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Tom
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   Posted 9/4/2005 4:29 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Jeff: OK. But the option I posted is consistent with that, isn't it?

Tom: Not really. At the end of verse 7 ("for I regret that I made them") the verbs are definitely past tense--nichamti (I grieved) and 'asaitim (I made them).

Tom


 

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One Love
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   Posted 9/4/2005 5:12 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:
When God creates, he looks around at it and says, "It is GOOD." He feels good. He likes what he sees. Then he places humans in charge of his good creation, and a very short time later God again looks around at creation and say, "It is BAD." And he's grieved. He doesn't like what he sees and he removes the bad.

I love this reading. It seems true to what the text is saying. However, I wonder. Doesn't the language at least IMPLY that God has a sense of regret about his choice to create human beings on the earth. My thinking...

Let's say that Tom eats my hamburger. I take this as a breach in our friendship. This causes me GREAT grief...cause I really trusted Tom and I really wanted that hamburger.

So, someone writes bout my predicament:

Mephi looked at the empty plate where his juicy hamburger once sat...and looked at Tom wolfing it down. At that moment, Meph grieved over having become Tom's friend, and his heart was filled with pain.

So much so, in fact, that Meph says:

I'm going to completely break off my friendship with Tom, for I grieve because I befriended him.

If I were to say all this to you, would this in any way IMPLY that I regret being your friend? Would this in any way IMPLY that I wish that I HADN'T become your friend because of your now-demonstrated selfishness? Better yet, if you didn't assume me omniscient, and you read the above stuff, would you try to make a deep separation between my feeling grief about your eating my hamburger and my regretting being your friend? I wager not. You'd probably feel that the statement embodies a grief over your behavior...AND a regret over the fact that I chose to be your friend. This would be because my becoming your friend was a necessary condition for me experiencing the context in which you ate my hamburger.

Do you see what I'm saying? The "nicham" and "ki" can convey a sense of grief AND regret at the same time. In other words, I'd say the majority of your take is right on the money. Except that you try to bifurcate God's grief and God's sense of regret. I'd bet the ONLY reason that you do this is because of your belief in God's omniscience. If you didn't have to accomodate for that idea, I highly doubt that you'd get this interpretation from Genesis itself.

What do you think?


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Similitude
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   Posted 9/4/2005 6:31 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Jeff: OK. But the option I posted is consistent with that, isn't it?

Tom: Not really. At the end of verse 7 ("for I regret that I made them";-) the verbs are definitely past tense--nichamti (I grieved) and 'asaitim (I made them).


Jeff: Here's what I read from http://www.theology.edu/hebrew/hb07.htm:

Aspect vs. Tense

Biblical Hebrew does not have past, present and future tenses like English (modern Hebrew is another story altogether, however). Instead, action is regarded as either complete or incomplete. Incomplete action is referred to as perfect and incomplete action is referred to as imperfect. Generally speaking, the perfect aspect will be translated into English with the English past tense and the imperfect will be translated into English with the English future tense. However, this is only an approximation of the situation, and so there will be times when altogether different tenses will be better in certain circumstances. In Biblical Hebrew Step-by-Step, Mansoor will refer to the perfect as the past tense and the imperfect as the present tense (and the participle, which we will get to in a moment) as the present. I do not think this is really appropriate, and thus in these online notes I will consistently speak of the imperfect and perfect aspects. It is better, I think, to try to wrap your mind around the somewhat alien way of ancient Hebrew thinking, than to accept the imprecision of forcing the ancient forms into modern molds into which they simply do not fit

So if the Hebrew language doesn't have past, present, and future tenses, and, yet, conveys all three of these tenses SOMEHOW, how does it do that? Is it context?  Or what?


 

Post Edited (jefscott) : 9/4/2005 6:52:20 PM (GMT-5)

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Tom
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   Posted 9/4/2005 9:08 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
The two tenses are 'perfect' and 'imperfect'. The verbs in 7b are perfect, that is, complete. Modern Arabic has the same two tenses, but they make due with those and are able to express the past perfect and future. So for future they'll say:

Tomorrow at a 8 AM 'I am picking' you up (using the imperfect form of the verb). But everybody knows they mean tomorrow because you set the future by naming it first.

