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| Open Theism Discussion Board > Public Forums > Let’s solve the problem of evil > Freedom to choose love outweighing evil... | Forum Quick Jump
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|  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 6/14/2003 12:56 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote: The OV thinks the Bible is expressing a real truth about God's mind when He says in Gen. 6 that "He was sorry that he had made man."
Yeah, that's the problem, all right. TOV says that mankind can know something which no view before it ever said could be known!!!
Taking what I pulled for this quote, and examining it a bit...
1. "thinks the Bible is expressing a real truth" is just fine!!! The Bible is NOT presenting falsehood or deception.
2. But taked to mean (which appears how it was meant above) that "the Bible is expressing ... God's mind" presents a problem. One that history might question us on! How can WE know God's mind the way God knows his mind??? We can't.
3. When the Bible express[es] real truth in Gen. 6, that "He was sorry that he had made man." it is truth -- BUT IN A FORM THAT WE CAN HANDLE!!! | | Back to Top | | |
 |  John Earp Registered Member
 Date Joined Oct 2002 Total Posts : 1715 | Posted 6/14/2003 12:57 PM (GMT -6) |   | RD
OK Earp - I agree with what you're saying - how can God be sorry for something he knew the result of? Yes, that doesn't make much sense. But neither does saying that God had no idea what would happen as a result of his creation!
John
Again, it seems to me that you are ignoring a very important aspect in OVT (at least as explained by Dr. Boyd). That is, God's absolute intelligence, which would, by definition, necessarily mean that God knew all the possibilities for good or evil that might occur. And so your statement, "...God had no idea what would happen" does not follow from OVT.
It seems much more reasonable to think of God's regrets as in fact real, not figurative, and that it could have gone differently.
"The Discovery of new truth will modify old views and opinions, and there is perhaps no end to this process with finite minds in any world." Charles G. Finney, Systematic Theology.
revivaltheology.net
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 |  ReasonableDoubt Registered Member
 Date Joined Jan 2003 Total Posts : 655 | Posted 6/14/2003 1:03 PM (GMT -6) |   | | Well then, God's absolute intelligence is pretty poor! You're telling me that he waited until Noah to decide that he was sorry he made man? After Cain killed his brother? Why didn't he at that time say, hey, I screwed up, I'm sorry I started this human experiment. He waits until things get completely out o f hand, and then decides to destroy everythgin save Noah. (in the process killing several innocent babies and animals, etc.) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 6/14/2003 1:19 PM (GMT -6) |   | John's words fit what is often said in the OV debate: "It seems much more reasonable to think of God's regrets as in fact real, not figurative, and that it could have gone differently."
BUT, it seems to beg saying that the degree of God's knowledge woud NOT be the primary thrust of the passage. (To take it that way seems a horrible way to approach the narrative.) "Regret" also carries the message that what happened is so far from what God's will was, both as he created the world by his Logos and as his mediators (those entrusted to till and tend, and to be priests before him) were intended to live. REGRET speaks to that! That's the primary message. It is said for us in a way that we can handle it: with emotion.
But just as we know that God's BEING was not "hurt" by the fall (Though Personally God "suffered" in that those he loved suffered--and God suffers with us.), we can also say quite well that the Genesis passage is NOT a revelation of God's "internal" mind. (It is revelation; not evesdropping.)
PoW
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 |  Leila Registered Member
 Date Joined Apr 2003 Total Posts : 93 | Posted 6/14/2003 2:17 PM (GMT -6) |   | Hello again Starkman,
I agree with many of the points that are being made to support the OV, esp. those that are scripturally supported – that God made a lot of “if/then” statements in the Bible, expressed sorrow over the state of his creation, etc.
What I am having difficulty accepting, however, is that how much free will we truly have. In response to my question:
quote: Can you, as an Open Theist, concede that is is possible that perhaps your choices to eat or think certain thoughts are not truly free; that your perception that you have a choice in such matters is just illusory; that your genetics, culture, upbringing, age, etc. are not just influencing factors with respect to these actions, but are in fact determining factors?
You responded:
quote: Heavens no. Can you concede such? Lets, again, put your question into a statement:
My choices of what I eat and think are not my choices at all but are illusions of choice. My genetics, culture, upbringing, age, etc., do not influence me, because if I have no choices in these matters, there are no influences; there are only determined factors [for "factors" we'll have to use another word: events].
Does this sound like reality and life as we live it? Is there any reason whatsoever to think that when I make a choice I'm not really making a choice?
I just don't see how you can know, simply based on your experiencing a choice as a choice, that you were truly free to do so? Say I ask you what you would like to eat for dinner tonight. Of course, the possible options you have to choose from are numerous. But ultimately, say you choose steak. Why? Perhaps because you are protein deficient; you saw an Outback commercial on TV that made your mouth water; you've been on a diet and you haven't had steak in along time, etc.
