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PhilTheThrill
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   Posted 3/4/2004 5:39 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Hey hey,

I'm looking for a good survey of the problems with simple divine foreknowledge (basically the traditional arminian view). I'm relatively new to being an Open Theist (Greg converted me with an article in the last issue of Philisophia Christi) and I definitely understand the scriptural support and the philisophical support for the view. I'm now looking for reasons why it's a better alternative to the traditional two-party system.

I've got a good handle on OVT's advantages over Calvinism, but alot of people ask me "Okay, so you've shown why the calvinist view leaves alot to be desired, but why do we have to change the whole nature of the future and the way we've always thought about God? Why not just be an arminian?". My main point there is usually to bring up the idea of having a dynamic real time relationship with God and how the arminian view doesn't provide that. But I'm wondering if there are some more reasons why arminian theology falls short. Are there any articles you guys can point me to, or any arguments you use when talking to people?

Thanks,
Phil
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Alan Rhoda
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   Posted 3/4/2004 7:15 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Hey Phil,

I think a good book to start with is "The Openness of God", published by InterVarsity Press and edited, I believe, by Clark Pinnock. The chapter by Hasker explains why neither the simple foreknowledge nor the middle knowledge positions advocated by some Arminians are adequate. Sanders also goes into these issues in "The God Who Risks".

God bless,

Alan
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feelinahole
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   Posted 3/4/2004 7:53 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Doctor Boyd participates in a book Divine Foreknowledge: Four views which covers the subject as well.
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Starkman
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   Posted 3/5/2004 10:16 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Hey Phil,

Part of your post said this: but why do we have to change the whole nature of the future and the way we've always thought about God?

I think I know what you meant, unless this is exactly what you meant, but an Open Theist is not changing, or even attempting to change, the nature of the future. Further, Open Theists are not redefining Omniscience either. All we are doing is taking the perspective we feel Scripture best supports with regard to God's knowledge of the future; that He has not exaustively settled it all. Funny, but Arminians so often live and act in the world before men and God as if the future is not completely settled. I being a former Arminian would often pray "God, you know what's going to happen, and I just ask that .... I never felt comfortable with this, but I just went about my business and didn't think it through: What am I doing asking God for something if it's already known to God what He's going to do. I'm wasting time. And if He is able to answer my prayer, is it because He knew that on such-and-such date I'd be asking Him, so he worked it in to His plan? I mean, the more you work through these questions, the more things just don't fit with the way we live and act. Scripture, in the Open Theist's position, supports how we live and act; the future is not exhaustively settled.

As to "Well, can't we just go along the way we've always gone along?" Sure, because for many Arminians, they've been living, acting and praying as if the future is not completely settled. Fine with me!

Starkman
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Tiggers
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   Posted 3/5/2004 12:29 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Starkman Asserts,
“Further, Open Theists are not redefining Omniscience either. All we are doing is taking the perspective we feel Scripture best supports with regard to God's knowledge of the future; that He has not exhaustively settled it all.”

Tiggers’ Reply,
I agree with ya for the most part, but isn’t much of the disgruntlement by our fellow sisters and brothers with regards to the open view pertaining to our (i.e., open theists) very definition of omniscience? Don’t you think that when a hard Christian determinist proclaims God’s omniscience that she/he is actually meaning something quite different then what an open theist proclaims? For a hard determinist, soft determinist, and/or even an Arminian (i.e., as far as I understand them) all declare God to have perfect knowledge of all future actions NOT as possibilities, or probabilities but as pure fact. That is, God knows perfectly that x will do y in a particular situation (s) at a specific point in time (t), before it ever happens. Since God’s knowledge is perfect x will not be able to do anything but y in (s) at (t), dig? Now, as I understand it (I could be wrong) Open Theist’s would only assert that God knows as possible or probable that x will do y in (s) at (t)…you see, there are many variables that play into the mix, and for x to have libertarian free will God would only know as possible or probable what x would do in s at t. Now, if I recall correctly, I think some open theist’s (e.g., Meph, & TGB: I remember some thread that Meph started regarding his belief system, and holding to God working compatibilistically at times to achieve her/his goals…TGB asserted this was in the realm of open theism) believe God works through compatiblism at times to achieve her/his goals. I on the other hand, don’t understand how this could work at all; furthermore, I don’t understand the chess analogy regarding the sacrificing of the queen. I just don’t see God behind evil or having to guess at what is even evil in the first place because just maybe God caused the evil for a greater good…I just don’t see it yet. Was Zosia (God at War) for a greater good?