The perfect would be "I picked you up." And that's the completed past. If they want to say "I had picked you up" they'll preface a second 'complete' verb to it:

"It was (that's verb #1 in the 'complete' tense) I picked him up (there's verb #2 in the complete tense)." Putting two together gives them the idea of our 'past perfect." Gets the job done.

Point is. The verbs in 7b are both 'complete' verbs. I don't know of any case in which they'd be rendered into our future-tense.
Tom


 

Post Edited (TGB) : 9/4/2005 9:45:32 PM (GMT-5)

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Similitude
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   Posted 9/4/2005 9:17 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Thanks, Tom. Hate to waste your time, but that lesson will surely do me good in the future and save time, hopefully. Looking forward to your final results!


 

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Tom
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   Posted 9/4/2005 9:50 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
By the way, Jeff, in modern Arabic (very very close to Hebrew and having the same two tenses to work with) they can get to the future perfect (I will have given you 8 dollars). They'll say "I am (imperfect, understood as a future) + I gave (perfect) you 8 $." When you arrange the imperfect and perfect this way it expresses the idea that "I will be gave you" which gets turned around in the Arab mind (freaky, I know!) as "I will have given you."

Tom


 

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Similitude
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   Posted 9/4/2005 10:56 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Freaky, yes. But still a method to it's freakiness, eh?


 

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One Love
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   Posted 9/5/2005 9:41 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom?


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Tom
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   Posted 9/5/2005 9:51 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Sorry Mephi. Somehow I totally missed that post of yours. I was wondering where YOU were!

I'm doing breakfast with the fam in a minute and then going out to the State Fair (and Switchfoot tonight). I'll get back to asap.

Tom


 

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Tom
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   Posted 9/5/2005 10:06 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Yo Mephi-

 

If all I had was Gen. 6.1-7, sure, I’d probably be inclined to assume that God’s really “regretted” in the sense you mean. But we don’t have only these verses to go by in determining what the author’s point was. We have the earlier chapters, verbal parallels, etc. So while we might justify a possible reading based on the author’s having written JUST these verses, we can’t suppose the author just wrote these verses. He wrote more and was up to more.

 

But that God can truly regretted having made his own past choices isn’t the only thing I’d assume about God if all I was reading was ch. 6. I’d also be stunned to discover that a God who regrets his choices learns so little from regretting that he immediately repeats his mistakes. So the author must have believed God was like the Greek gods, somewhat slow, capable of being deceived, given to uncontrolled passions, and a bit slow on the uptake. This all HAS to be entailed in God’s truly regretting having created at all. And THEN I’d have to say the author had a fundamentally skewed view of God and that I’d be just as likely to find out the truth about God from Greek authors talking about Zeus, Hera, and Poseidon.

 

I’m appealing to your ENFJ ‘consistency’ and trying to convince you that it’s a less consistent hermeneutic to assume that a verse most like means what it seems to mean when you disregard the wider context and take the verse on its own. It’s more consistent to assume that the verse most likely means what an author having just composed chapters 1-5 would mean.

 

And I totally admit that I come to these chapters with Exodus through Revelation in my head and heart AND feeling very constrained (though not entirely determined) by my belief that God is the greatest possible being in the universe and the philosophical arguments about what sort of knowledge is a great-making property.

 

Pancakes are on the table! Gotta go.

 

Tom


 

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Similitude
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   Posted 9/5/2005 10:41 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:  It’s more consistent to assume that the verse most likely means what an author having just composed chapters 1-5 would mean.
 
Jeff:  I would agree that the world at the time right before the Flood is purposely being contrasted with the "very good" world of chapter 1.  Indeed, Lamech's statement to the effect that Noah would relieve them from the toil from the curse of the ground really brings that out.  But I don't see how anything in that contrast rules out what Meph is saying.  Nor has anyone given me a verse that indicates God has eternal, attribute omniscience. 
 
So, as far as I can tell so far, Meph is right.  That view must be proven philosophically and imported INTO the text.  If such a philosophical proof exists, I think that is fine (to say self-knowledge EQUALS omniscience of contingencies is not a proof, it's an assertion).  But it still makes the language in Gen. 6 VERY AWKWARD, to say the least.  So I'm stuck, for now, with no philosophical proof and awkward language. 
 
