Jesus most likely believed the same thing. Reason why? Because both Paul and Jesus were quite aligned with the Pharisaical beliefs of the time which, by and large, DID have a 7-day Creation and literal Adam and Eve as beliefs.

devil

 

Yeah, both Paul and Jesus may very well have believed in a seven-day creation. I tend to think that as a human being Jesus may not have known everything...EVERYTHING. Further, He may not have known EVERYTHING ACCURATELY (namely, a full understanding of the sciences involved to know everything), but I think His theology would have been accurate—at least the theology He taught.
 
The literal existence of an Adam and Eve or the reality of a seven-day creation may have been believed in Jesus' time, but that Jesus or Paul may have believed in either of these does not, in my opinion, make either Jesus or Paul the less. So I think we are in some harmony here, Meph.  See, it's neither here nor there to me if Jesus, while on earth, can't tell me how many molecules are in the universe or exactly how the geological strata were formed. Nor am I concerned that Jesus might have believed in a literal seven-day creation, because He didn't have to know everything (and know everything completely and perfectly) to be the human Son of God.
 
I strongly believe, however (despite the unanswered questions that are left), that both Jesus' and Paul's theology was par excellent and accurate. How that can be (if they believed in a literal Adam/Eve and seven-day creation when that really isn't quite the way it happened) I don't know. At any rate, those are my thoughts.
 
Starkman
 
 


My teacher used to say that whenever he read Scripture, he would always ask the question, "What does this have to say about the character of God?"  Working off his thinking, as I read Scripture, I have come to ask, "What does this have to say about the heart and passion of God's desire for relationship for us?

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One Love
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   Posted 8/5/2005 10:43 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Starkman:
I strongly believe, however (despite the unanswered questions that are left), that both Jesus' and Paul's theology was par excellent and accurate. How that can be (if they believed in a literal Adam/Eve and seven-day creation when that really isn't quite the way it happened) I don't know. At any rate, those are my thoughts.

Good stuff, Starkman. See, here's where things get deep. You are willing to say that Jesus and Paul's theologically relevant formations and assertions were "excellent and accurate"...but, since you are not creating some arbitrary way of holding presuppositions that lead to that thought, you, IMO, seem to basically hold that thought by faith. Wouldn't it make more sense to say something like this:

Jesus and Paul may have been inaccurate about some theologically relevant historical material, but that does not eliminate the ability of Jesus and Paul to convey divine truth, albeit imprecise, through their propositions that can be used savingly by the Holy Spirit.

See, the evangelicals knew EXACTLY what they were doing with that whole Chicago Statement of Biblical Inerrancy. I did a post on this a while ago that I can't find right now. Basically in that post I laid out the "epistemological issue" that grounds HOW more conservative evangelicals get the idea of inerrancy. Putting it bluntly, it goes like this...

If historical, theologically relevant propositions taught by the Bible can be wrong, then there is NO LOGICAL GROUND to say that any particular theological assertion made in the Bible MUST be true just because the Bible teaches it or some biblical character believes it. There would have to be some other ground upon which to adjudicate those claims.

Millard Erickson and other evangelicals made this clear UPFRONT in saying why the doctrine of inerrancy is so important. Doc and Paul Eddy evicerate this logic in "Accross the Spectrum", in my opinion. They show it to be what it is...an artificial device to keep hermeneutics easier...and to keep people away from the dreaded "slippery slope" (GASP!)

This is where Humphrey B. is. He is willing to say that Creation MUST have been 7 days and hell MUST be a literal fiery, dark, eternally tortorous underworld BECAUSE the Bible strongly suggests that Jesus believed and taught that. It's not even conceivable to him, it seems, that Jesus could have been less that fully accurate on some those beliefs. Why? I believe it ultimately goes back to the same old evangelical reason that brought the doctrine of inerrancy into its current form in the first place.

I'm not playing that game anymore.

So, Starkman. Are you just holding onto your belief about Jesus and Paul being "excellent and accurate" in their respective theologies PURELY fideistically? Or is there some other criteria by which you work?


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One Love
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   Posted 8/5/2005 10:50 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Yo, HB. Where you AT? I would be very interested in your thoughts right about now!

We've already established that, given one of your major hermeneutical principles, that ANY theological belief outside of a literal 7-day creation and a literal eternally burning, fiery, dark, smoke-filled underworld with eternal suffering woud be OUTSIDE THE SCOPE of what Jesus Himself most likely believed and taught...and would be, therefore, illegitimate as theological options for any Jesus-following theologian. Isn't this right?

So, what are you thinking about what I'm saying here?


To all heresy-hunters and general lames...
 
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One Love
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   Posted 8/5/2005 10:55 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Hey!

Who ELSE is willing to slide down the SCAAAAAAARY "slippery slope" at the waterslide of biblical hermeneutics into the TEEEEEEEERIBLY deep, cool, refreshing pool of dynamic-tension-filled ambiguity? See how much fun we're having?

drowning drowning drowning drowning drowning drowning drowning drowning drowning drowning


Any takers? biggrin



devil


To all heresy-hunters and general lames...
 
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Sahid
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   Posted 8/5/2005 10:56 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Given that modern science does not rule out absolute time, and given that we measure time from the few point of a very empty universe when compared to the early universe (i.e. time seems to move much faster now than it used to)...  How is it inconceivable that the universe was in fact created in six (not seven) days?  When dealing with the age of the universe relativistic effects must be taken into account.  I only mention this because it seems to be assumed here that Genesis 1 is wrong (or thick allegory).

I'm fine with getting into the "scary" stuff, but we shouldn't give up completely on "safe" explanations if they work.