Now you would probably say that those are merely influencing factors, but not determining factors. But how can you say that with any certainty? Sure, you could choose other than steak, but then that alternate choice could also be influenced by purely external factors. As RD said:
quote: ...all determinism holds is that for every effect, there is a cause. Every choice, is caused. It doesn't deny choice.
You gave the example of God giving Adam choices. But just because there may be true choices in some areas, perhaps other choices that we feel are free really are not.
Now, I haven't studied this enough to have a firm opinion either way. But I just don't understand why we can't say that many of our actions are purely determined outside of our will - even though we may feel they are free choices (such as the food we eat or the profession we choose)-- yet still accept that we have free will in other areas (such as those that are specifically referred to in the Bible).
I'm not trying to sound antagonistic about this, it's just that I haven't been convinced either way yet. I'm just humbly asking the questions. Thanks for your patience with me.
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 |  ReasonableDoubt Registered Member
 Date Joined Jan 2003 Total Posts : 655 | Posted 6/14/2003 3:37 PM (GMT -6) |   | | Hey Leila! I would recommend reading some Jonathan Edwards (I know I know - NOT a popular theologian, but nonetheless ...) on how the will acts according to the strongest motive to each individual. It is , actually, impossible to act opposed to the strongest motive, bc by definition, whatever the strongest motive is, will compel one to "choose" or act in accordance with that motive. pretty interesting. | | Back to Top | | |
 |  anewbeginning Registered Member
 Date Joined Jan 2002 Total Posts : 88 | Posted 6/15/2003 3:36 AM (GMT -6) |   | John:
Regarding an "age of acoutability", I know this idea is more palatable than the alterantive but how can you claim we are born innocent?
Psalm 51:5
"Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me."
Psalm 58:3
"The wicked are estranged from the womb; those who speak lies go astray from birth."
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 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 6/15/2003 6:06 AM (GMT -6) |   | Hi all-
Nice thoughts everyone. I don’t have a lot of time this month, but I’m trying to drop in once in a while. So, let me respond to RD’s opening post first.
RD suggested that if we “grant complete OV freedom (which means no deterministic or middle knowledge)” the scenario comes down to this: “God has decided that human freedom to choose love is more morally important than preventing all, or most, evil. So he has an objectively good reason to allow evil, that the greater good (ie, love) is obtained. This greater good outweighs the evil and thus justifies it.”
A few thoughts in response:
First, let’s not call libertarian, or self-determining, free will “OV freedom,” which suggests that open theists view morally responsible freedom in a way unique from other Arminians (which of course they don’t). The belief that we possess self-determining free will is ancient. That doesn’t make it a right belief, but it at least doesn’t tie it to the fate of open theism.
Secondly, libertarian freedom doesn’t mean “no deterministic…knowledge.” It only means “not only-determining knowledge.” God may determine a great many things. It’s just “eternally and unconditionally determined morally responsible choices” that is self-contradictory. Actually, some open theists grant that God may conceivably be determining everything about our lives if he wants to (our choices about who we marry, what vocation we pursue, the car we drive, the food we eat, whether we win or lose at chess, practically everything); it’s really only the choice to reject or accept Christ which must ultimately be a self-determining one if our destinies rest upon it. Others may add that our morally significant choices in general must ultimately be self-determining while everything else can be determined. I’m not arguing for or against either, I’m just saying that self-determining free will does not mean “nothing is determined.”
Thirdly, if we grant self-determining free will, this doesn’t boil down to the scenario RD suggests, namely, that God decided that “human freedom to choose love is more morally important than preventing all, or most, evil.” It’s not our freedom which God is after; it’s our love that he wants. I’m not nit-picking here. This is an important distinction. It’s “love” itself, not “freedom,” that is morally superior to all else. Self-determining free will is simply the metaphysical requirement of love.
So, instead of boiling down to “freedom to choose love is morally superior than preventing all or even most evil,” I’d suggest that an open theist might believe that “love is superior to all else” and then simply ask, “What does love require?”
But we’re still left with a good question: Is the possibility of our freely loving or not loving God superior to God’s guaranteeing that evil never exists? When I boil all the options down, I come away thinking that God apparently thought so. God could have guaranteed that evil never exist by simply not creating. There’s a sure-fire guarantee. Or God could have created angels and us and still guaranteed that evil not exist by not giving angels and us the capability, the freedom, to commit evil. That’s another sure-fire way of avoiding evil. We know God did neither of these because we and angels are here and evil exists.