Tom, Meph has asked for an exampe above.  Can you give me just ONE example to explain to me the difference in my view and yours which shows that your view of God is more BENEVOLENT than mine?   An example that clearly brings to light just WHAT problem exists in doubting attribute-knowledge?  It apparently seems self-evident to you.  But I'm a little slow, and I need an example. 


 

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One Love
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   Posted 9/5/2005 10:46 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom: (emphasis mine)
But that God can truly regretted having made his own past choices isn’t the only thing I’d assume about God if all I was reading was ch. 6. I’d also be stunned to discover that a God who regrets his choices learns so little from regretting that he immediately repeats his mistakes. So the author must have believed God was like the Greek gods, somewhat slow, capable of being deceived, given to uncontrolled passions, and a bit slow on the uptake. This all HAS to be entailed in God’s truly regretting having created at all. And THEN I’d have to say the author had a fundamentally skewed view of God and that I’d be just as likely to find out the truth about God from Greek authors talking about Zeus, Hera, and Poseidon.

HERE it is! Your own assumptions. I contend that reading 1-6 give one the impression that God is MUCH LESS than the infinite God we think of. Yes, this God created heaven and earth from his word, which is huge and testifies to God's great wisdom. But this is NOT omniscience, in and of itself. And you wouldn't get the idea of omniscience from Gen 1-6. Also, you are reading in that the author of Genesis may IN NO WAY have believed that God regrets his choices, makes adjustments that God feels would be appropriate. YOU feel that this God would be a stupid one...but somehow you read THAT IMPRESSION back into the head of the author. You don't know that the author would feel that way. Why do you do that? You have no exegetical reason to do so. It's an assumption that YOU have. You're doing just what all the other people do...and you say it.

And I totally admit that I come to these chapters with Exodus through Revelation in my head and heart AND feeling very constrained (though not entirely determined) by my belief that God is the greatest possible being in the universe and the philosophical arguments about what sort of knowledge is a great-making property.

I know, to some extent, we must do this...but the way you're doing it seems a lot like eisegesis straight up. You basically say...

I refuse to believe that the author(s?) of Genesis would believe that God was so stupid and slow.

Do you not see your own biases very clearly here? And these biases are influencing your interpretation. Just ask yourself: Is it POSSIBLE that the author(s) could have genuinely believed that God made a choice that he regretted. That God DIDN'T regret creating the earth, moon, and stars, but DID end up regretting making man. But decided to give man one more chance anyway, favoring Noah.

Come on, dude.


To all heresy-hunters and general lames...
 
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Tom
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   Posted 9/5/2005 11:33 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Mephi: Yes, this God created heaven and earth from his word, which is huge and testifies to God's great wisdom. But this is NOT omniscience, in and of itself. And you wouldn't get the idea of omniscience from Gen 1-6.

 

Tom: True. The author doesn’t anywhere actually argue FOR infinite intelligence. But he doesn’t actually deny it either. The way v. 6 is worded seems to be compatible with either, though I think the beliefs we have to assume he had if he believed what he wrote about creation make his also believing God was a bit of a dunce highly unlikely, so much so that you’ll have to argue on independent grounds that it’s likely he (and the author of 1Sam AND the author of Jeremiah) held such a view about God.

 

Mephi: Also, you are reading in that the author of Genesis may IN NO WAY have believed that God regrets his choices, makes adjustments that God feels would be appropriate. YOU feel that this God would be a stupid one...but somehow you read THAT IMPRESSION back into the head of the author.

 

Tom: Ignorance is required of regretting one’s own choices. I’m reading that definition into the text, yes, because it’s independently true and has to brought to the text. If God truly regrets his own choices, he can’t also be thought of as having foreseen and adequately evaluated the choice he’s now regretting. So some ignorance is required to regret. Now, I don’t think I need to assume that the author believed God was omniscient in order to read the author in a way that’s consistent with God’s being omniscient (or the author’s believing God was omniscient). In other words, I’m not trying to PROVE from Genesis that God is omniscient. I’m trying to show that the author’s meaning doesn’t exclude God’s being omniscient. That’s different, and a much easier thing to do.

 

Mephi: You don't know that the author would feel that way. Why do you do that? You have no exegetical reason to do so. It's an assumption that YOU have. You're doing just what all the other people do...and you say it.

