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Similitude
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   Posted 10/6/2005 8:02 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Spen: I think that what you mean in the above post is that the concept of God's wrath on sin is offensive to you. This is the point that you have issue with - judgment on sin or at least eternal and unchangeable judgment on sin. The issue isn't so much of the "unfairness" or injustice of the righteous suffering with the wicked as with any eternal judment at all.

Jeff: I don't find God's wrath on sin offensive. I would find His indifference to, or absolute toleration of, sin as unjust. I have no problem, per se, with eternal judgement. I believe Satan and his angels will experience it. I just think humans, being soulish beings and not spirits, will die a second and eternal death after they are justly judged in the ressurection of judgement.


 

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JEE
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   Posted 10/6/2005 8:11 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
spenlake said...
I will put a jacket on what I have been saying from an illustration in "God at War." In this story we see a small girl named Zosia being brutalized and killed by the Nazis. This story is intended to make the concept that God is in charge of the world seem ludicrous because this implicates God in the evil that occurs. This evil must be outside of His control somehow through an unknown portion of the future in the OpenView. If God is not certain that the evil will occur then He is not to be held cuplable.

This "providence" thesis accepts that because God is merciful events like the one described occur. The only proper response is to trust in the mercy of a loving God that doesn't immediately judge all sinners who act sinfully. Thus, we are shown mercy and can hear and respond to the gospel. This is the eternal hope even offered to little Zosia. In this case we are not scandalized by someone claiming implication that God "willed" evil because he foreknew that it would occur and did nothing to prevent it. We know that He did not "will" evil but only delayed judging those who commit it (even though He knew it would happen). We still trust in a loving God that does not immediately judge these wicked men for their sinful actions they chose to commit. We are certain that full and complete judgment will be imposed by God when He sees fit to impose His perfect rule. Those whose sinful actions have not been covered because they have not repented and believed the message of the gospel will be eternally punished.

There is no scandal concerning God foreknowing evil in this story.


I think you are missing a crucial point repeatedly harped upon by us Open Viewers: If God foreknew with absolute CERTAINTY precisely what choices (whether good or evil) all people down through all of history DEFINITELY WOULD make subsequent to his creative action, then there can be nothing BUT scandal in His definite foreknowing what would be the INEVITABLE CONSEQUENCES of his initial creation of the world. He may have "merely" set the world in motion, but the fact remains that in the traditional idea of foreknowledge, EVERY LAST DETAIL of the then only divinely foreseen DEFINITE future was ABSOLUTELY UNAVOIDABLE BY ANYONE (except GOD, of course, Who could have refrained from creating had he wanted to).

All becomes simply cause-and-effect in the traditional "timeline of history" concept of foreknowledge, so there really is no difference whatsoever between classical foreknowledge and Calvinism--NOTHING could ever have been other than it has been. All is precisely how God himself WANTED things to be, for in creating them with perfect knowledge that they would be precisely as they are, He in fact WILLED all to be as it would be. This means Hitler was PRECISELY as God DESIRED him to be, just as Mother Theresa, Cain, Abel, Satan was, etc., ad infinitum.

John


May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.

JohnE

http://www.revivaltheology.net

Post Edited (JEE) : 10/6/2005 8:17:18 PM (GMT-5)

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spenlake
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   Posted 10/6/2005 8:25 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
John,

This is exactly what this thesis doesn't say. The responsibility for sinful actions is soley with the sinners. The fact that God knows what they will decide in no way makes Him culpable. In spite of this He, in providence, rains on the just and the unjust and doesn not immediately judge sinful sinners. What God sees in the future He mostly keeps to Himself and we love out history making real moral decisions in time. The fact that God exhaustively knows the future does not mean that we do not make real moral choices as responsible moral agents in time. The only amazing thing is that He does not immediately deal out judgment upon all those who choose sin. God's foreknowledge remains hidden in God. We are commanded to believe and obey the gospel made clear in the objective revelation of his Son incarnated as Man.


Spen Lake

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JEE
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   Posted 10/6/2005 8:27 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
"This is exactly what this thesis doesn't say."

Yeah, like I said...


May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.