Looks like we have two options: One—God wanted evil to exist for some reason, so he determined it, along with determining everything else that happens in the universe. Two—God didn’t want evil to exist; he wanted only love to exist. But since not even God can preprogram creatures to love him, and since love is what God is and what God is after, God gave us the sort of freedom that our loving him requires: self-determining free will. This means evil is “possible.” God can no longer guarantee that evil will not occur. Of course, the possibility, I would argue, doesn’t mean evil is guaranteed either. It only means evil’s non-existence is no longer guaranteed.
Assuming on statistical grounds that some evil will occur, open theists still have to answer an important question: Is a world in which God is freely loved by some humans but in which evil will inevitably occur, superior to a world in which God can never be freely loved but in which evil will certainly never occur?
I’m more comfortable with answering this last question “yes” (and more confident about living consistently with this “yes” in the face of all the questions I can’t answer) than I am with answering it “no.”
Now, RD suggests that the open view essentially argues that our loving God “outweighs evil and justifies it.” I’m not sure I’d word it this way because I don’t think anything justifies evil. To say evil is “possible” is not to say evil has a “just” reason for existing. Our loving God explains the existence of evil. It doesn’t justify it.
Do we not all already agree that the possibility of a person's loving and doing good is morally superior to the impossibility of their not loving and doing evil? Indeed we do. Every time we choose to have children we affirm that love is worth risking even eternal consequences. Every day parents decide to have children in spite of the possibility that they won’t turn out as hoped and in so doing declare that they believe love is worth the risk. We have children in spite of knowing they “may” be raped, murdered, or worse still, become rapists or murderers. We have them in spite of the possibility they “may” refuse our and God’s love and suffer eternally for it. What right do we have to bring a life into the world facing such risks? Yet we have them. Why? We have them because we deem the possibility of genuine love worth the risk, and because of the possibilities of their bringing about good in the world. If freely chosen love is even part of why God chose to create, then risks by definition cannot be avoided. This is a good thing.
RD: But, if God cannot know the future free acts of humans, how can he be sure that this objective of greater good will be obtained?
Tom: I don’t think he can if you mean absolute assurance. I have to admit that however small the possibility, it was “possible” that nobody would love God. But I think this is about as possible as my ten year old son’s defeating Kasparov in a game of chess. It’s technically possible I suppose, but not probable at all. When the odds are so greatly in your favor we usually say it’s not possible. But you know me. I like to be accurate! I think God was confident enough in himself as LOVE to know that he would have a bride for Christ. But this confidence is not the absolute confidence that follows from predetermining the outcome. It’s the confidence of Kasparov facing my son, or of Michael Jordan playing Greg Boyd in basketball, that is, it’s the confidence of the abilities one possesses. Remember: “Love believes all things. Hopes all things.”
RD: Is it morally defensible for him to continue to create humans, and not step in to prevent evil, if he can't be sure that the greater good will be obtained at all?
Tom: Why have children if you can’t guarantee that they’ll pursue good? I think God does “step in” to prevent evil. When an evil occurs, I say to myself two things: 1) “God didn’t want this to happen,” and 2) “God did all he could to prevent this given all the factors involved.” I trust his love.
RD: Under the OV, however, it appears that God cannot know that all will sin…
Tom: Just for the sake of argument, where does the Bible say that “all WILL sin and fall short of God’s glory”? Nowhere. It of course says all “have sinned and fallen short.” And that’s not difficult to know. Should we be afraid that somebody will manage to freely choose their way through life sinlessly and not stand in need of grace? Listen to us, now we’re afraid of how our choosing RIGHTLY will screw things up for God. How convoluted can ya get? OK, so what. It’s my view that it’s not our sin that creates our need of God’s grace or the fundamental requirement of faith and trust in God. It’s our finite humanity that creates this need. We are created by God to need God. Self-determining free will isn’t freedom to be independent of God, the freedom to live perfectly independently of a trusting relationship to God. Had Adam never sinned, he would still stand in need of grace. He would still need to believe, to trust. So, do I think somebody will come along who manages to choose rightly all through life and so never sin? I don’t think it’ll happen, but I’m coming closer to granting that it is at least a possibility. Do I think this person, should they show up, would by virtue of never sinning, win heaven apart from Christ? Certainly not. Christ is God’s revelation of love. Even sinless people would NEED him.
Now you can throw stones at me!
Now, I could grant (with other open theists) that we are born in sin and our sinning is inevitable. But why couldn't this inevitability be explained as the chances a finite human has being born into a hopelessly sinful world? Or why cannot we understand it, like the rise of human sin to begin with, on statistical grounds? In this case any single choice we face we are able to do other than we do, though over the course of time and choices, our finiteness will eventually slip up.