 

Tom: Ouch! OK, it seems to me Mephi that the author's words really can, given the context, be understood the way I’m suggesting and that without having to stretch words and meaning to the nth degree either. It’s not remotely plausible. It’s plainly plausible. So how is my choosing to go with a contextual reading of the author that’s consistent with omniscience a totally unjustified reading into the text of my presuppositions while yours is JUST reading the author at face value?

 

Mephi: I know, to some extent, we must do this...but the way you're doing it seems a lot like eisegesis straight up. You basically say...I refuse to believe that the author(s?) of Genesis would believe that God was so stupid and slow.

Tom: It’s only eisegesis if there’s NO evidence whatsoever from Genesis that the author held to a view of God which would make it unlikely that he also believed God was stupid and slow. I do think it unreasonable to suppose that the author believed God knowledgeable and wise enough to imagine this world in all its complexity and order and also to suppose him capable of the sort of bad judgment calls that true regret of the choice to create entails. I don’t think that’s eisegesis though because I’m assuming it based on what seems to be true about the author given what the author’s own assumptions must be.

 

Mephi: Do you not see your own biases very clearly here? And these biases are influencing your interpretation.

 

Tom: How could you think I don’t recognize my own presuppositions when I started out by admitting them up front? Sure, I have them. We all do. My point is, a case can be made from the text that 6.6-7 be interpreted on nothing but what seems to be the case about the authors assumptions which allows for a reading of vv. 6-6 that’s consistent with God’s being omniscient. So I have the presuppositions, but they’re not what’s driving HOW I read the text. They’re there. But they’re not shutting the author down. And that's the best any of us can hope to accomplish when we read.

 

Mephi: Just ask yourself: Is it POSSIBLE that the author(s) could have genuinely believed that God made a choice that he regretted.

 

Tom: The grammar of v. 6 allows it, but it doesn’t demand it I don't think. So what decides? I say, CONTEXT. And given the wider context, I honestly find it difficult (given the author’s own assumptions about God’s imaginative and creative powers) to believe he thought God capable of repeated ill-informed choices and bad judgment calls.

 

More later. Gotta run.

 

Tom


 

Post Edited (TGB) : 9/5/2005 11:44:24 AM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 9/5/2005 11:43 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:
And given the wider context, I honestly find it difficult (given the author’s own assumptions about God’s imaginative and creative powers) to believe he thought God capable of repeated ill-informed choices and bad judgment calls.

What are these "author's assumptions about God's imaginative and creative powers"? Really lay them out for me. Are they such that God cannot be ignorant or make hasty decisions? If so, what scriptural texts within Gen 1-6 did you infer that from?

Seems like another assumption:

Any being who believes in God's great wisdom and imaginative power CANNOT believe that God makes ANY hasty decisions that have not be fully considered

And I, for the life of me, can't see where this came from in Gen 1-6.


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Tom
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   Posted 9/5/2005 11:45 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Dang, I'm still trying to tiddy up my post and fine-tune it and you've already responded! Plus I HAVE to take off for the Fair.

Rats.
Tom


 

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One Love
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   Posted 9/5/2005 11:49 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom:
Now, I don’t think I need to assume that the author believed God was omniscient in order to read the author in a way that’s consistent with God’s being omniscient (or the author’s believing God was omniscient). In other words, I’m not trying to PROVE from Genesis that God is omniscient. I’m trying to show that the author’s meaning doesn’t exclude God’s being omniscient. That’s different, and a much easier thing to do.

So, you are trying to find a plausible reading of the text that is CONSISTENT with the idea of God's omniscience. But doesn't this angle, in some way, DRIVE the process? This is why I brought up the separation of the "grieving" and "regretting" motifs (because nacham can incorporate both). I contend that if you were reading this WITHOUT the assumption of God's omniscience...you wouldn't try to separate those motifs. It's a more NATURAL reading, in my view. It's a more natural reading to say:

God was terribly grieved by the immense amount of human sin. So much so, in fact, that he regretted ever creating them in the first place.

The only reason not to take this reading is trying to make this consistent with an idea of God's omniscience. The Calvinists do it. Doc does it. Now you're doing it.
 
And I don't see ANYTHING in Gen 1-5 that mandates that this cannot be possible for God.  I'd need for you to show me how you inferred the authors presuppositions.


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Tom
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   Posted 9/5/2005 12:18 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Take Jer. 42.1-10 as an example, Mephi.