JohnE

http://www.revivaltheology.net

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spenlake
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   Posted 10/6/2005 8:32 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Thanks, all of you who responded and interacted with me. I appreciated the input and found it of value. It looks like we've reached "impasse" but the process has been helpful and I consider you friends.


Spen Lake

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Violin for God
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   Posted 10/6/2005 11:57 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Wow, cool. Got a good discussion going on here.  Before we throw in the towel though, I was wondering if I could bring up a couple of things.  I'll post 'em in two threads to keep from confusion.
 
For this one, Spen, I was thinking about what you posted earlier this morning, and I'd like to bring it up if you don't mind.  With hashing out a couple more details about your thesis, it brought a couple of questions in my mind.  I'd like to play devil's advocate for just a bit to clarify my understanding of your thesis to see where it leads.  I hope you're still interested in discussing it.
 
You wrote: "Injustice and evil exist ONLY because of the mercy of a loving God."  The question I have is: is it only for the display of mercy or is there a greater reason for that?  If it's only to display mercy, who is the display for?  If it's for us, then this seems to conclude that He created us simply to show us how merciful He is.  It would be equally strange if the display were just for Himself.  If this exists only because of His mercy, I'd also wonder about the victim's perspective.  It wouldn't seem merciful (or fair) to the ones subjected to the persecution.  I see that at the end of the paragraph that contains the sentence I quoted, you wrote "the forbearance of God will actually work out for our good, our eternal good".  So this shows there is a reason beyond simply mercy and forbearance.  So tying this together, would you say that injustice and evil exist for our eternal good and that's why God practices forbearance?  Additionally, sometimes injustice and evil are destroyed also for our eternal good (or, as I'll try to point out in the Romans thread I started as soon as I can get back to it, for the eternal good of the Church, the Bride, which is possibly even more important than just the individuals).
 
One other side note, you wrote that there has been a focus on the "limitations of [God's] foreknowledge."  I think this is incorrect as Tom pointed out.  The focus hasn't been in regards to the "limitations of God's foreknowledge, but on the nature of the future (being somewhat open vs. exhaustively settled) and the nature of God's knowledge (which is infallible and encompasses all there is that is knowable).
 
Anyways, there's no dispute that God practices withheld as well as direct judgment, but the question of why seems important to hash out.  Are you still interested in seeing if your position still needs more refining?  It may or may not, but this will help me in figuring this out.  Plus if you have any feedback for the Romans thread I started, that would be great.


 If you're going to be skeptical, be fair and be skeptical of skepticism.

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Violin for God
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   Posted 10/7/2005 12:19 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
The other thing I wanted to bring up was the definition of "providence".  I talked with the A-meister about it to try to get a clear definition of providence, and it's basically God's management of creation.  To the Calvinist, this providence is cashed out as "God's eternal decree"; everything pans out according to how God ordains it.  To the Open Theist (I think), God doesn't exhaustively control everything but allows for His creatures to have free will and has some say-so about how the future pans out.  To the Muslim, as Allah has decided to govern.  To the Greeks, as the gods decided to govern.  Etc. 
 
As far as I understand it, postponed judgment (forbearance) as well as immediate judgment seem to fit under the whole umbrella of "providence" as well as God's providing hand, His withholding His hand, and removing His hand.  It all goes under how God has decided to govern.  God's Moral Government is also God's providence. 
 
Would you all say I hammered providence out somewhat correctly?
 
BTW, John, I think you stated this well: "I can't agree that God's rule is not already present in a very real way and that He does in fact mete out temporal judgment when He sees fit."  I think one possibility is that when evil interferes with God's ultimate goal.  I don't think His ultimalte goal is just to fight against evil, but to bring out the good in spite of the presence of evil to the point of when God's goal is complete: to restore the full Bride.

BTWBTW, Tom, this is g-o-o-d too (pudding!): "You can't foreknow what's already actual.  You foreknow what is not yet actual."  Great distinction.  Ties into what I'm understanding proginosko to mean.  


 If you're going to be skeptical, be fair and be skeptical of skepticism.