Ok, I’m ranting…sorry Starkman, anyways, my whole point was only to question, if in fact, Open Theist haven’t changed the traditional definition (since 3rd century A.D. anyways) regarding the understanding of God’s omniscience Bandit .

Warmly in Christ,
Tiggers


“The notion that God uses evils as a means to such higher goods is, … incompatible with the doctrine that he is omnipotent, and therefore does not need to use deplorable means to achieve his ends” (J.L. Mackie).

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PhilTheThrill
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   Posted 3/5/2004 1:10 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
Originally posted by Starkman

Hey Phil,

Part of your post said this: but why do we have to change the whole nature of the future and the way we've always thought about God?

I think I know what you meant, unless this is exactly what you meant, but an Open Theist is not changing, or even attempting to change, the nature of the future. Further, Open Theists are not redefining Omniscience either.


Yeah those are the first points I usually have to make to defend myself from charges of heresy (an ice cream guy at Baskin Robbin's called me a heretic when he overheard I was an OT!).

I think people's problem is that they see the OV as a more complicated theology, what with millions of possibilities and unsettled future and God "not knowing things" (their words). Arminianism is simple to articulate and doesn't usually require more than 5 minutes to explain. OVT take some time to tease out the important characteristics that make it both A) plausible and B) scriptural.

My whole question comes from the root of "How do I make the Open View appeal to an arminian when we both live the same way, just my theology is more intricate and complicated?". Not that OTers need to evangelize OVT per se, but rather, just what does OVT offer that arminianism can't compete with.

-Phil
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Alan Rhoda
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   Posted 3/5/2004 2:01 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
Just what does OVT offer that arminianism can't compete with?
For starters, how about internal coherence? Arminians believe in free will, but by teaching that the future is nevertheless exhaustively settled they ultimately either have to affirm both ends of contradiction (how can my future free choices be settled in advance and still be free?) and say that it's just a mystery how they can both be true, or they can try to circumvent the contradiction by resorting to counterintuitive devices like backward causation, backtracking counterfactuals, hard/soft facts, etc.

On the omniscience issue, when discussing open theism with others it is important to point out that the issue isn't over the FACT of omniscience (i.e., whether God knows all and only truths) but over the CONTENT of omniscience (i.e., what types of truths are there for God to know?). If the future is partly open, then to be omniscient God must know it as such. If the future is exhaustively settled, then to be omniscient God must know it as such. The fundamental issue, then, is not omniscience, but whether the future is exhaustively settled or partly open.

God bless,
Alan
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Starkman
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   Posted 3/6/2004 7:32 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Tigress,

You said, but isn’t much of the disgruntlement by our fellow sisters and brothers with regards to the open view pertaining to our (i.e., open theists) very definition of omniscience?

It is a matter of neither a different nature nor a redefining of the future that is the issue, as our good brother Alan has noted. This is so important for both the Open Theist to grasp as well as the non-Open Theist (say, how would you hyphentate that??). God is fully God in all the different camps; God knows all. What there is to know is the demarcation, not what knowing is!

Phil, you asked "How do I make the Open View appeal to an arminian when we both live the same way, just my theology is more intricate and complicated?". I think what you will find, more than any other element, causing an obsticle in your path when explaining the Open View is that people are scared of it. Oh, that may be neither what they say nor show, but as the rubber meets the road, it is often the unfounded fear that if God reeeeally doesn't know everything--EVERYTHING--(like even those things that aren't even there to know), well, then, how's He going to competently control everything? And that leads to a really elucidating truth among many who do not, or will not, believe in the Open View: they are not as grounded in the concept of omnipotence as they think they are (and yet, which is why they fight for an exhaustively settled future. I mean, if one really believes that God is omnipotent, one must believe so without the unspoken addendum "God must know everything--including what there is yet to know (viz., a future exhaustively settled) or He cannot be omnipotent." But this addendum is what often surfaces if you watch for it. For others, it is a bonified philosophically unsettling matter.

Poke around a bit in your discourses and see what you come up with. Ask questions like "Do you believe God could still control things just as capably if He didn't have exhaustive foreknowledge?" See what you get!