 

Jeremiah 42 Then all the army officers, including Johanan son of Kareah and Jezaniah son of Hoshaiah, and all the people from the least to the greatest approached  2 Jeremiah the prophet and said to him, Please hear our petition and pray to the LORD your God for this entire remnant. For as you now see, though we were once many, now only a few are left. 3 Pray that the LORD your God will tell us where we should go and what we should do. 4 I have heard you, replied Jeremiah the prophet. I will certainly pray to the LORD your God as you have requested; I will tell you everything the LORD says and will keep nothing back from you. 5 Then they said to Jeremiah, May the LORD be a true and faithful witness against us if we do not act in accordance with everything the LORD your God sends you to tell us. 6 Whether it is favourable or unfavourable, we will obey the LORD our God, to whom we are sending you, so that it will go well with us, for we will obey the LORD our God. 7 Ten days later the word of the LORD came to Jeremiah. 8 So he called together Johanan son of Kareah and all the army officers who were with him and all the people from the least to the greatest. 9 He said to them, This is what the LORD, the God of Israel, to whom you sent me to present your petition, says: 10 'If you stay in this land, I will build you up and not tear you down; I will plant you and not uproot you, for I am grieved over the disaster I have inflicted on you.”

 

Now, it doesn’t seem to me that Jeremiah is best understood as believing God actually regretted “having judged” Israel as he in fact did, that God actually wishes he had let Israel go on sinning without consequence. It seems more consistent to read Jeremiah as saying God’s grief over Israel’s suffering (although brought on by God as a just consequence of their sin) is something God does not wish to repeat, that though given the circumstances under which he grieved made grieving unavoidable, God will again do all he can to avoid such judgment, for it truly grieves him. Thus, God grieves having judged, and this grief figures into a new future.

 

In my view, if you opt for insisting on here what you do in Gen. 6, you necessarily get God promising to plant Israel in the land unconditionally, inviting Israel to sin with impunity. That’s where the “regret” reading here would take you.

 

Tom


 

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Similitude
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   Posted 9/5/2005 12:23 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Meph: And I don't see ANYTHING in Gen 1-5 that mandates that this cannot be possible for God.  I'd need for you to show me how you inferred the authors presuppositions.

Tom: It’s only eisegesis if there’s NO evidence whatsoever from Genesis that the author held to a view of God which would make it unlikely that he also believed God was stupid and slow. I do think it unreasonable to suppose that the author believed God knowledgeable and wise enough to imagine this world in all its complexity and order and also to suppose him capable of the sort of bad judgment calls that true regret of the choice to create entails.

Jeff:  Not only is Meph right because of my analogy about the car engineer earlier in this thread, but the FLOOD is the elephant in the living room.  THE FLOOD is an ACT of POWERFUL INTERVENTION.  It is an ACT that God exercises BECAUSE the BOUNDARY of tolerance (or risk, if you will) has been REACHED.  And THAT is why the idea of ACCEPTABLE risk is not in the context of "REPENTED," at all.  Contextually, God's FLOOD is portrayed as being due to what DID happen, not what was ANTICIPATED.

To put it another way, we know, by analogy, that when someone designs something, the specifications of the design are based upon anticipated possibilites.  But when the designer has to INTERVENE in a radically abrupt manner to "save" his creation from destruction, it can be reasonably inferred that whatever necessitated THAT intervention was NOT anticipated in the design specifications.  And THAT is why Meph seems ABSOLUTELY right, to me.



 

Post Edited (jefscott) : 9/5/2005 1:35:49 PM (GMT-5)

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Starkman
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   Posted 9/5/2005 2:32 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tom[/] So the "ki" phrase introduces not the CAUSE of grief per se, but the CONTEXT of grief; the idea being "There was a time when 'I created humans' meant there was only good in the world and I was pleased. But now 'I created humans' means there's evil in the world, and evil that grieves me to my core." THAT is a different sort of thing.

Starkman Well, without the Hebrew exegesis (it's hard enough trying to get my Greek studies in as it is when I'm also studying Spanish!), this is what I've been saying all along, more so from a deductive process: If God is omnisicent, he can't create without possibly knowing all potentials of evils that mortal and finite humanity could bring about.