RD: God cannot know how everyone will choose to exercise their freedom.
Tom: But I think God can, given the crappy world we live in, know that everybody will eventually blow it.
RD: You can't get away with it by saying he creates people with an inclination to sin or a sinful nature…
Tom: Certainly not. That would implicate God in their sin.
RD: Finally, if God cannot know what '"percentages" will obtain - ie, the ratio of loving choices over evil ones - he is taking a big , perhaps negligent risk of allowing as much moral evil as he does. B/c he can't then know that greater good will obtain.
Tom: He can know the greater good will obtain because he’s confident in the superiority and power of love.
If there are any percentages, God knows them, otherwise he wouldn’t be omniscient.
I’m not sure what you mean by “the ratio of loving choices over evil ones.” But I do think God took a real risk in creating us with self-determining freedom. Oh yes. Was this negligent? I don’t think so. It’s not negligent for human beings to have children who might screw up, why would it be for God, who knows more and is more capable than us? So unless you’re prepared to condemn every parent in the world, I’d suggest you not worry that any risk God feels comfortable making might be negligent.
Tom 
Edited by - TGB on 06/15/2003 3:20:11 PM | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Starkman Registered Member

Date Joined Oct 2001 Total Posts : 1747 | Posted 6/15/2003 9:18 AM (GMT -6) |   | Leila,
quote: I just don't see how you can know, simply based on your experiencing a choice as a choice [emphasis Starkman's], that you were truly free to do so? Say I ask you what you would like to eat for dinner tonight. Of course, the possible options you have to choose from are numerous. But ultimately, say you choose steak. Why? Perhaps because you are protein deficient; you saw an Outback commercial on TV that made your mouth water; you've been on a diet and you haven't had steak in along time, etc.
Experiencing choice as a choice. Exactly. If it smells like a dog, barks like a dog, acts like a dog, eats like a dog, is called a dog by everyone else (okay, there might be ONE person who doesn't think it's a dog), why question if it's a dog or not? I mean, this is how we live; we get out of bed and choose what we're going to wear--whether we're influenced or not, it is ultimately an act of choosing: "hmm, I think I'll wear the ... no, better yet, I'll wear the ...." This kind of language is brought to the level of meaningless if we don't except the concept of choice (and statements reflecting such) as being what they mean.
We choose what we will or will not eat for breakfast. We choose whether our coffee will have sugar or no sugar in it. (Remember, this is assuming no one [or nothing] is controlling us and prohibiting our option to choose.) This is how we live every day, and we seldom question it. We simply choose. So why treat the act of choosing as something (possibly) different than what it clearly presents itself to be anymore than how we decide that a dog really is a dog? What evidence is there that should cause us to say, "Hmm, maybe I'm not really choosing here; maybe something invisible, like God, is really making me choose what I can wear, what I can eat, what I can say or not say, do or not do." That's just not how we live. Best to accept something for what it seems to be unless given evidence otherwise. Nothing wrong with searching, but there is something wrong if we conclude that something really isn't what it is if we have found no evidence to warrant having ... chosen that it is not what it seems to be!
Now, please know that I'm aware of those circumstances that can be byond someone's power of choice (or if they choose otherwise, they could be in big trouble; like choosing not to take your medicine). But this is not in every single situation of chooce with which we are presented . And if it's not in every single situation of choice, then truly there is freedom of choice in some circumstances. And that is all I'm saying.
As I've been doing, let's put this into a statement: I am not really choosing when I choose, because it's possible that someone or something has influenced or predetermined my choosing. Therefore, everytime I think I am choosing, I may not be.
Does this sound like reality? Is this what the evidence around us suggests what reality really is? Leila, quite frankly, I can't see how YOU could believe choice to be anything other than what it clearly seems to be! (I'm just reiterating your words back to you, that's all. Not meaning to be rude or mean. Not at all.)
quote: Now you would probably say that those are merely influencing factors, but not determining factors. But how can you say that with any certainty? Sure, you could choose other than steak, but then that alternate choice could also be influenced by purely external factors.
Again, put into a statement, this is how this sounds: When I choose an alternate, I might not really be choosing at all; someone or something may be influencing or determining my choice, and I really have no choice at all, though it seems as if I am choosing.
Just doesn't work, Leila. Again, however, we must remember that I'm only talking about those opportunities of choice which are not hampered or hindered by something or someone. That is an obvious given when that happens. I'm talking about those opportunities to choose such as getting up out of bed and choosing what to wear with no one or nothing obviously interfering. (And we simply can't say, "Well, what about societal pressure; what if the person feels pressured by peers to wear this rather than that?" There's no control. The person can still choose to wear what he/she wishes.
quote: I'm not trying to sound antagonistic about this, it's just that I haven't been convinced either way yet. I'm just humbly asking the questions. Thanks for your patience with me.