Starkman
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Tiggers
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   Posted 3/6/2004 2:30 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Hey Starkman & Alan,
By the way, Starkman, while I take it as a compliment, truly!…my pseudonym is Tiggers and not Tigress…I’m a different person. Thanks for you reply!

Starkman Asserts,
“God is fully God in all the different camps; God knows all. What there is to know is the demarcation, not what knowing is!”

Tiggers’ Reply,
I agree that all camps believe that “God knows all” but hasn’t the open theist definition of the word (i.e., what is considered to be understood as “all”) broke from the traditional understanding of the word itself…see below for what I mean.


Alan Asserts,
“On the omniscience issue, when discussing open theism with others it is important to point out that the issue isn't over the FACT of omniscience (i.e., whether God knows all and only truths) but over the CONTENT of omniscience (i.e., what types of truths are there for God to know?).”

Tiggers’ Reply,
I couldn’t agree with you more on this point!

Alan Asserts,
“If the future is partly open, then to be omniscient God must know it as such. If the future is exhaustively settled, then to be omniscient God must know it as such. The fundamental issue, then, is not omniscience, but whether the future is exhaustively settled or partly open.”

Tiggers’ Reply,
Ok, I think I’m following you here, but work with me, please. I totally see what you are saying here, but wouldn’t an evangelical hard Christian determinist, or Arminian proclaim that for God to be all knowing (i.e., omniscient) that that very word as it pertains to God would most unambiguously equate “exhaustively settled” (Traditionally that is). Traditionally, the word omniscience when referred to the Christian God by Christians has always (i.e., generally always) equated God knowing not just all of reality perfectly, but as perfectly settled. As William Lane Craig asserts, the Doc (i.e., open theists), “espouses a view that threatens to undermine divine omniscience…Since Boyd affirms divine omniscience and yet denies that God knows future contingents, he must hold that such propositions are not true. If such propositions are true, then Boyd’s view undermines divine omniscience” (Divine Foreknowledge, 55). Now, maybe I’m splitting hairs, but aren’t Open Theists redefining the generally accepted definition or idea behind the traditional understanding (i.e., definition) of omniscience by unsettling the future? Need help to understand this, sorry but sometimes I’m just thick headed Simp_Grandpa !

Warmly in Christ,
Tiggers


“The notion that God uses evils as a means to such higher goods is, … incompatible with the doctrine that he is omnipotent, and therefore does not need to use deplorable means to achieve his ends” (J.L. Mackie).

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Alan Rhoda
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   Posted 3/6/2004 8:59 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
Originally posted by Tiggers

Traditionally, the word omniscience when referred to the Christian God by Christians has always (i.e., generally always) equated God knowing not just all of reality perfectly, but as perfectly settled. As William Lane Craig asserts, the Doc (i.e., open theists), “espouses a view that threatens to undermine divine omniscience…Since Boyd affirms divine omniscience and yet denies that God knows future contingents, he must hold that such propositions are not true. If such propositions are true, then Boyd’s view undermines divine omniscience” (Divine Foreknowledge, 55). Now, maybe I’m splitting hairs, but aren’t Open Theists redefining the generally accepted definition or idea behind the traditional understanding (i.e., definition) of omniscience by unsettling the future?
Good question, Tiggers. It is important to distinguish between God's being omniscient and God's having exhaustive foreknowledge. For God to be omniscient is just for God to know all and only truths, as Craig admits. For God to have exhaustive foreknowledge is for God always to have known exactly which states of affairs would obtain at every moment in the future. Now, in Craig's view, omniscience entails exhaustive foreknowledge. That's why he thinks that open theism, in denying the latter must implicitly deny the former. But omniscience entails exhaustive foreknowledge only on the assumption that the future is exhaustively settled. Why is that? Well, suppose that the future is not exhaustively settled. Suppose, as open theists claim, that it is partly open. In that case God's being omniscient would not entail his having exhaustive foreknowledge, but rather his knowing the future as partly open. Thus, if the future is partly open, then God does not have exhaustive foreknowledge (because there is not exhautively settled future to foreknow), but he is still omniscient. That is why the fundamental issue in the debate over open theism is not omniscience but the nature of the future--is it exhaustively settled, or it is partly open? Craig's charge that open theism implicitly denies omniscience by denying exhaustive foreknowledge begs the question against open theism, for it rests on the assumption that the future is exhaustively settled, which is the very claim that open theism denies.