How could an omniscient God possible hesitate or act hastily? Wouldn't this require "time" to think in order to exercise omnisicence, which seems kind of silly. Either God knows all at once or He doesn't know all ever; he could never be sure that He thought things through well enough to consider all possiblities. This is the whole purpose of using the chess analogy: There is no move, no combination of moves, despite what the opponent does, that are not ALREADY known by God. If this is so, then it stands absolute that God can neither act hastily (as if He gets so mad He looses control or doesn't "think" things through) nor not know all possibilities before they materialize.

Starkman

P.S. Thankfully, despite my lack of ability in Hebrew, I DO know Pig Latin very well!


My teacher used to say that whenever he read Scripture, he would always ask the question, "What does this have to say about the character of God?"  Working off his thinking, as I read Scripture, I have come to ask, "What does this have to say about the heart and passion of God's desire for relationship for us?

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Similitude
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   Posted 9/5/2005 7:53 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
This is what the LORD, the God of Israel, to whom you sent me to present your petition, says: 10 'If you stay in this land, I will build you up and not tear you down; I will plant you and not uproot you, for I am grieved over the disaster I have inflicted on you.”

Tom: In my view, if you opt for insisting on here what you do in Gen. 6, you necessarily get God promising to plant Israel in the land unconditionally, inviting Israel to sin with impunity. That’s where the “regret” reading here would take you.

Jeff: But I thought you had already said previously in this thread that "grieved" in the Jeremiah passage is a different Hebrew word. If so, does it just mean "grieve," or does it mean "regret?"


 

Post Edited (jefscott) : 9/5/2005 8:01:47 PM (GMT-5)

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One Love
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   Posted 9/5/2005 7:56 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Starkman:
How could an omniscient God possible hesitate or act hastily? Wouldn't this require "time" to think in order to exercise omnisicence, which seems kind of silly. Either God knows all at once or He doesn't know all ever; he could never be sure that He thought things through well enough to consider all possiblities. This is the whole purpose of using the chess analogy: There is no move, no combination of moves, despite what the opponent does, that are not ALREADY known by God. If this is so, then it stands absolute that God can neither act hastily (as if He gets so mad He looses control or doesn't "think" things through) nor not know all possibilities before they materialize.

Think about Genesis as a whole. If you had no prior understanding of Judeo-Christian thought...and just read Genesis ALONE from Chap 1 to the end, would you come away with the idea that God was omniscient? Think about the Sodom and Gommorah story with Abraham's interaction with God and all that.

I contend that you could not. What a lot of people are doing with this is reading Genesis in light of the assumption of God's omniscience. This, I genuinely believe, is affecting Tom's reading of this thing.


****************************


Jeff:
THE FLOOD is an ACT of POWERFUL INTERVENTION. It is an ACT that God exercises BECAUSE the BOUNDARY of tolerance (or risk, if you will) has been REACHED. And THAT is why the idea of ACCEPTABLE risk is not in the context of "REPENTED," at all. Contextually, God's FLOOD is portrayed as being due to what DID happen, not what was ANTICIPATED.

To put it another way, we know, by analogy, that when someone designs something, the specifications of the design are based upon anticipated possibilites. But when the designer has to INTERVENE in a radically abrupt manner to "save" his creation from destruction, it can be reasonably inferred that whatever necessitated THAT intervention was NOT anticipated in the design specifications.


If I'm understanding Jeff, he's right on the money here. Come on, y'all. Tell me that the whole flood thing does NOT look like a "slash and burn" technique used by God. An intervention if there ever was one! Good stuff, Jeff.

************************

Tom:
Now, it doesn’t seem to me that Jeremiah is best understood as believing God actually regretted “having judged” Israel as he in fact did, that God actually wishes he had let Israel go on sinning without consequence. It seems more consistent to read Jeremiah as saying God’s grief over Israel’s suffering (although brought on by God as a just consequence of their sin) is something God does not wish to repeat, that though given the circumstances under which he grieved made grieving unavoidable, God will again do all he can to avoid such judgment, for it truly grieves him. Thus, God grieves having judged, and this grief figures into a new future.

In my view, if you opt for insisting on here what you do in Gen. 6, you necessarily get God promising to plant Israel in the land unconditionally, inviting Israel to sin with impunity. That’s where the “regret” reading here would take you.


Nope. I don't think you are taking a possible scenario into account. It is very possible that God doesn't regret judging his people per se, but regrets the EXTENT of devastation that has happened to his people in that judgement. Perhaps things went farther then God really wanted to go, and God regrets that. Think about this...