Oh heavens, no worries, mate! That's what this board is all about!
For the conversation,
Starkman
Am I right? I say, am I right? Charlie Brown | | Back to Top | | |
 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 6/15/2003 9:40 AM (GMT -6) |   | Quoted translation of Psalm 51:5
quote: "Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me."
A NUMBER OF VIEWS:
quote: Psalm 51 is David's response to his sin with Bathsheba. He poured out his heart in acknowledging his sin and calling for God to forgive him. It would be contrary to the nature of the Psalm for David to have excused himself because he was born with the sin of Adam or because he was born in a sinful world that influenced him. He was not concerned about the sinful world but about his own sin. David used hyperbole to describe his sin as so great that it was as though he had been sinful from his very conception (Don Jackson, Gospel Advocate, Oct. 15, 1987).
See www.bible-infonet.org/ff/articles/bible/112_04_08.htm
quote: "Sin spread to all men because all men sinned" (Romans 5:12); and in sinning man brought death to the children who partake of his mortal nature and life. In a sin-bound world, no person escapes, even those who are personally guiltless and innocent, for all are caught up in the sins of the world.
Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me. (Psalm 51:5)
Even the all-pure Virgin Mary who gave birth to Christ in the flesh could not escape the snares of death. For all her innocence and spiritual perfection, she too needed salvation from death by her Son, and her spirit rejoiced in God her Savior. (cf. Luke 1:47)
According to the Orthodox Christian faith, Jesus Christ alone, of all men, as the incarnate Son and Word of God, need not have died. His death alone of all human deaths, was perfectly voluntary. He came in order to die, and by His death to liberate all who were held captive by death's power.
www.oca.org/pages/orth_chri/Orthodox-Faith/Spirituality/Death.html
quote: Another special concern to Orthodox Christians is the NRSV rendering of Psalm 51:5. This Psalm is important because it occurs quite often in the liturgy of the Church. It is also important because it is one of the instances where the Scriptures articulate most poignantly and eloquently the basis of our understanding of Christian anthropology, original (or ancestral) sin, and the theology of salvation. Remember that the O.T. for the Orthodox is the LXX. The LXX reads: "Behold, I was conceived in iniquities, and in sins did my mother bear me..." This is quite different from the Masoretic Hebrew, used by the KJV, the RSV, NKJV, NRSV, and virtually all Western Bibles, English or otherwise. The emphasis of these Western editions is that: 1) in sin and/or guilt my mother conceived me; and 2) I was born guilty / in sin; etc. Although this is typical of the theology of Western Christendom, it is highly foreign to the theology of Eastern Christendom.
www.holy-trinity.org/liturgics/nrsv.html
quote: 'Choose Life': Abortion in the Bible The 'Christian' pro-choice position is nothing more than an accommodation to modern secular belief--and is completely unbiblical By Randy Alcorn
http://www.beliefnet.com/story/120/story_12023_1.html
As a member of the human race that has rejected God, each person sinned "in Adam," and is therefore a sinner from his very beginning (Romans 5:12-19). David says, "Surely I was sinful at birth." Then he goes back even further, back before birth to the actual beginning of his life, saying he was "sinful from the time my mother conceived me" (Psalm 51:5). Each person has a sinful nature from the point of conception. Who but an actual person can have a sinful nature? Rocks and trees and animals and human organs do not have moral natures, good or bad. Morality can be ascribed only to a person. That there is a sin nature at the point of conception demonstrates that there is a person present who is capable of having such a nature.
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 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 6/15/2003 9:46 AM (GMT -6) |   | I KNOW THIS IS A TANGENT; BUT IT SEEMS TO BE AN IMPORTANT TANGENT!
quote: A Perspective on Psalm 51:5 http://www.biblical-theology.com/originalsin/ps51_5.htm
by William P. Murray, Jr.
Are men born sinners? A commonly abused 'proof' text is Psalm 51:5. Although I cannot claim the following as a result of my own scholarship or research, the information is a culmination from many sources over the years, and, I feel, the best explanation of this particular text that I have come across. Psalm 51:5 - "Behold, I was shapen in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me." KJV
This is a Hebrew poetic parallelism, with the second line of the verse saying the same thing as the first line in a slightly different way. The first verb, of which David is the subject, is in the Pulal tense (as is "made" in # Job 15:7 ), which is an idiom used to refer to creation or origins, and is the 'passive' form of Polel ("formed": # Ps 90:2 Pro 26:10 ). TWOT, #623, 1:270.