Hope that clears things up. God bless.

Alan
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Tiggers
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   Posted 3/7/2004 7:39 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Hey Alan,
Thanks for your response! You’re probably, when reading this, going to be shaking your head thinking Furious , “but I was so clear to Tiggers, how could she/he be so difficult or slow?” Anyways, please stick with me on this one, and if you like, think of me as one of those obnoxious students that you will no doubt have to deal with in your teaching career. Holla back when you get the chance, thanks Alan!

Alan Asserts,
“Good question, Tiggers. It is important to distinguish between God's being omniscient and God's having exhaustive foreknowledge. For God to be omniscient is just for God to know all and only truths, as Craig admits.

Tiggers’ Reply,
Ok, now I understand. Are there any traditionalist who would disagree with Craig’s acceptance of this definition for God’s omniscience?

Alan Asserts,
“For God to have exhaustive foreknowledge is for God always to have known exactly which states of affairs would obtain at every moment in the future. Now, in Craig's view, omniscience entails exhaustive foreknowledge. That's why he thinks that open theism, in denying the latter must implicitly deny the former.”

Tigger’s Reply,
Ok, you’re loosing me here a bit. Didn’t Craig just agree with Open Theists and the definition of omniscience above (e.g., “For God to be omniscient is just for God to know all and only truths, as Craig admits.”)? This kind of brings me back full circle to my original reply to Starkman and all, i.e., Open Theist’s may have actually changed the definition of omniscience when referring to God’s use of it because for Craig omniscience entails exhaustive foreknowledge with regards to the future being exhaustively settled, and I would think many others would proclaim the equality of omniscience with exhaustive foreknowledge of all settled truths; hence, this seems to be the reason Craig charges that open theism implicitly denies omniscience, right?

Alan Asserts,
“But omniscience entails exhaustive foreknowledge only on the assumption that the future is exhaustively settled. Why is that? Well, suppose that the future is not exhaustively settled. Suppose, as open theists claim, that it is partly open. In that case God's being omniscient would not entail his having exhaustive foreknowledge, but rather his knowing the future as partly open. Thus, if the future is partly open, then God does not have exhaustive foreknowledge (because there is not exhaustively settled future to foreknow), but he is still omniscient. That is why the fundamental issue in the debate over open theism is not omniscience but the nature of the future--is it exhaustively settled, or it is partly open? Craig's charge that open theism implicitly denies omniscience by denying exhaustive foreknowledge begs the question against open theism, for it rests on the assumption that the future is exhaustively settled, which is the very claim that open theism denies.”

Tiggers’ Reply,
Ok, see if I understand this correctly…

Traditionalist Proclaim
For God to be OMNISCIENT God must know perfectly the future as exhaustively settled or closed.

Open Theist Proclaim
For God to be OMNISCIENT God need only know all and only truths; furthermore, these truths would include knowing the future as partly open as opposed to exhaustively settled.

Now, I agree full heartedly with the open theist’s definition, and I’m fully against the traditionalist assumption, but given these two definitions of omniscience, don’t we see them as incompatible with each other (at least this is my confusion)? Sooo, I guess what I’m trying to split hairs over is that their (i.e., traditionalists) faulty assumption (as faulty as it is) still plays a part in the very definition of omniscience due to the fact that this is the way that omniscience has traditionally been defined or assumed. Now, don’t read me wrong here, I personally believe, as you, that their definition begins with an assumption, which guides them to their unsound conclusion. I’m wondering though, when doing dialog with traditionalists, wouldn’t they assume (though wrongly) that are definition of God’s omniscience is different, or evolved? And if this or my assumption is correct wouldn’t it be ok to say !yes! As an Open Theist I am proclaiming an evolved or better definition of omniscience as it pertains to God?

Warmly in Christ,
Tiggers Researching



“The notion that God uses evils as a means to such higher goods is, … incompatible with the doctrine that he is omnipotent, and therefore does not need to use deplorable means to achieve his ends” (J.L. Mackie).

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borg
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   Posted 3/8/2004 8:11 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
"Beyond the Bounds" edited by John Piper, Paul Helseth, Justin Taylor.


