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rb1963b
Registered Member
Date Joined Oct 2001
Total Posts : 93
| Posted 12/2/2001 4:27 AM (GMT -6) |   | Was re-reading Romans, noticed that David had stated that he wanted God to blind the eyes of those that rejected God so that they would not "see". NOW my question is this, why would he pray that prayer if it was impossible for them to "see" in the first place?
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RyanMartin
Registered Member
Date Joined Nov 2001
Total Posts : 19
| Posted 12/3/2001 5:17 AM (GMT -6) | | Could I have a chapter and verse please to see exactly to what you are speaking?
Ryan
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Jewgrass
Registered Member
Date Joined Sep 2001
Total Posts : 113
| Posted 12/3/2001 9:09 AM (GMT -6) | | We've kinda been discussing this over at the thread entitled "From Slaves of Sin to Slaves of God" over in the Theological Q&A section. Check it out.
--Jewgrass
"My religious belief teaches me to feel as safe in battle as in bed." -- General Stonewall Jackson | | Back to Top | | |
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rb1963b
Registered Member
Date Joined Oct 2001
Total Posts : 93
| Posted 12/3/2001 5:27 PM (GMT -6) | | Romans 11:10 Let their eyes be darkened, that they may not see, and bow down their back alway.
David is talking about the nation Israel here. But the implication still stands.
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