The subject of this verse is NOT the state or constitution of David's nature as a sinner at, or before, his birth. The subject is, as the verse clearly states, the `circumstances' of his conception- the sexual union which produced him was an act of sin, and addresses the unrighteousness of his mother's act, not anything (such as a sin nature) inherent within himself. (The NIV's version of this verse is an INTERPRETATION, not a translation: "Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me.")
- David had two half-sisters (Zeruiah, Abigail).....:
1CHR 2:13-16 13 “And Jesse begat his firstborn Eliab, and Abinadab the second, and Shimma the third, 14 Nethaneel the fourth, Raddai the fifth, 15 Ozem the sixth, David the seventh: 16 Whose sisters were Zeruiah, and Abigail. And the sons of Zeruiah; Abishai, and Joab, and Asahel, three. 17 And Abigail bare Amasa: and the father of Amasa was Jether the Ishmeelite.”
- ....and the father of David's half-sisters was not Jesse, but Nahash:
2Sam 17:25 “And Absalom made Amasa captain of the host instead of Joab: which Amasa was a man's son, whose name was Ithra an Israelite, that went in to Abigail the daughter of Nahash, sister to Zeruiah Joab's mother.”
- Nahash, the father of Zeruiah and Abigal, David's half-sisters, was an Ammonite king:
1Sam 11:1 “Then Nahash the Ammonite came up, and encamped against Jabeshgilead: and all the men of Jabesh said unto Nahash, Make a covenant with us, and we will serve thee.”
1Sam 12:12 “And when ye saw that Nahash the king of the children of Ammon came against you, ye said unto me, Nay; but a king shall reign over us: when the LORD your God was your king.”
David's father was Jesse, not Nahash. Zeruiah and Abigal were David's half-sisters through his mother's previous marriage to Nahash. This would also help explain why Nahash showed kindness to David, perhaps out of respect for David's mother, Nahash’s former wife and the mother of two of Nahash's children.
2Sam 10:2 “Then said David, I will shew kindness unto Hanun the son of Nahash, as his father shewed kindness unto me. And David sent to comfort him by the hand of his servants for his father. And David's servants came into the land of the children of Ammon.”
David's mother was most likely the second wife of Jesse, the first wife being the mother of David's half-brothers. Jesse’s first wife's standing before the 'righteousness of the law', (her not having been married to, or the concubine of, a heathen king, as was David’s mother), would have been superior to that of David's mother, and explains why David's half-brothers, Jesse's other sons, would have felt they were superior to David, and why he would be accused of being prideful, for thinking he was as good as them....
1Sam 17:28-30 28 “And Eliab his eldest brother heard when he spake unto the men; and Eliab's anger was kindled against David, and he said, Why camest thou down hither? and with whom hast thou left those few sheep in the wilderness? I know thy pride, and the naughtiness of thine heart; for thou art come down that thou mightest see the battle. 29 And David said, What have I now done? Is there not a cause? 30 And he turned from him toward another, and spake after the same manner: and the people answered him again after the former manner.”
...and why David was not considered, by his father Jesse, as `true' a son as his half-brothers. Samuel had called Jesse and his sons, and thus expected `all' his sons, to the sacrifice (1Sam 16:5,11). Jesse, having been told to bring `his sons' by a prophet of the Lord everyone feared (1Sam 16:4), was confident he had obeyed the prophet, even knowing he did not bring David....
1Sam 16:11 “And Samuel said unto Jesse, Are here all thy children? And he said, There remaineth yet the youngest, and, behold, he keepeth the sheep. And Samuel said unto Jesse, Send and fetch him: for we will not sit down till he come hither.”
....which would be consistent with God's sometimes choosing that which men esteemed as worthless (the `least') to be the greatest: (Gideon- Jud 6:15; King Saul- 1Sam 9:21; Jesus- Mt 2:6, Lk 9:48)
David's mother was apparently a Jewish woman, because `no Ammonite shall enter the congregation of the Lord to the 10th generation’ (Deu 23:3), and yet in PS 86:16 and PS 116:16, David refers to himself as "the son of thy handmaid", which would seem to testify to his mother's relationship with the Lord. David's mother was, in the eyes of Jewish law, considered `defiled' by her previous relationship to an Ammonite.
Nu 25:1,2; De 7:3,4; 1ki 11:2-4, Ezr 9:2; Ne 13:23,25; 2Co 6:14-17
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 |  Laika Registered Member

Date Joined Mar 2003 Total Posts : 2433 | Posted 6/15/2003 11:53 AM (GMT -6) |   | anewbeginning
quote:
John:
Regarding an "age of acoutability", I know this idea is more palatable than the alterantive but how can you claim we are born innocent?
Psalm 51:5
"Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me."