"So it is a more glorious work of power to uphold a soul in a state of grace and holiness, and to carry it on till it is brought to glory, when there is so much sin remaining in the heart resisting, and Satan with all his might opposing, than it would have been to have kept manfrom falling at first, when Satan had nothing in man." Edwards

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feelinahole
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   Posted 3/8/2004 10:13 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
What specifically were you refering to about "Beyond The Bounds?" A glance of the chapters in it reveals that it covers a wide range of issues.
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Tiggers
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   Posted 3/8/2004 10:40 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Hey Borg,

What exactly are you asserting by placing a book title on the thread? If you have something to say on the topic, well, I would love to hear it, truly! I don't have time to read a whole book to figure out what your trying to proclaim, sorry!

Warmly in Christ,
Tiggers


“The notion that God uses evils as a means to such higher goods is, … incompatible with the doctrine that he is omnipotent, and therefore does not need to use deplorable means to achieve his ends” (J.L. Mackie).

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Tom
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   Posted 3/8/2004 8:25 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Phil-

Ask your Arminian friends to give you an example of God DOING something with the type of foreknowledge they believe God possesses. For example, ask them if God is able to USE such knowledge of the future to a) avoid some undesired foreknown evil event, b) bring about some desired event, c) prophesy the future, or d) provide guidance. It will take some time, but hopefully your friends will realize that Arminian foreknowledge provides God no providential advantage whatsoever over a God who doesn't possess such knowledge. There is nothing a God possessing such foreknowledge can do that the God of open theism cannot also do.

It's the perceived comfort that we get from God knowing everything in the sense your friends believe that's the issue really. And when they see that this sense of trust and comfort is baseless, hopefully they'll abandon it. We still trust, we just cannot trust because God knows the future in the sense Arminians have classically argued.

Tom
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 3/9/2004 7:12 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
Originally posted by TGB

provides God no providential advantage whatsoever over a God who doesn't possess such knowledge.


But how is "our" idea of "advantage" an appropriate standard? By what framework do "we" judge that advantage, and who are we to make that claim?
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feelinahole
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   Posted 3/9/2004 8:41 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
By the flamework that humans judge things. Are you saying you are God, and can make a judgment as God would?
In making such a claim, you are, of course, eliminating your own judgment. Your words eliminate anyone saying anything about God except God, because only God has the frame of reference that you require.
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Tiggers
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   Posted 3/10/2004 7:19 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
Originally posted by feelinahole

By the flamework that humans judge things. Are you saying you are God, and can make a judgment as God would?
In making such a claim, you are, of course, eliminating your own judgment. Your words eliminate anyone saying anything about God except God, because only God has the frame of reference that you require.



Tiggers' Reply Bandit ,
Thanks for your reply echo, truly; however, I feel that Feelinahole speaks the truth when she/he proclaims, "Your [echo] words eliminate anyone saying anything about God except God, because only God has the frame of reference that you require." Now, echo, at what point is God speaking and humanity speaking when reading the Scriptures (I’m sure I’ll be kicked out of the Evangelical world for sure now…ouch Evil); furthermore, if I were to take echo's logic and be consistent with it, could I not further argue that echo is begging the question by making a truth claim about God (e.g., by proclaiming humanity can't say anything about God is, in fact, saying something about God, himself/herself, dig?)! Think about what is being asserted here...by saying nothing can be said about God by humans due to the frame of reference is actually asserting quite a great deal about God. But, what is it really saying? It’s proclaiming an unknowable God. Think about it, what about church creeds, like that of the apostles, or the Doctrine of the Holy Trinity, doctrines of salvation, humanity, the Church, etc. none of these could legitimately proclaimed as truth by humanity due to the frame of reference. Anyways, I loved TGB's advice and am just hoping the advice is taken to heart, remember to always discuss in love and God bless!

Warmly in Christ,
Tiggers King


“The notion that God uses evils as a means to such higher goods is, … incompatible with the doctrine that he is omnipotent, and therefore does not need to use deplorable means to achieve his ends” (J.L. Mackie).

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rossfadeinout
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   Posted 3/10/2004 7:54 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Good word Tiggers!

Ross


"Let us remember how common the folly is of going from one faulty extreme into the opposite." -Thomas Reid

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rossfadeinout
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   Posted 3/10/2004 8:14 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Hey PhillTheThrill,

We had a good thread going a while back where i was asking about problems for the view of Divine Timelessness (my understanding of "classical Arminianism")

Tom earlier said
quote:
Ask your Arminian friends to give you an example of God DOING something with the type of foreknowledge they believe God possesses. For example, ask them if God is able to USE such knowledge of the future to a) avoid some undesired foreknown evil event, b) bring about some desired event, c) prophesy the future, or d) provide guidance. It will take some time, but hopefully your friends will realize that Arminian foreknowledge provides God no providential advantage whatsoever over a God who doesn't possess such knowledge. There is nothing a God possessing such foreknowledge can do that the God of open theism cannot also do.