Watch me fly. Freedom like wings and I will use them. Freedom like wings and I will spread them wide. - Stavesacre

Post Edited (Sahid) : 8/5/2005 11:00:31 AM (GMT-5)

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Starkman
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   Posted 8/5/2005 12:28 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Meph:  Wouldn't it make more sense to say something like this:

Jesus and Paul may have been inaccurate about some theologically relevant historical material, but that does not eliminate the ability of Jesus and Paul to convey divine truth, albeit imprecise, through their propositions that can be used savingly by the Holy Spirit.
Starkman: I guess I thought that's what I was saying. It is reasonable to assume the possibility that accurate theological truth could have been conveyed through inaccurate cultural story genre. We communicate truth today often using fictious or otherwise inaccurate information.
 
I would add that I do not exclude the fidiestic aspect of faith in terms of the inspiration of the theology that Paul and Jesus communicated; the reasonableness of the possibility of truth being communicated via story genre is not thwarted by said faith in an inspirational agent. So there is an aspect of faith in all of this, but that is not what grounds the reasonablness of the communcation of truth as I've described it.
 
Lunch time! Got to run...
 
Starkman


My teacher used to say that whenever he read Scripture, he would always ask the question, "What does this have to say about the character of God?"  Working off his thinking, as I read Scripture, I have come to ask, "What does this have to say about the heart and passion of God's desire for relationship for us?

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One Love
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   Posted 8/5/2005 3:11 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Starkman:
I guess I thought that's what I was saying.

Oh, I see. I think that I misunderstood you. Sorry, man.

devil


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Similitude
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   Posted 8/5/2005 4:54 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Meph:  Does this answer your question, Jeff?
 
Jeff:  Yep.  Thanks, Meph!


wjs

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Tom
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   Posted 8/6/2005 1:35 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

 

 

Mephi: The problem has NEVER been one about living a faithful life. Heck, man. One could be a double-predestinationist 5 point Calvinist and live a…

 

Tom: YOU couldn’t. Not now.

 

Mephi: The problem is the same thing that it's always been for me...Coherence and CONSISTENCY!

 

Tom: That’s what I meant in my question to you.

Mephi: Do you know what started me on the universalism track? Do you REALLY wanna know? This one thing...Somehow, I got convinced that God loved his creations so much REALLY would do absolutely EVERYTHING in his proper ability to save as many sentient beings as he could to enjoy relationship with Him.

 

Tom: I hear ya, and I totally agree.

 

Mephi: Basically, I asked myself...is there a possible world where the Triune God, LFW, and universalism could be FEASIBLE? Where moral autonomy wouldn't be negated. Where gradations of eternal punishments and rewards MADE SENSE. Where sin, hell, and death would truly be no more. Where divine judgement would be severe, utterly painful, AND just; punitive, retributive, AND restorative.

 

Tom: Right. My question is this, if you get affirmative answers on all those questions, what about the exegetical question (which you didn’t list as “…where all this would be exegetically justified”)? And I’m wondering, if you get affirmative answers on all of those contexts you just listed but got an exegetical “no,” what would you do? Seems to me that since you already believe Jesus and Paul were wrong on some theological matters, why care what the exegetical case for universalism is? See? If the exegesis makes a slam dunk case for ECP, you can just dismiss it as theologically errant. So why DO you care what the Bible has to say about it?

 

Mephi: (Note: This is a summary sentence of my 7 amended ideas about God:

--God IS love. Not God is "loving" God IS love. Complete omnibenevolence.
--God is completely omnipotent. God can accomplish whatever God wants to accomplish that doesn't a) violate the laws of logic (including the metaphysics of love) and b) does not go against God's necessary essential existence.
--God REALLY wants display His glorious nature to beings OTHER THAN God and have it represented back to God by that something.
--God REALLY wants those "others" to participate with self-determination in their OWN moral existence.
--God REALLY wants all sentient beings in Creation to embody and reflect God's glorious nature to God and each other forever...extending the "dance of the Trinity"
--God REALLY DOESN'T WANT any sentient being to experience eternal destruction. Not only because it's bad for the sentient beings...but because that would TAKE AWAY from God's own aesthetic experience of contingent reality.
--If there is ANY POSSIBLE WAY that God can actualize God's own divine disposition and intentions, God will do so.)

Tom: I agree with every point. I’m just not sure that it’s being true that there is a possible way to accomplish this, or possible world where all in the end choose for God, that it’s necessarily the case that all WILL choose. Maybe we need to talk about “possible worlds.” A possible world may be possible without ever being actualized just in case it could have been actualized. And if one is committed to believe what the “biblical” view on hell is, then one can only be as optimistic about the above points as the exegetical evidence will allow. If one is not necessarily committed to believe (on theological claims) what the biblical authors say (and you’re not), then you can be optimistic on the given points regardless of the biblical case for ECP.

 

Mephi: and... 2) The majority of people who have ever existed WILL endure eternal destruction (either ECP or annihilationism)

 

Tom: I’d agree in the case of ECP. I’m not convinced annihilationism fails in every case.

 

Mephi: I can believe #2 easily...as long as I deny #1. Gimme a reason WHY I should deny #1. It's not that I can't do that. I can. Just give me a really good rason why I should.