Post Edited (Violin for God) : 10/7/2005 12:24:39 AM (GMT-5)

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Tom
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   Posted 10/7/2005 11:54 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Providence = "God management of creation."

A-meister is on as usual! That's just how I see it. God doesn't do or choose not to do anything--with respect to creation at least--that's not 'providential' in the sense that it's done or not done purposefully with a view to managing creation as wisely as possible within the guidelines God set up.

I'm surprised there was even a debate about the general defintion of 'providence' though we all know there are disagreements about the nature of God's management (deterministic or not, maximally loving or not, etc.).

Tom


 

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JEE
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   Posted 10/7/2005 3:54 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
My question arose from spen's claim that there was no providence before the Fall. As I said, I would certainly agree that there was no need for forbearance prior to the Fall, but that forbearance is a subcategory of providence. Obviously, God managed his creation prior to the Fall.


May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.

JohnE

http://www.revivaltheology.net

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Similitude
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   Posted 10/7/2005 4:59 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
prov·i·dence ( P ) Pronunciation Key (prv-dns, -dns)
n.
Care or preparation in advance; foresight.
Prudent management; economy.
The care, guardianship, and control exercised by a deity; divine direction: “Some sought the key to history in the working of divine providence” (William Ebenstein).


The above agrees with the management idea. But ALL those ideas involve intervening or creating in a way that affects the course of the created order. Non-intervention can be purposeful, as scripture claims it is, but it does not as easily fit into the above definitions.


 

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spenlake
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   Posted 10/7/2005 5:02 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Violin to Spen: You wrote: "Injustice and evil exist ONLY because of the mercy of a loving God." The question I have is: is it only for the display of mercy or is there a greater reason for that?

I think that the reason for everything is the glory of God and that He may be glorified in all. When the direct and pure rule of God returns He will be glorified in extending eternal life to all who have repented/believed and in throwing all into the lake of fire who have rebelled against Him both angels and men. The time of mercy and providence only is "good" for those who inherit eternal life and are not ultimately condemned to the lake of fire. For those who continue on in their rebellion, during this time of mercy they are actually increasing their judgment and it becomes worse and worse for them over time. All things work together for good ONLY for those who inherit eternal life.


Spen Lake

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Similitude
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   Posted 10/7/2005 5:23 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Spen: For those who continue on in their rebellion, during this time of mercy they are actually increasing their judgment and it becomes worse and worse for them over time.

Jeff: Doesn't this imply that forbearance is NOT mercy? If forebearance doesn't equate to forgiveness (and it doesn't), I don't see how forebearance equates to mercy. For those judged for their works are punished accordingly, regardless of how long God endured those works. Mercy is not punishment postponed, but the absence of punishment.


 

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spenlake
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   Posted 10/7/2005 5:45 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Good question. Forbearance is only motivated by mercy as was the cross. Ultimately, however, all who refuse to accept mercy on God's terms will experience judgment. God comes and all those who are covered/prepared inherit life and all those who are uncovered/unprepared burn forever. The potential mercy is offered to all and believed and experienced only by some. If there were no forbearance none would experience mercy or inherit life purchased by God Himself on the cross bearing His wrath against sin.

God in His foreknowledge believes or certainly knows that some will perish in this period of extending His mercy through not immediatly judging.  He considers that the afflictions that those who accept His mercy experience in this wicked place/time are nothing compared to the eternal life they inherit through His own death. God forknowing with certainty that some of those born of the seed would only rebel and ultimately burn lessens none of the grace and beauty of the offer. All of the seed would have burned (potentially) if immediate judgment had been imposed.


Spen Lake

Post Edited (spenlake) : 10/7/2005 5:54:54 PM (GMT-5)

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Similitude
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   Posted 10/7/2005 9:34 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Spen: Good question. Forbearance is only motivated by mercy as was the cross.

Jeff: Interesting thought, there. Romans says God's forebearance serves at least two purposes: 1) God's desire to eventually SHOW His wrath, and 2) the postponement of that wrath long enough to show mercy. But if you are right (and I suspect you are), then purpose (1) may be subordinate to purpose (2). I.e., if it weren't for (2), God might not exercise forebearance for (1), only. And this makes sense in light of the fact that God seemingly intended to have a people for Christ's glory from the beginning.