A better translation: Isaiah 51:5 Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, And in sin my mother conceived me.
This version leaves out the translator's theological presupposition.
The only moral agents present at David's conception were his biological mother and his biological father. While in sin they conceived him. Are you saying David sinned when he was conceived? How? What wrong choice did he make? Point it out, please.
quote:
Psalm 58:3
"The wicked are estranged from the womb; those who speak lies go astray from birth."
Have you heard a new born speaking lies? Please tell us more about it. Maybe the poetical books aren't the best place to develop theology.
I believe we are all born innocent and morally neutral. How else can God have commanded us to follow the law and live, or disobey the law and die? Cruel humour?
Sin is a VERB. It doesn't say "for all are sinners and fallen short of the glory of God", it says "for all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God".
How can Jesus be our high priest and claim to have been tempted JUST LIKE US if he was born "sinless" and we were born "sinners"???? How? Either he was born a sinner JUST LIKE us OR we were born innocent and morally neutral JUST LIKE him. His temptations were real and not shams.

Even though the skies are blue, don't they let the sunshine through?
Edited by - Laika on 06/15/2003 4:57:39 PM | | Back to Top | | |
 |  anewbeginning Registered Member
 Date Joined Jan 2002 Total Posts : 88 | Posted 6/15/2003 3:29 PM (GMT -6) |   | Laika:
Please point me to a commentary that DOES NOT indicate that Psalm 51:5 is a reference to original sin. The entire point of Psalm 51 is that of Davids fall. It opens with his petition for mercy, his confession of sin, his cofession of ORIGINAL corruption and his acknowledgement of God's grace. How does your translation of this verse fit with this theme? Do you feel the act of conception is sinful? Do you deny original sin? I know of no openness author who does. It would be evangelical suicide. This is PELAGIANISM! Our freedom is tainted with a propensity to sin by the very society in which we all participate. Dorothy Solle sums up our predicament well with her statement "I am also responsible for the house I did not build but in which I live."
God's prevenient grace is available to all as a lifeline but it is resistable.
Regarding Psalm 58:
"...those who speak lies go astray from birth" does not indicate that babies lie, only that liars are predisposed from birth. Ever lied? Show me one (other than our Lord) who hasn't!
God is not into cruel humor, He knew the law was unatainable for men, that's why they had Priests and sacrifice.
Your either/or regarding Jesus does not follow. Please explain your reasons why EITHER we're sinless at birth OR He was a sinner.
Original sin is a cornerstone of CHISTianity, remove it and you remove the need for Christ, we should be able to do it on our own. BTW, your tone is a little offensive, please keep in mind we're brothers in Christ!
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 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 6/15/2003 3:42 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote: anewbeginning
Please point me to a commentary that DOES NOT indicate that Psalm 51:5 is a reference to original sin.
PoW here. I just posted a long one--and felt guilty for its length. But from the last page...here it is again:
quote: A Perspective on Psalm 51:5 http://www.biblical-theology.com/originalsin/ps51_5.htm
by William P. Murray, Jr.
Are men born sinners? A commonly abused 'proof' text is Psalm 51:5. Although I cannot claim the following as a result of my own scholarship or research, the information is a culmination from many sources over the years, and, I feel, the best explanation of this particular text that I have come across. Psalm 51:5 - "Behold, I was shapen in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me." KJV
This is a Hebrew poetic parallelism, with the second line of the verse saying the same thing as the first line in a slightly different way. The first verb, of which David is the subject, is in the Pulal tense (as is "made" in # Job 15:7 ), which is an idiom used to refer to creation or origins, and is the 'passive' form of Polel ("formed": # Ps 90:2 Pro 26:10 ). TWOT, #623, 1:270.
The subject of this verse is NOT the state or constitution of David's nature as a sinner at, or before, his birth. The subject is, as the verse clearly states, the `circumstances' of his conception- the sexual union which produced him was an act of sin, and addresses the unrighteousness of his mother's act, not anything (such as a sin nature) inherent within himself. (The NIV's version of this verse is an INTERPRETATION, not a translation: "Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me.")
- David had two half-sisters (Zeruiah, Abigail).....:
1CHR 2:13-16 13 “And Jesse begat his firstborn Eliab, and Abinadab the second, and Shimma the third, 14 Nethaneel the fourth, Raddai the fifth, 15 Ozem the sixth, David the seventh: 16 Whose sisters were Zeruiah, and Abigail. And the sons of Zeruiah; Abishai, and Joab, and Asahel, three. 17 And Abigail bare Amasa: and the father of Amasa was Jether the Ishmeelite.”