 

Tom: Perhaps you can affirm #1 and deny #2’s ECP while affirming #2’s annihilationism. I can. I’m not claiming annilationism is true. I’m just saying that if a plausible exegetical case can be made for it then I would totally go with that. It would make the free will defense totally doable for me. But I think I’m committed, for better or worse, to whatever the most convincing exegetical evidence is, even if it’s ECP. You don’t have to worry about that I don’t think, since if ECP is THE biblical view you can dismiss it as errant. Right? You don’t require an exegetical case for your universalism. You can always claim you have good reasons to believe Jesus and others were mistaken on this. I mean, it’d be nice to have even the slightest plausible case for it, yeah. But even if you’ve got ZERO evidence for it, you can still  go with #1 and deny #2. I can't dismiss Jesus' theological beliefs about the ultimate destiny and fate of people as errant.

 

Which brings me back to my question about how you sift through the ‘authority’ of Jesus’ claims. And what you said on that helped me understand you better. Thanks.

 

Gotta run and catch my flight home (been in Denver this past week and flying home this afternoon!)

 

Tom


 

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One Love
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   Posted 8/6/2005 3:44 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:
My question is this, if you get affirmative answers on all those questions, what about the exegetical question (which you didn’t list as “…where all this would be exegetically justified”)? And I’m wondering, if you get affirmative answers on all of those contexts you just listed but got an exegetical “no,” what would you do? Seems to me that since you already believe Jesus and Paul were wrong on some theological matters, why care what the exegetical case for universalism is? See? If the exegesis makes a slam dunk case for ECP, you can just dismiss it as theologically errant. So why DO you care what the Bible has to say about it?

Because I believe that the Bible conveys divine truth. Holy Spirit inspired divine truth. Plus it is the holy text of the Judeo-Christian community of faith. One can't just do away with it...and be part of the community of faith. Again, it's not like I just say "Hey, there IS no divine wrath against sinners." or just disagree with the Bible willy-nilly or anything like that. The Bible is taken very seriously. It's just a matter of trying to reconcile things and make SENSE out of certain theological claims that emerge from the Bible.

Think about it. If I didn't care a whit for the Bible, authority-wise, we would not even be having this conversation. I'd be in some way liberal UU church somewhere splitting my sermon texts between I-Ching material, Quranic suras, and some stuff from Proverbs. The very wrestling with the issues ITSELF demonstrates one's commitment to having biblical authority being active in one's life.

**********************************

Tom:
Perhaps you can affirm #1 and deny #2’s ECP while affirming #2’s annihilationism. I can.

Now, THAT's something I'd like to see. How in the world would you make that work? How would you be able to say that God was metaphysically limited from preventing a majority of people from ending up eternally destroyed via annihilation in hell? I thought we'd killed all those free-will arguments a million ways to Sunday! How would you find a way to justify it? I don't see how you can. Not when there is a possible world open for God to actualize where at least a VAST MAJORITY (if not all) people could end up in relationship with God. If a majority of people end up the total casualties of eternal destruction, how in the world could it ever be stated that death was not victorious over God's wish for Creation? Help me understand this.


*****************************

Tom:
You can always claim you have good reasons to believe Jesus and others were mistaken on this. I mean, it’d be nice to have even the slightest plausible case for it, yeah. But even if you’ve got ZERO evidence for it, you can still go with #1 and deny #2.

Let's be real. Annihilationism is an exegetical stretch of things. In the same manner as universalism is. If we are going on proponderence of evidence, historically speaking. And the driving force towards annihiliationism is mainly on theological or philosophical grounds much more than exegetical ones. Surely, you see this, Tom. Looking at all the revelant considerations, annihilationism is NOT completely clear cut. And certain types of universalism are NOT ruled out of the park either.

So if we can be honest about how we try to stretch the "plausibility factor" so that our views will fit...then we can admit some things...like how we keep play exegetical gymnastics to keep certain views within evangelical "play" room.

Me? I'd rather ask the larger question about some of the core assumptions of the hermeneutical task...particularly dealing with the nature of scripture. Why think that biblical authors had to be completely accurate on historical things with theological ramifications...or beliefs about the underworld...JUST because they are quoted in the Bible? What? Just for the sake of epistemological expediency?? Why CAN'T Jesus or Paul be inaccurate, Tom? Not flat out WRONG...but inaccurate. You tell me.


***************************************

Tom:
I can't dismiss Jesus' theological beliefs about the ultimate destiny and fate of people as errant.

What does it mean to say that his beliefs about the ultimate destiny of people is "errant"? Does it mean if actuality IN ANY WAY deviates from what Jesus imagined and taught it to be? Does it mean if actuality IN NO WAY corresponds to what Jesus thought and taught? What does that mean? If Jesus were absolutely correct on the existence of divine wrath, it's surety in coming, it's severity, the involvement of intense suffering and destruction of personhood involved, etc....but was INACCURATE as far as it being under the ground, having fires burning in darkness, or lasting eternally...would Jesus be "errant"?

Do you see what I'm asking? What view of "inerrancy" do you have...and WHY do you have that view?


To all heresy-hunters and general lames...
 
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Humphrey Bogart
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   Posted 8/6/2005 10:04 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Starkman said...
The literal existence of an Adam and Eve or the reality of a seven-day creation may have been believed in Jesus' time, but that Jesus or Paul may have believed in either of these does not, in my opinion, make either Jesus or Paul the less.


But if Jesus and Paul not only held these beliefs, but actually included in their authoratitive teaching in inspired scripture as a basis for their theology, which they did, then how are you going to know what other components of their authoratitive teaching in inspired scripture are invalid?

For example, Jesus said, referring to humans: "But from the beginning of creation, 'God made them [i.e. humans] male and female.'" He then used this as the basis for his teaching on marriage and divorce, which is an absolutely central theological teaching (it underpins the whole relationship of Christ to his bride, the Church).