But all this is consistent with the OV, is it not? For God, by this view, is providentially working out His original intent in a different way. He had wished that all had gone well from the beginning, but He will accomplish His ultimate purpose (Rom 9:19 "...who hath resisted His purpose") by redemption, regardless.


 

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spenlake
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   Posted 10/7/2005 10:22 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Jeff: But all this is consistent with the OV, is it not? For God, by this view, is providentially working out His original intent in a different way. He had wished that all had gone well from the beginning, but He will accomplish His ultimate purpose (Rom 9:19 "...who hath resisted His purpose" by redemption, regardless.

Spen: I maintain that God's "wishing" that all had gone well while foreknowing with certainty that it would not go well for some is also possible in this thesis. In light of the understanding that forebearance is only motivated by mercy, the certain knowledge that some would refuse this mercy in no way implies that God created people to be damned as hyper-Calvinism would claim. Thus, in regard to the problem of evil I see no need or advantage in a concept that God does not exhaustively know the future with certainty. It is my observation that seeking an answer to the problem of evil has been a significant motivation for many OVers. I admit it is not the only one, but is a major one.

In my observation the two key issues pressuring for OV have been:
- free will
- the problem of evil

I see this concept of providence/forbearance as addressing at least the problem of evil in a way that certainly does not make God the author of evil or somehow secretly wishing it.


Spen Lake

Post Edited (spenlake) : 10/8/2005 2:20:04 PM (GMT-5)

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Tom
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   Posted 10/8/2005 8:30 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Jeff: ...then purpose (1) may be subordinate to purpose (2).

Tom: Yep. Been saying it a LONG time, a LONG LONG time. ;o)

Jeff: But all this is consistent with the OV, is it not?

Tom: Yep. It would have to be. The future can't be truly open, and God know it to be so, and God be so related to the world, BUT God never alter ANY purpose of his at all. But neither can it be, if God is wise and consistently sovereign, that God ALWAYS alters EVERY purpose of his. Some purposes for creating have to be non-negotiable. They guide the overall project and they determine what other alterable purposes may be taken up at some point in time.

I agree with Spen that OVers are limited to a certain class of theodicies and that OVers don't automatically solve the problem of evil on account of embracing the OV.

Tom


 

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Similitude
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   Posted 10/8/2005 8:44 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Spen: In light of the understanding that forebearance is only motivated by mercy, the certain knowledge that some would refuse this mercy in no way implies that God created people to be damned as hyper-Calvinism would claim.

Jeff: I agree. But all that means is that some things are beyond the capacity of human free will. This doesn't necessitate EDF, though.

Spen: Thus, in regard to the problem of evil I see no need or advantage in a concept that God does not exhaustively know the future with certainty.

Jeff: I agree, as long as you are adhering to EDF somewhat mystically, apart from any philosophical argument for it. Philosophically and biblically, I don't see the necessity for it.


Spen: It is my observation that seeking an answer to the problem of evil has been a significant motivation for many OVers. I admit it is not the only one, but is a major one.

In my observation the two key issues pressuring for OV have been:
- free will
- the problem of evil

Jeff: Free will exists, so it must be accounted for philosophically. EDF is not philosophically or biblically necessary, as far as I can tell. And OV explains the data sufficiently, without appealing to mystery. That's why I prefer it.


 

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Similitude
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   Posted 10/8/2005 9:03 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Jeff: ...then purpose (1) may be subordinate to purpose (2).

Tom: Yep. Been saying it a LONG time, a LONG LONG time. ;o)

Jeff: I'm talking about wrath being poured out IN THIS WORLD, in history. Is that what you're talking about? If so, where have you ever addressed it? Some postmillenialists don't believe the world will experience an outpouring of wrath in the eschaton.  I get the idea that Doc IS a postmillenialist and nothing you have said has ever given me any indication that you disagree with postmillenialism (or agree with it, for that matter).

Tom: Some purposes for creating have to be non-negotiable. They guide the overall project and they determine what other alterable purposes may be taken up at some point in time.