In it, Tom was gracious enough to post an essay that he had written fleshing out his position. I'm gonna post a copy of what he wrote to me there (I hope thats OK with Tom)

TOM'S PREVIOUS POST... (4-11-2003)
quote:
For those needing a bit more pain in their lives, here’s a bit of something I submitted to my leadership last year in a paper (by the way, Laika, I liked your comment, “Declaring I’ll wear socks tomorrow doesn’t mean I see the future”!):

-----------------

[Note: There’s some of Doc and others in here. You’ll see it. I actually did footnote it where necessary in the printed version of this, but I took all that out for posting it here.]

What of the popular claim made by many Arminians that God simply “previews” (as it were) all of history? He doesn’t determine or cause all that happens, he simply “sees” it timelessly. On this view, our choices are free in the libertarian sense (viz., we could do other than we do), but God sees them timelessly and so eternally knows all that will ever come to pass. I’m personally unable to hold to such a view of God’s foreknowledge for several reasons:

First, it is incompatible with libertarian free will. Though there are those who argue that no contradiction exists in the claim that God eternally foreknows as definite our free choices, I’m inclined to side with those who argue otherwise.


Secondly, I believe it to be unscriptural. Scripture portrays God as sometimes “changing his mind” in response to human actions, expecting what does not come to pass (e.g., Isa. 5.1-4; Jer. 3.6-7, 19-20), speaking conditionally about the future (e.g., Ex. 13.17; Jer. 26), and testing people “to know” what is in their hearts. However, if the future is eternally settled in the mind of God, it becomes impossible, in my view, to understand such descriptions as truthful depictions of God’s relatedness to us and we are left with no option but to view God’s speaking in such ways as disingenuous.


Thirdly, the simple-foreknowledge model affords no providential value whatsoever. If God timelessly knows all of history in the sense argued by advocates of simple-foreknowledge, then he knows his own as well as our choices, and he knows them in one single, timeless sweep. He does not acquire this knowledge in stages; he timelessly possesses it as an attribute. In this case, simple-foreknowledge provides God no providential advantage in governing the universe for the simple reason that God cannot intervene into the story line of history on the basis of such knowledge or access such knowledge in an attempt to determine what his own actions are to be. This includes attempting to prevent undesired events or to bring about what he does desire, warning and guiding people, and prophesying future events. What is foreknown, according to this view, is what actually happens and by definition is already the result of whatever has or has not been done to influence it. Such knowledge cannot then also be the basis of such interaction for the simple reason that this knowledge comes to God too late (logically speaking) for God to use it to influence outcomes.

For example, let us say God timelessly knows that Susan will be in a fatal car accident on her 21st birthday. Granted, this knowledge does not cause her death or determine her choice to go driving with her friends. We’re only talking here about whether or not timelessly definite foreknowledge provides God a basis upon which he is able to act providentially. Can God use his knowledge of Susan’s death to warn Susan not to go driving? Can God act in a miraculous way to prevent this accident? In fact, can God do anything on the basis of his knowledge that Susan will die to prevent her from dying? The answer to these questions is, of course, that God cannot intervene on the basis of simple-foreknowledge in order to prevent this event from happening. Since God’s foreknowledge is infallible, what he foreknows will happen will indeed happen. Not even God can act in order to change what he infallibly knows will come to pass. Simple-foreknowledge, if it existed, would be useless to God in preventing foreknown evil and other undesired events.