I agree with you both that Jesus and Paul may have believed wrong things from their culture and times. But I don't agree with you that such errors made their way into inspired scripture. That's the issue.

Meph said...
Yo, HB. Where you AT? I would be very interested in your thoughts right about now!


I'm not quite sure what else to say, because we don't share common presuppositions on which to argue. It seems, in essence, that you think that the doctrine of God's love is incompatible with other things taught in scripture, even though there's nothing in scripture that says so, and indeed, the very writers of scripture who present God as being love, don't seem to regard this as being inconsistent with eternal judgment. Indeed, all the time they talk about God's judgment in one breath, and then talk about his love and mercy in the next. So whatever conception of "love" you're operating with, it obviously doesn't coincide with the Biblical view of love. In short, you've got your own philosophical conception of love, and it overrides all exegetical considerations.

Since we have two different foundations for our theologies, they're obviously going to be different. In which case it's pointless arguing theology. Rather, we would have to argue about the nature of the authority of scripture. But that wasn't the starting point of this thread, and I'm not really wanting to get tied down in that debate.
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One Love
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   Posted 8/7/2005 2:11 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
HB:
I'm not quite sure what else to say, because we don't share common presuppositions on which to argue. It seems, in essence, that you think that the doctrine of God's love is incompatible with other things taught in scripture, even though there's nothing in scripture that says so, and indeed, the very writers of scripture who present God as being love, don't seem to regard this as being inconsistent with eternal judgment. Indeed, all the time they talk about God's judgment in one breath, and then talk about his love and mercy in the next. So whatever conception of "love" you're operating with, it obviously doesn't coincide with the Biblical view of love. In short, you've got your own philosophical conception of love, and it overrides all exegetical considerations.

Well, these are the same authors who have absolutely no problem seeming to switch between beliefs in EDF and conceptions of free will either. In other words, they seem to be able to hold diametrically opposed views in a dynamic tension that, IMO, staggers the mind. Actually, the theologiclal diversity of the Bible is what makes its interpretation so difficult at times. At any rate, I would like to say that my conception of love is not purely philosophical. That is, it's not like I just whipped this up from my own mind and then tried to foist it on scripture, point blank. What has actually happened is that I've tried to think out pronounced Biblical themes for consistency's sake, and see how they can work together. One of the hardest to wrestle with for me are these:

1) God REALLY doesn't enjoy seeing anyone perish and doesn't desire anyone to fall into his wrath. God works with people as much as possible so this doesn't happen. This is so true that God sent Godself to DIE and conquer death for these people.

2) God REALLY is just and cannot let sin go unpunished. The appropriate punishment for sin is punishment that is severe, enduring, and consuming.

Surely, we must admit this is just NOT an easy situation to reconcile without some faithful, yet creative theologizing! So, just to clarify.

************************

HB:
Since we have two different foundations for our theologies, they're obviously going to be different. In which case it's pointless arguing theology. Rather, we would have to argue about the nature of the authority of scripture. But that wasn't the starting point of this thread, and I'm not really wanting to get tied down in that

Fair enough, yo. I'd agree. I'm supposing that I'd ultimately LIKE to talk about the authority of scripture from the perspective of more conservative evangelicalism. It seems that the general line (that even I once held) basically says this:

The Bible has to be fully true in all religious/theological/spiritual messages, particularly those based upon historical events. To the extent that all such messages are true, their coresponding historical events MUST be true as well. To be sure, we may fully understand how these historical events may be true, when considering all CURRENT data, but there's always more data to be found. The best thing to do is to explain what we can explain...and wait and trust that any other data will correspond more and more with scripture.

Again, the general underpinning of this thought seems to be...

1) a quite simplistic view of God and relation to scripture (ie. God loves truth and cannot lie. God is omnipotent. Therefore, God would not allow anything untrue or significantly inaccurate into His Word considering relgious/theological/spiritual matters)

and...

2) a strong emphasis on the epistemological concerns (ie. If biblical teachings can be wrong, how can we know WHAT things are valid or invalid? We couldn't be sure of any particular teaching of scripture. As Millard Erickson would say "false in one, uncertain in all."

From my perspective, I think my own position is part fideistic and part historiographical. Essentially, I ground my belief in scripture in 1) the subjective work of the Spirit with me conveyed a sense that it is true and 2) historical considerations like that of N.T. Wright and Walter Bruggeman such that I'm willing to say the Bible is infallible in accomplishing God's purposes of sufficient communication with humanity for a saving relationship and contains divine truth sufficient to allow for that infallibility...but NOT willing to say that the Bible is at all points without inaccuracy or error.

I suppose I cannot justify the mainstream concept of inerrancy because I don't hold to the presuppositions mentioned above. That is, a) I DO think that God can convey meaningful truth through fallible, inaccurate human conceptions of religious/theological/spiritual/historical idea and b) I don't find the epistemological consideration (together with the seemingly intimidating "slippery slope";-) altogether persuasive anymore.

I suppose, in the end, that we can just agree to disagree. I won't knock people who CAN still hold to those conservative evangelical presuppositions. Let them do as they please. Hopefully, if our primary unity is in declaring Jesus of Nazareth as the Risen Lord to the glory of the Triune God, then we can work all the other stuff out, right?

Tom, do you still hold to those presuppositions? If so, how? I'd really like to know that.

Later,
devil


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Starkman
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   Posted 8/7/2005 8:44 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Humphrey: But if Jesus and Paul not only held these beliefs, but actually included in their authoratitive teaching in inspired scripture as a basis for their theology, which they did, then how are you going to know what other components of their authoratitive teaching in inspired scripture are invalid?
 