Jeff: In the "logic of regret" thread, you had speculated on the possibility that God may have given up on previous creations and just destroyed them. I think, philosophically, that is a logical possibility. But the verse in Rom., and others, seem to indicate that God does, indeed, have one or more immutable purpose for this creation.  I was trying to account for that fact even in the Gen passage, because of the promised seed.

Tom: I agree with Spen that OVers are limited to a certain class of theodicies and that OVers don't automatically solve the problem of evil on account of embracing the OV.

Jeff: I agree, but appealing to mystery doesn't solve anything either. From where I'm sitting, EDF looks like a mystical belief. It may be true, but I know of nothing that requires it to be true. Nor does it seem intuitive or proveable.

As far as the problem of evil is concerned, the OV works fine if we are concerned with a minimal philosophical solution. It is when we try to account for evil by some pre-conceived notion of "GOD IS LOVE" that we run into a problem. There are two ways I can think of to solve this problem. 1) Assume that God is acting in love WHEN He is forebearing (1 Cor. 13) but NOT when He is judging, or 2) Assume the verse "GOD IS LOVE" is erroneous.

I take 1) to be the best solution for now, given my limited understanding. That would mean that the phrase "GOD IS LOVE" means something like "GOD IS THE QUINTESSENTIAL EXAMPLE OF A LOVING BEING." Not that everything God does IS an act of love. Tormenting people for their iniquity is not an act of love, per se, even for God (but neither is judgement an act of maliciousness; it is an act of justice--a necessary condition for ethical rationality, and hence love). At least it's not an act of love TOWARDS the one being tormented.  But even then, it may be an act of love towards Christ, as God has GIVEN all judgement to him. 
 
I don't see why this approach is particularly problematic.  It goes somewhat beyond the minimal theodicy, but falls short of that theodicy that demands that God loves all sentient beings infinitely, forever.  The latter is not philosophically necessary, and I doubt that it is biblically necessary.  I think it is this latter view that compels some to hold to universalism.  And I can see why.


 

Post Edited (jefscott) : 10/8/2005 10:06:11 AM (GMT-5)

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spenlake
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   Posted 10/8/2005 2:32 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Jeff: I agree, but appealing to mystery doesn't solve anything either. From where I'm sitting, EDF looks like a mystical belief. It may be true, but I know of nothing that requires it to be true. Nor does it seem intuitive or proveable.

Spen: Of all the words I hate, "mystical" ranks right up there. I disagree that this concept is "mystical" in the sense that some somjective revelation I feel has told me so and this is my "proof." We find this concept in "Seeing is Believing" in which I believe because I mystically "see" a spritual Jesus. I define my postion an objective mystery precisely because I don't have objective "proof" in scriptures. I find it clearly stated that God is not the author of evil, extends the real offer of salvation through the gospel to all, and created nobody for the purpose of damning them. I also find it clearly stated that the ONLY reason we repent is because of God enabling us. Yet only some are saved.  I believe that in an much anybody is saved is is ONLY becasue of God and His enabling.  In as much as the guilty are damned it is ONLY because of them and their punishable moral culpability.  There is something here regarding the will that is not clearly revealed - and therefore remains an objective mystery. Mysticism has nothing at all to contribute on the issue.  What has been made explicitly and objectively clear is that we are to preach the gospel to all who wil listen and God will save some.  The gospel is the only means that God has given us to offer His eternal life to a evil and perishing world.


Spen Lake

Post Edited (spenlake) : 10/8/2005 2:38:00 PM (GMT-5)

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JEE
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   Posted 10/8/2005 2:38 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Jeff,

I find it most helpful to think of "God is love" as referring to His omnibenevolence. Just as it is for the good of ALL that a society execute criminal justice whenever necessary, it is perfectly benevolent (the highest good of ALL) that God some day punish evildoers. Therefore the concept of God remaining loving while judging sin presents no problem.

John


May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.

JohnE

http://www.revivaltheology.net

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JEE
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   Posted 10/8/2005 2:41 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
spenlake said...
I see this concept of providence/forbearance as addressing at least the problem of evil in a way that certainly does not make God the author of evil or somehow secretly wishing it.