1 Chronicles 21
14 So the LORD sent a plague on Israel, and seventy thousand men of Israel fell dead. 15 And God sent an angel to destroy Jerusalem. But as the angel was doing so, the LORD saw it and was grieved because of the calamity and said to the angel who was destroying the people, "Enough! Withdraw your hand." The angel of the LORD was then standing at the threshing floor of Araunah the Jebusite.


Now the destruction of Jerusalem was supposed to happen AFTER the 70000 had already been killed by the plague. Very important to note. The destruction of Jerusalem was ALREADY going beyond what God had specified to David! Could it be here that God truly did fully intend on destroying Jerusalem by his angel...but upon seeing the angel ACTUALLY start doing the dirty work, God changed his mind because of seeing the calamity and told the angel to stop? It seems so. Now is it possible that God regretted sending that angel to destroy Jerusalem. Yes, it is.

Now, none of this makes any if we assume an omniscient God.
An omniscient God would have KNOWN the amount of destruction garnered by an angel destroying Jerusalem and would have made the decision on that basis. Hence, there would have been no reason for God to stop the angel BECAUSE he was greived at seeing the damage!

In the same way, in Jeremiah, it's possible that God greived over and regretted the EXTENT of disaster that God poured out, not the judgement itself. If this is possible, then it shows that sorrow over one's actions and regretting doing those actions need NOT be so separate as categories. And the only bias forcing that is the need to keep the omniscience idea going.


To all heresy-hunters and general lames...
 
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Respect game, and keep my name outcha mouth!"
       --adapted from T.I. From P$C's "I'm a King"
 

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One Love
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   Posted 9/5/2005 8:02 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
For clarity.

I'm NOT saying that I believe God is not omniscient. I do. What I'm saying is that some of these scriptures that talks about God's regretting/grieving are inconsistent with the idea of God being omniscient. One has to really parse things out of their more naturally-read sense to do this.

But instead of saying these texts may be inaccurate OR saying that God is not omniscient (though very wise), some people want their cake and want to eat it too.

Not convincing to me yet. If Tom can show me HOW he's come up with those "author's assumptions about God's imaginative and creative powers" that he found in Genesis 1-6...and how these assumptions render the idea IMPLAUSIBLE that God cannot be ignorant of anything such that God can make decisions that God regrets later.

Hmmm...

devil


To all heresy-hunters and general lames...
 
"I'm connected nationwide, but from the South...
Respect game, and keep my name outcha mouth!"
       --adapted from T.I. From P$C's "I'm a King"
 

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One Love
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   Posted 9/5/2005 8:06 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Gotta give an example.

Let's say that my son does something I don't approve of. So I decided to firmly reprimand him. As I'm giving him what for, I actually go a little too far and start yelling at him. Now, it's possible for me to say...

Now, I don't regret at ALL that I'm reprimanding my son. That needed to happen. However, I think that I've gone a little TOO FAR here. I wish I hadn't yelled at him like that. I'd take that back if I could

I'd be regretting my EXCESS in accomplishing my intended idea, but not my intended idea itself.

Now, would this have happened if I were omniscient and in full control of myself? What do YOU think?

devil


To all heresy-hunters and general lames...
 
"I'm connected nationwide, but from the South...
Respect game, and keep my name outcha mouth!"
       --adapted from T.I. From P$C's "I'm a King"
 

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Similitude
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   Posted 9/5/2005 8:27 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Meph: Now, I don't regret at ALL that I'm reprimanding my son. That needed to happen. However, I think that I've gone a little TOO FAR here. I wish I hadn't yelled at him like that. I'd take that back if I could

Jeff: I think we can take the analogy even further if the Hebrew word in Jeremiah only means "grieved." For we can actually GRIEVE that we have to reprimand our kids at all, without regretting DOING it. The former is due to our normal empathetic/sympatheic nature. The latter is based on what we know, intellectually, about what the real world is like. In other words, we can act in ways that grieve us, knowing FULL good and well we're doing the wise thing.


 

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Tom
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   Posted 9/5/2005 8:28 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Meph: And I don't see ANYTHING in Gen 1-5 that mandates that this cannot be possible for God. I'd need for you to show me how you inferred the author’s presuppositions.