Starkman: I don't think its an issue that Jesus and Paul included information in their teachings that was inaccurate or unhistorical or purely story. It isn't the historicity of events in the Jewish thinking of the day that necessarily create authoritative and inspiried scripture. It is the theology (God gave us in scripture) that comes from the teaching that is authoritative and inspired. But we have to be careful to understand that it isn't that these guys were just plain wrong and screwed up. It is that the manner of communication of truth completely allowed for the use of story, the apocalyptic and other genres, unlike today's use of tools for communicating truth, in order to speak about the things of God.
 
So if the evidence concludes one day that the world really is billions of years old or that the Exodus event didn't happen quite the way we have it in scripture (Read Cyrus H. Gordon), it isn't that God allowed for "mistakes" in His word, it is that He used the manner of communicating truth built on the understanding of the known world way back when (e.g., virtually every part of the world in Ancient Near East (ANE) times believed that that the world was flat – Paul Seely). God works with the "scientific" understandng of the times and was able to communicate solid theological truth despite what the people believed. It's not "mistakes," it's simply the way people thought back then and how God used that to get His points across.

 
Humphrey: For example, Jesus said, referring to humans: "But from the beginning of creation, 'God made them [i.e. humans] male and female.'" He then used this as the basis for his teaching on marriage and divorce, which is an absolutely central theological teaching (it underpins the whole relationship of Christ to his bride, the Church).
 
Starkman: Meredith Kline did a few papers on the creation account and pointed out solidly that there is clear contradiction in historical successions of the creation between Genesis one and two. But chronological historical recording of the events was NOT the Genesis author's concern (nor was the author so stupid so as to have not seen the discrepency). It was clearly acceptable to the mind back then to rework events, stories and what have you in order to communcate a truth. We do not do that today and find it abhorring to do this, yet we still use children's storys (The Boy Who Cried Wolf) to teach truth.
 
That Jesus refered to the beginning of the creation of accoun—God having made man male and female—is not to say that Jesus was saying, "By golly, it happened back then exactly...EXACTLY as it says in Genesis." He is simply appealing to the theological of the passage as being authoritative. You might ask, then, "Well, how in the world is the passage authoritative if it didn't happen? How DID sin come into the world if it wasn't EXACTLY as it's recorded in Genesis: historically, chronologically, astronomically..." It is here, admittedly, as I stated earlier in this thread that a historical hamartiology isn't so locked up with a wham-bam answer if the Genesis event isn't 100% historically accurate. There of course, then, are questions about how sin really did come into existence. But I don't think the account in Genesis was given to give us exact, historical detailed answers. That simply wasn't the point of the author, anymore than it wasn't the author's point to give us a blow-by-blow account of how God created the world. Yeah, something happened, and something probably closely related to the events of Genesis as they are given, but, again, it wasn't the point of the author of Genesis to convey scientific, chronological, historical and astronomical history. I'm not bothered if certain events in scripture did not happen EXACTLY as they are recorded. It's not a problem for me to understand that the ANE mind didn't hinge its thinking on facticity as we moderns do.
 

Humphrey: I agree with you both that Jesus and Paul may have believed wrong things from their culture and times. But I don't agree with you that such errors made their way into inspired scripture. That's the issue.
 
I think it's too much of a stretch, Humphrey, to think that the far insuperior scientific, astronomic and other disciplines of knowledge in the ANE minds of the Old and New Testament authors didn't make their way into scripture or that God would have allowed that. That misses the point. The theology...the theology...is correct regardless, and that, to me, is the issue. scripture is no less "inspired" because God used the unhistorical, the inaccurately misunderstood knowledge about the geology of the earth or the movement of the heavenly bodies in order to convey theological truth. That's how I see it.
 
Got to run to church.
 
For good conversation,
 
Starkman


My teacher used to say that whenever he read Scripture, he would always ask the question, "What does this have to say about the character of God?"  Working off his thinking, as I read Scripture, I have come to ask, "What does this have to say about the heart and passion of God's desire for relationship for us?

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Similitude
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   Posted 8/7/2005 9:32 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Meph: Well, these are the same authors who have absolutely no problem seeming to switch between beliefs in EDF and conceptions of free will either. In other words, they seem to be able to hold diametrically opposed views in a dynamic tension that, IMO, staggers the mind.

Jeff: Just curious. What is "EDF" and how do biblical writers articulate contradictory ideas about it and free will? Thanks!


wjs

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Tom
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   Posted 8/7/2005 4:00 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Mephi: Tom, do you still hold to those presuppositions? If so, how?

 

Tom: Which presups? Absolute inerrancy? I don’t think so, no. I mean, I certainly don’t rest my belief in the truth of the gospel and my confidence in the gospel’s ability to change lives on the absolute inerrancy of the Bible. It’s much the opposite. Any confidence I have in the book rests on the fact that everywhere its message is proclaimed throughout the earth, it radically transforms people and society.

 

I’m much more concerned with the question of the Bible’s ‘authority’ over our lives, and I don’t think it’s got to be absolutely inerrant in every respect to be authoritative in any respect, especially in the respect the Bible actually claims to be authoritative—with respect to what the truth is about sin, repentance, faith, salvation, and life in the Kingdom, all the stuff we NEED to have a reliable source for. But it’s indefensible to say that unless the Bible is believed to be ‘inerrant’ in every respect it can’t reasonably be accepted as ‘authoritative’ in some respects. True, it’s got to be inerrant just where we need it to be authoritative, and you and I agree that it is that.