Hmmm...I really don't see how this follows, as you affirm God has always had exhaustive DEFINITE foreknowledge.


May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.

JohnE

http://www.revivaltheology.net

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Similitude
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   Posted 10/8/2005 3:15 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Spen: Of all the words I hate, "mystical" ranks right up there.

Jeff: What I'm saying is mystical is the idea that God can have EDF AND that there is true LFW. These seem to be contradictory unless we appeal to mystery. I wasn't trying to be offensive.  I have no problem with someone believing in EDF as long as a) they aren't dogmatic (unless they show me a compelling scriptural proof) and b) they concede that there really is LFW and that the co-existence of EDF and LFW is beyond our human capacity to understand.

John: I find it most helpful to think of "God is love" as referring to His omnibenevolence. Just as it is for the good of ALL that a society execute criminal justice whenever necessary, it is perfectly benevolent (the highest good of ALL) that God some day punish evildoers. Therefore the concept of God remaining loving while judging sin presents no problem.

Jeff:  Yes, I suppose that to the extent that future judgement actually deters people in this life, it does have a benevolent "result."  Although, it is not so obvious that future judgement exists for the PURPOSE of deterrence, as does human government.  Moreover, it is not JUDGEMENT that deters, it is the BELIEF in judgement that deters.  God's judgement could be based on ill-desert, independent of any deterrence it might cause.  Maybe not, though.  What think ye? 


 

Post Edited (jefscott) : 10/8/2005 5:42:04 PM (GMT-5)

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spenlake
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   Posted 10/8/2005 5:28 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.

Jeff: What I'm saying is mystical is the idea that God can have EDF AND that there is true LFW. These seem to be contradictory unless we appeal to mystery. I wasn't trying to be offensive.  I have no problem with someone believing in EDF as long as a) they aren't dogmatic (unless they show me a compelling scriptural proof) and b) they concede that there really is LFW and that the co-existence of EDF and LFW is beyond our human capacity to understand.

Spen:  Thank you.  Your above description is how I see it.  I confess, however, I am guilty of people calling me dogmatic...

When God tells someone specifically, "Depart from me, you workers of lawlessness, I never knew you," does He do this out of benevolence? I believe that justice is not necessarily benevolence and that wrath poured out upon sining sinners is not benevolence but wrath. Eternal judgment is not the same as discipline. Discipline looks forward to improvement after suffering. Judgment is final and the just retribution for our evil actions. This contrast between discipline/judgment is a parallel concept with forbearance. The outcome determines whether our suffering in this evil world was redemptive of just a precursor to an ultimate suffering without end or hope.


Spen Lake

Post Edited (spenlake) : 10/8/2005 5:46:56 PM (GMT-5)

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JEE
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   Posted 10/8/2005 7:22 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
I'm not referring to the deterrent influence of judgment per se, though the moral influence of a moral gov't is of course always an important consideration.

What I am saying is that for the finally unrepentant, Hell is the highest good (benevolence) that can be done for them. They would rather reign in hell than serve in heaven. They bring it upon themselves, just as a criminal brings upon himself the penalty that is due his crimes. God's wrath is not inconsistent with His benevolence any more than a police officer, judge, jury, and executioner are necessarily unbenevolent in meting out proper justice.


May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.

JohnE

http://www.revivaltheology.net

Post Edited (JEE) : 10/8/2005 7:25:39 PM (GMT-5)

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JEE
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Date Joined Jul 2004
Total Posts : 1466
 
   Posted 10/8/2005 7:27 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
jefscott said...
One more thought with respect to punishment being an act of benevolence. It would seem hard to argue that ETERNAL punishment for a substantial percentage of the human race is the "highest good of ALL" in any utilitarian sense in the way that govermental punishment is. And apart from a utilitarian sense, I don't know what the "highest good of ALL" even means.


If they never repent of their deeds in hell (and the Bible nowhere reveals that any do repent in Hell), then the most benevolent act that God can ever be doing for them is to continue to keep the universe safe from them by imprisoning them forever.


May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit.

JohnE

http://www.revivaltheology.net

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