Tom: It’s only eisegesis if there’s NO evidence whatsoever from Genesis that the author held to a view of God which would make it unlikely that he also believed God was stupid and slow. I do think it unreasonable to suppose that the author believed God knowledgeable and wise enough to imagine this world in all its complexity and order and also to suppose him capable of the sort of bad judgment calls that true regret of the choice to create entails.

Jeff:  Not only is Meph right because of my analogy about the car engineer earlier in this thread, but the FLOOD is the elephant in the living room.  THE FLOOD is an ACT of POWERFUL INTERVENTION.  It is an ACT that God exercises BECAUSE the BOUNDARY of tolerance (or risk, if you will) has been REACHED.  And THAT is why the idea of ACCEPTABLE risk is not in the context of "REPENTED," at all.  Contextually, God's FLOOD is portrayed as being due to what DID happen, not what was ANTICIPATED.

Tom: I’m comfortable right where my red comments are. (1) Jeff, the reason Mephi and I are talking about “acceptable risk” is because if God is truly “regretting having created humankind, period” then this entails God’s concluding his having created is now unacceptable to him. He wishes he hadn’t done it. That’s what “regret” means, and as far as I understand “regret” I think it amounts to concluding that the choice you made that got you to this point was an unacceptable risk. (2) Mephi and Jeff, you just keep translating “nicham” here as “regret” without argument. What I’m seeing more now is that “nicham” doesn’t necessarily entail that specific emotion. Grief, yes. And grief in some circumstances IS synonymous to regret. But not in all circumstances. One can grieve without regretting. So if I’m bifurcating “grief” and “regret,” that’s because they’re in fact NOT synonymous. You can’t just assume they shouldn’t be bifurcated. One has to appeal to context to see what’s up.

Jeff: To put it another way, we know, by analogy, that when someone designs something, the specifications of the design are based upon anticipated possibilites. But when the designer has to INTERVENE in a radically abrupt manner to "save" his creation from destruction, it can be reasonably inferred that whatever necessitated THAT intervention was NOT anticipated in the design specifications. And THAT is why Meph seems ABSOLUTELY right, to me.

Tom: If that’s the author’s meaning, then Mephi DISAGREES with the author, since Mephi believes God incapable of such regret, as do I. But drastic intervention IS consistent with a fully anticipated and acceptable risk if the purposes for designing things in such an open fashion require it. But more importantly, Jeff, the SAME Genesis 6 language is repeated in 1Sam. 15.11 and Jer. 42.10 and other passages where there is no “radical intervention to save creation from destruction.” Dismissing Saul as king for lack of integrity can hardly be a radical measure God takes to save the nation because he failed to anticipate Saul’s not following orders. If your analogy is right, then from where I stand God really IS a nitwit, a total nincompoop, a very powerful one yes, but a nincumpoop nonetheless. I honestly can't imagine divine sensabilities being such that God's nature ruled out his foreknowing the possibility that Saul wouldn't work out. But yet the same language of Gen. 6 is used in regard Saul, where no countermeausures (like shortening human lifespans in Genesis) are taken. Nothing new is put in place with Saul (or with Israel in Jer. 42). God just picks up and starts over again facing EXACTLY the same risks. That's the problem with your argument (from my view). See, if the same LANGUAGE (viz., divine grief "ki" some previous choice of God) that's used in Gen. 6 with the flood is also used in contexts where there is no radical intervention taken by God, then God's wiping humanity out with a flood in Gen. 6 cannot--cannot--constrain our interpretation of the language in Gen. 6. So there's a flood. So what? That can't be what explains the language of divine grief since the same grief is used to describe God in circumstances where nothing dramatic is done by God and no adjustments made in his plans.

 

Keith: This is what I've been saying all along, more so from a deductive process: If God is omniscient, he can't create without possibly knowing all potentials of evils that mortal and finite humanity could bring about.

 

Tom: Right. IF God is omniscient. But that’s what’s at issue, since the verse CAN be read in a way that rules out omniscience. So we’re trying to interpret the language and context of Gen. 6 (and the other passages like it) in a way that’s leaves omniscience in tack without simply assuming that God is omniscient and then forcing the author of Gen. into that. See the difference?

 

Tom


 

Post Edited (TGB) : 9/5/2005 8:41:29 PM (GMT-5)

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