 

The only claims the Bible makes about its own authority seem to be with respect to salvation and righteousness. The scriptures are God-breathed, Paul claims, with a view to our training in righteousness and godly living. It can be trusted completely as a guide to truth about God’s existence and purposes, about faith, righteousness, community dynamics, love, etc. If there’s a historical mistake about when some Roman governor began to rule, no problem for me. And I can make room for they’re believing in seven literal days of creation too. No problem. I have a harder time with believing Paul was flat out theologically mistaken about “death” being our “enemy,” though I agree something has to be done to reconcile the apparent contradiction.

 

I wouldn’t agree that the Exodus amounted to a few Jewish rebels escaping Egypt through the swamps, or that Jonah cannot reasonably be believed to have spent three days in a whale…if that’s what God wanted to do with him. If the resurrection is believed to be historical there can be no a priori reason to dismiss other less miraculous events and every reason to take miraculous stories at face value unless we’ve got good reasons to doubt the historicity of it (as we might in a parable). And I don’t think we have any good reason to doubt the historicity of the Exodus as a miraculous event, or of Jonah’s spending three days in a whale.

 

Tom


 

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One Love
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   Posted 8/7/2005 5:56 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:
And I can make room for they’re believing in seven literal days of creation too. No problem. I have a harder time with believing Paul was flat out theologically mistaken about “death” being our “enemy,” though I agree something has to be done to reconcile the apparent contradiction.

The problem is that you can't deal with WHY Paul believes death is our enemy fully UNTIL you deal with how Paul views Adam as being the first sin and ORIGINATOR of death, and Christ as the person who fixes Adam's screw-up. N. T. Wright, I believe, is right on about that. But what that means is that Paul's soteriology and hamartiology are significantly GROUNDED upon his belief about our origins, that is a LITERAL Adamic couple who, by their sin, brought about death as being the enemy. And do you really think that Paul would have just separated his view of the 7 day creation from his view of a literal Adamic couple? Heck, naw. You know that, man. For your thinking here to work, you'd have to say that it was possible for Paul to be inaccurate about the 7 day creation, while speaking truth overall about the "death" thing. Are you willing to do that? Are you saying that a biblical author can be INACCURATE about part of what he's trying to claim while being right on the whole about the major thrust of what is being said? If so, that's a major can of worms that you are opening.

Oh, and about the book of Jonah, from what I'm understanding, the literary info that we have about it STRONGLY leads us to believe that it may well be a "narrative parable" (Brueggemann, Freitheim). A work done during the Persian period that uses lots of allegory, fable, satire, and legendary material about an obscure, but probably actual man listed in 2 Kings 14:25.

2 Kings 14:23-25
In the fifteenth year of Amaziah son of Joash king of Judah, Jeroboam son of Jehoash king of Israel became king in Samaria, and he reigned forty-one years. He did evil in the eyes of the LORD and did not turn away from any of the sins of Jeroboam son of Nebat, which he had caused Israel to commit. He was the one who restored the boundaries of Israel from Lebo Hamath to the Sea of the Arabah, in accordance with the word of the LORD, the God of Israel, spoken through his servant Jonah son of Amittai, the prophet from Gath Hepher.

The only other mention of Jonah in the Hebrew Bible...besides the book of Jonah. In other words, there seem to be intertextual reasons for believing Jonah may have been fictional, NOT an apriori view on miracles. For real, Tom, biblical scholars are believing that this case may be like unto Esther, which is LARGELY considered a non-historical book...more like a novel using lots of historical customs of Persia.

So...


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Tom
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   Posted 8/7/2005 7:52 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

about Paul and death…

 

Mephi: The problem is that you can't deal with WHY Paul believes death is our enemy fully UNTIL you deal with how Paul views Adam as being the first sin and ORIGINATOR of death, and Christ as the person who fixes Adam's screw-up. N. T. Wright, I believe, is right on about that.

 

Tom: I, as well, was assuming the same.

 

Mephi: But what that means is that Paul's soteriology and hamartiology are significantly GROUNDED upon his belief about our origins, that is a LITERAL Adamic couple who, by their sin, brought about death as being the enemy.

 

Tom: As we’ve noted in person to each other, even assuming an evolutionary history, there STILL would be A homosapien couple, ONE couple who stands as THE parent of us all. Homosapiens didn’t spring up in various geographies independent of each other. And assuming God works with this process so that at SOME point in time his image (whatever the he** it is!) resides in humankind, there would still be, rougly speaking, SOME point in time when humanity, cognizant of God’s existence and in relationship with God, chooses to screw it up.

 

My problem with the “death” thing has nothing to do with the tension between a literal 7-day creation vs an evolutionary approach per se. It’s that physical death in principle precedes morality EVEN IN A LITERAL 7-DAY approach. Entropy is there, built-in to a system God created which reproduces after its kind, governing a system God created in which the earth is heated by the sun. Are there really 7-day literalists out there who argue entropy itself didn’t exist in the universe until AFTER Adam and Eve sinned?

 

Mephi: And do you really think that Paul would have just separated his view of the 7 day creation from his view of a literal Adamic couple? Heck, naw. You know that, man.

 

Tom: Perhaps not. Perhaps. I don’t know. Paul was a pretty thoughtful guy. I don’t think he was a fundamentalist.

 

Mephi: …you'd have to say that it was possible for Paul to be inaccurate about the 7 day creation, while speaking truth overall about the "death" thing. Are you willing to do that?

 

Tom: I’d like to at least explore the possibilities and not just assume that I know all there is to know about how to resolve the problem, thinking outside the box, etc.