The same thing applies to God’s acting to bring about some event he wishes should happen. Why? Because by the time God foreknows what will happen, it’s logically too late to make use of this knowledge in order to bring about this event. The foreknown event is already the result of whatever divine influence contributed to bringing it about. It cannot also be the basis of that influence. On the simple-foreknowledge view, everything that God knows he knows timelessly. He doesn’t gain his knowledge of the future in stages. Therefore, if God were to timelessly possess exhaustively definite knowledge of past, present, and future, such knowledge could not provide him a basis upon which to determine how to act in ways not also timelessly foreknown by him. Thus, there is nothing a God who possesses simple-foreknowledge can do that a God who does not possess such foreknowledge cannot also do. In truth, whatever might be the reciprocal nature of the relationship between God’s actions and ours within the foreknowledge of God, the simple-foreknowledge model offers us no help whatsoever in understanding it. In my exposure to advocates of simple-foreknowledge, it appears the chief reason they hold to this model is because of the perceived providential advantage they believe it gives God and the perceived basis for trust in God they believe it gives them. But once the providential uselessness of simple-foreknowledge is faced, and the providential advantage of infinite intelligence (to be discussed immediately) is understood, one can continue trusting God with the added benefit of not having to embrace beliefs which explain nothing.


Lastly, the integrity of divine-human relations and God’s knowledge of tensed facts require, in my view, the abandonment of the timeless view of God in favor of temporal eternity. God engages in real relations with a changing temporal world and has perfect knowledge of tensed facts. These entail his being temporal. I would also argue, though the open view does not require it, that the integrity of God’s triune personhood suggests there is in some sense of the words a “before” and an “after” that characterize God’s own inner triune life irrespective of his relating to creation—the eternal, loving fellowship that exists between Father, Son, and Spirit and that constitutes God’s own experience and enjoyment of himself. God is not an “eternal, unblinking, cosmic stare”; he is from eternity actively self-related and personal.


[Note: As I said, I no longer find it necessary to even have an opinion on the mode of God’s existence prior to (or in the absence of) creation. My “hunch” is that God was not absolutely timeless prior to creation, and I state here the reasons why. Craig has me doubting this a bit while Nick Wolterstorff freed me up to not give a rip!]

…Does God play chess? There are three reasons for believing this is a good analogy of the way God relates to us:

First, as we’ve already seen, if God possessed timeless knowledge of every move I make in life, it would do him no good. He could not use this knowledge to strategize, plan, or respond to any of my moves, for every move he ever makes is equally foreknown in the one timeless act of knowing. Timeless knowledge is providentially useless.


Secondly, in the open view, possibilities give God room to move and act, room which timeless knowledge cannot provide. It accounts for how we actually live our lives and relate to God as well as for how God is able to act providentially in the world.


Thirdly, God’s glory and greatness are increased if we understand him as infinitely intelligent and facing a partly open future. Who is more glorious? A God who timelessly faces a future he can do nothing about or a God who achieves his purposes by perfectly knowing and preparing for all possible futures? Who do we admire more? A chess player who plays you with a computer printout of all the moves you will make, or a chess player who, facing genuine novelty as the game proceeds, and perfectly attending to every possible move and the constantly changing probabilities, is nevertheless creative and resourceful enough to guarantee the final victory? I’m genuinely surprised that anyone would call into question the orthodoxy of somebody who chooses to believe the latter describes the greater God.
Lastly, as amazing as it may seem, the simple-foreknowledge model seems to me to be…

…nothing more than pre-recorded open theism!

Consider, the simple-foreknowledge model believes that we live in a world where God really responds to us, where we are really free to choose, where our prayers really make a difference to God, and where things might sometimes really be different than they are. Open theists also believe we live in this kind of world. The only difference is that advocates of simple-foreknowledge believe that everything about this world exists eternally in God’s mind, and their trust in God’s providential care rests in this being the case. But I ask, what difference would such knowledge make to God? What difference would it make to the world? What providential advantage would God gain by possessing this kind of knowledge as opposed to foreknowledge of all possible story lines? None whatsoever. And if such knowledge is of no practical value to God, believing that he possesses such knowledge is of no practical value to us.

Tom


Tom's thoughts were very helpful to me, so I thought I would share it with you.

Ross


"Let us remember how common the folly is of going from one faulty extreme into the opposite." -Thomas Reid

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Tom
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   Posted 3/10/2004 9:16 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:
Originally posted by echo

quote:
Originally posted by TGB

provides God no providential advantage whatsoever over a God who doesn't possess such knowledge.


But how is "our" idea of "advantage" an appropriate standard? By what framework do "we" judge that advantage, and who are we to make that claim?
Excellent issue to talk about, echo. But before we talk about it, tell me first whether or not I'm correctly understanding you to be conceding my point: traditional Arminian foreknowledge provides God no providential advantage as far as WE can tell; God cannot make use of such knowledge. Are you conceding this much?

Tom
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