 

Mephi: Are you saying that a biblical author can be INACCURATE about part of what he's trying to claim while being right on the whole about the major thrust of what is being said?

 

Tom: Heck yeah! Within JUST his letter to the Romans, YOU believe Paul was wrong about death as the last enemy but right about repentance, faith, the power of the gospel, the resurrection of Christ, God’s use of fallen governments, the sinfulness of Jews being equal to that of Gentiles, the inability of anything to separate us from the love of God in Christ, etc. etc. on everything else Paul talks about in Romans. So you already agree Paul was theologically mistaken on PART of what he claims and right on elsewhere. So OF COURSE a biblical author can be partly right and partly wrong, including individual issues like origins. Paul could have been mistaken in believing a 7-day literal creation but be right on if his overall point about origins requires only that it be the case that God created human beings. That sort of thing. Can his understanding of “death as enemy” be so construed as to show there to in fact be no contradiction between Paul and modern science? I’d like to think so.

 

Mephi: Oh, and about the book of Jonah, from what I'm understanding, the literary info that we have about it STRONGLY leads us to believe that it may well be a "narrative parable" (Brueggemann, Freitheim). A work done during the Persian period that uses lots of allegory, fable, satire, and legendary material about an obscure, but probably actual man listed in 2 Kings 14:25.

Tom


 

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Humphrey Bogart
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   Posted 8/7/2005 9:26 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Meph said...
1) God REALLY doesn't enjoy seeing anyone perish and doesn't desire anyone to fall into his wrath. God works with people as much as possible so this doesn't happen. This is so true that God sent Godself to DIE and conquer death for these people.

2) God REALLY is just and cannot let sin go unpunished. The appropriate punishment for sin is punishment that is severe, enduring, and consuming.

Surely, we must admit this is just NOT an easy situation to reconcile without some faithful, yet creative theologizing! So, just to clarify.


I'm not saying it's ultimately that easy to understand completely, but I think we can get the gist. There are two possible ways of reconciling these two doctrines:

#1: To try and rework the concept of "love" to include judgment.

OR

#2: To argue that God has other obligations besides just being loving - e.g., that he has a moral obligation to judge sin.

I think #1 has something to be said for it (in particular, because modern concepts of "love" that are non-judgmental and "unconditional" turn out to really be pretty uncaring - "you do your thing, I do mine" ), but I would ultimately tend to go for #2, I think. In other words, God, in a moral sense, has to judge sin. But being loving, he works out a way to save those who are willing that means that he can also fully fulfil his duty to judge sin.

In other words, God's actions are not "unconstrained". There are moral imperatives, concerning what he "ought" to do, which act as constraints on how he can express his love. He works out a way to be as loving as possible and also as just as possible.

Meph said...
Fair enough, yo. I'd agree. I'm supposing that I'd ultimately LIKE to talk about the authority of scripture from the perspective of more conservative evangelicalism. It seems that the general line (that even I once held) basically says this:

The Bible has to be fully true in all religious/theological/spiritual messages, particularly those based upon historical events. To the extent that all such messages are true, their coresponding historical events MUST be true as well. To be sure, we may fully understand how these historical events may be true, when considering all CURRENT data, but there's always more data to be found. The best thing to do is to explain what we can explain...and wait and trust that any other data will correspond more and more with scripture.

Again, the general underpinning of this thought seems to be...

1) a quite simplistic view of God and relation to scripture (ie. God loves truth and cannot lie. God is omnipotent. Therefore, God would not allow anything untrue or significantly inaccurate into His Word considering relgious/theological/spiritual matters)

and...

2) a strong emphasis on the epistemological concerns (ie. If biblical teachings can be wrong, how can we know WHAT things are valid or invalid? We couldn't be sure of any particular teaching of scripture. As Millard Erickson would say "false in one, uncertain in all."


I can't speak for "conservative evangelicalism", especially since I think my hermeneutical position would be a minority one amongst them. I hold to an "incarnational" view of scripture, in that I hold that there are two meanings, the divine and the human, instantiated in the one Word, just as in Christ there are two natures united in the one person of the Word. This is not the typical conservative evangelical position of people like Walter Kaiser, who allow only the human author's intended meaning (the "historical-grammatical" approach). My view requires that plenary verbal inspiration be true. BUT the main point is that I would argue for my position based on scripture's teaching about itself. In other words, I would ask how Jesus and the apostles treated scripture, and what the scriptural evidence is. Now some people might argue that is circular; but I don't agree. I think the process is iterative rather than circular. And I don't see how you can adopt any other position, without making the real authority something other than scripture. In any case, I don't see how I can be accused of being "quite simplistic". While I agree that God cannot lie and therefore his Word is infallible, this is not a presupposition but a reasoned conclusion based on scriptural teaching about how God is present in his Word. My view of scripture is, in my opinion, less rationalistic then the standard evangelical view. It is a more "mystical" and supernaturalistic view of scripture - more in line, in fact, with much Jewish thought. It is certainly fideistic.

As for the epistemological issue, surely the whole point of scripture is revelatory? And isn't revelation epistemic, by its very nature?

Meph said...
I'm willing to say the Bible is infallible in accomplishing God's purposes of sufficient communication with humanity for a saving relationship and contains divine truth sufficient to allow for that infallibility...but NOT willing to say that the Bible is at all points without inaccuracy or error.


OK. Firstly, I don't think that this statement at all does justice to scripture's view of itself, or Jesus' view of scripture, or the apostle's view. Secondly, you require some criteria for determining the salvific aspects of scripture, and those criteria would have to be extra-Biblical; hence they would have to be philosophical; but philosophy is intrinsically incapable of being a sufficient foundation for any religious system because no two philosophers can ever reach agreement on anything. Philosophy has a history of more-or-less 2500 years in the West, and yet you can still find educated, respected philosophers today arguing over exactly the same things that Plato and Aristotle were arguing about in ancient Greece. For example, on the question of universals which so preoccupied the ancient Greeks, there are preeminent philosophers alive today who are Platonists, and there are equally preeminent philosophers alive today who are nominalists. So how are we going to have any meaningful concensus on which to develop principles to extract the salvific portions of scripture? The only concensus you would have would be due to the scholars sharing the same basic worldview (modernist or postmodernist Western, for instance). But that concensus would be merely cultural, and hence your religion would be culture-bound.

It has been pointed out long ago that the liberal "quest for the historical Jesus" only ever produced "Jesuses" that reflected the presuppositions of the scholar in question. If the scholar was a socialist, then he would find a Jesus who was concerned with social reform and justice for the poor. If the scholar was an existentialist, then he would find a Jesus who taught authentic living in the face of death. And so forth. I suspect the doctrines that you extract from scripture are just going to match your presuppositions about what you think they ought to be.

The question is, whether scripture is an authority to which we bow, or whether something else is our real authority, and we appeal to scripture only to prop beliefs which derive from that real authority.

Another important point. It has been argued by Whitehead that all epistemological problems disguise metaphysical problems. Whether this is always true or not, it seems to be here. In order to justify your claim about scripture, I think you are required to specify a metaphysical doctrine about the nature of inspiration. In other words, you must explain to me how it is that God acted in relation to the writers of scripture, so that what they wrote ended up being a "sufficient communication with humanity for a saving relationship and contains divine truth sufficient to allow for that infallibility". What is the mechanism involved here?

Post Edited (Humphrey Bogart) : 8/7/2005 9:43:03 PM (GMT-5)

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Humphrey Bogart
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   Posted 8/7/2005 10:02 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
starkmen said...
It isn't the historicity of events in the Jewish thinking of the day that necessarily create authoritative and inspiried scripture. It is the theology (God gave us in scripture) that comes from the teaching that is authoritative and inspired.


But the theology is dependent upon the history! That's the point. Only if God actually created male and female as described in Genesis, is the theology of marriage which Jesus derives from that possible. Only if the theology of marriage is possible, is our union with Christ possible; and only if our union with Christ is possible, is salvation possible. Only if Jesus actually died and rose again in history, is a theology of the atonement possible. You are artificially dividing "theology" from "history", which is a modernist Western phenomenon, not a Biblical one. Any theology that is divorced from history is not Biblical theology.

Show me where the Bible separates theology from history. Show me where it justifies doing what you are trying to do.

Clearly, you're saying that scripture is only authoritative insofar as it deals with "theology", not when it teaches us something historical. So specify how we distinguish theology from history, and provide a doctrine of inspiration that explains why this distinction is justified.

starkmen said...
Meredith Kline did a few papers on the creation account and pointed out solidly that there is clear contradiction in historical successions of the creation between Genesis one and two. But chronological historical recording of the events was NOT the Genesis author's concern (nor was the author so stupid so as to have not seen the discrepency).


And other, just as educated scholars, disagree. I know Hebrew well; I've read the text and the scholars; my judgment is that Kline is mistaken. I think her exegetical arguments are flawed, and I think that she has fundamentally misunderstood how the ancient Hebrews viewed the text. If the ancient Hebrews viewed the text as a factual account, which all the evidence suggests they did (e.g. Ex 31:17), then they must have been plain stupid not to have noticed such a contradiction. But I am not willing to credit the ancient Hebrew scholars with being plain stupid.

But I could cite you a dozen scholars who have "pointed out solidly that there is a clear contradiction" in the historical accounts of Christ's resurrection. So maybe we should discard that.

Tom said...
The only claims the Bible makes about its own authority seem to be with respect to salvation and righteousness.


I beg to differ. Just one example. Jesus said, "If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken" (John 10:34). And the first thing listed in 2 Tim. 3:16 is for "teaching" (didaskalian). There is no limit on this just to certain matters. Furthermore, for the Biblical writers history and salvation were inextricably bound up together. If there was no history, then there was no salvation. The truths of salvation are not abstract proposals but are bound to God's actual action in history.
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Tom
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   Posted 8/7/2005 11:56 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
HB: Jesus said, "If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken" (John 10:34).

Tom: Cool. So what's it mean that "scripture cannot be broken" and why think that's an "authority" issue?

HB: And the first thing listed in 2 Tim. 3:16 is for "teaching" (didaskalian). There is no limit on this just to certain matters.

Tom: Seems to me the teaching (and correcting, and training, etc.) in question concern righteousness. This seems to be Paul's thought in 1Co 10.6, where the OT in general is preserved to provide us examples that influence our behavior.

HB: Furthermore, for the Biblical writers history and salvation were inextricably bound up together. If there was no history, then there was no salvation.

Tom: Obviously. The events that constitute our very salvation have to be genuine and historical events. But this doesn't mean the Bible as a book must be absolutley inerrant in every historical claim it makes. That just doesn't follow.

Tom


 

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Humphrey Bogart
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   Posted 8/8/2005 12:16 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom said...
So what's it mean that "scripture cannot be broken"


I knew this would happen. It would all become an argument about scriptural authority and inspiration. That's why I didn't keep responding to Meph's posts.

I do not have the time to do an argument on this topic. I think the scriptural evidence is quite clear; but if you disagree, then disagree away. We just have to agree to disagree.
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