- ....and the father of David's half-sisters was not Jesse, but Nahash:
2Sam 17:25 “And Absalom made Amasa captain of the host instead of Joab: which Amasa was a man's son, whose name was Ithra an Israelite, that went in to Abigail the daughter of Nahash, sister to Zeruiah Joab's mother.”
- Nahash, the father of Zeruiah and Abigal, David's half-sisters, was an Ammonite king:
1Sam 11:1 “Then Nahash the Ammonite came up, and encamped against Jabeshgilead: and all the men of Jabesh said unto Nahash, Make a covenant with us, and we will serve thee.”
1Sam 12:12 “And when ye saw that Nahash the king of the children of Ammon came against you, ye said unto me, Nay; but a king shall reign over us: when the LORD your God was your king.”
David's father was Jesse, not Nahash. Zeruiah and Abigal were David's half-sisters through his mother's previous marriage to Nahash. This would also help explain why Nahash showed kindness to David, perhaps out of respect for David's mother, Nahash’s former wife and the mother of two of Nahash's children.
2Sam 10:2 “Then said David, I will shew kindness unto Hanun the son of Nahash, as his father shewed kindness unto me. And David sent to comfort him by the hand of his servants for his father. And David's servants came into the land of the children of Ammon.”
David's mother was most likely the second wife of Jesse, the first wife being the mother of David's half-brothers. Jesse’s first wife's standing before the 'righteousness of the law', (her not having been married to, or the concubine of, a heathen king, as was David’s mother), would have been superior to that of David's mother, and explains why David's half-brothers, Jesse's other sons, would have felt they were superior to David, and why he would be accused of being prideful, for thinking he was as good as them....
1Sam 17:28-30 28 “And Eliab his eldest brother heard when he spake unto the men; and Eliab's anger was kindled against David, and he said, Why camest thou down hither? and with whom hast thou left those few sheep in the wilderness? I know thy pride, and the naughtiness of thine heart; for thou art come down that thou mightest see the battle. 29 And David said, What have I now done? Is there not a cause? 30 And he turned from him toward another, and spake after the same manner: and the people answered him again after the former manner.”
...and why David was not considered, by his father Jesse, as `true' a son as his half-brothers. Samuel had called Jesse and his sons, and thus expected `all' his sons, to the sacrifice (1Sam 16:5,11). Jesse, having been told to bring `his sons' by a prophet of the Lord everyone feared (1Sam 16:4), was confident he had obeyed the prophet, even knowing he did not bring David....
1Sam 16:11 “And Samuel said unto Jesse, Are here all thy children? And he said, There remaineth yet the youngest, and, behold, he keepeth the sheep. And Samuel said unto Jesse, Send and fetch him: for we will not sit down till he come hither.”
....which would be consistent with God's sometimes choosing that which men esteemed as worthless (the `least') to be the greatest: (Gideon- Jud 6:15; King Saul- 1Sam 9:21; Jesus- Mt 2:6, Lk 9:48)
David's mother was apparently a Jewish woman, because `no Ammonite shall enter the congregation of the Lord to the 10th generation’ (Deu 23:3), and yet in PS 86:16 and PS 116:16, David refers to himself as "the son of thy handmaid", which would seem to testify to his mother's relationship with the Lord. David's mother was, in the eyes of Jewish law, considered `defiled' by her previous relationship to an Ammonite.
Nu 25:1,2; De 7:3,4; 1ki 11:2-4, Ezr 9:2; Ne 13:23,25; 2Co 6:14-17
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 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 6/15/2003 4:04 PM (GMT -6) |   | quote: anewbeginning
Please point me to a commentary that DOES NOT indicate that Psalm 51:5 is a reference to original sin.
That quote notwithstanding, everyone here DOES seem to be AFIRMING "original sin." EVERYONE. Some possitions affirm "original guilt" as a result of that sin. Others just recognize that death came into the world through sin. And the sin...death...sin...death cycles began and continued.
Pelagianism was mentioned. We only have a dread case of Pelagianism if someone is claiming their OWN POWER to avercome the frailties of their human condition brought on by the fall WITHOUT THE SPIRIT'S POWER. The Eastern view of "synergy" is NOT Pelagian. To say that accepting and asking for the Spirit's help and then being faithful in responding to that help, and asking for more is not Pelagian.
anewbeginning makes a number of interesting comments. I'd like to divide them into teo "buy" and "don't buy" piles.
quote: The entire point of Psalm 51 is that of Davids fall. It opens with his petition for mercy, his confession of sin, his cofession of ORIGINAL corruption and his acknowledgement of God's grace. How does your translation of this verse fit with this theme? Do you feel the act of conception is sinful? Do you deny original sin? I know of no openness author who does. It would be evangelical suicide. This is PELAGIANISM!
Our freedom is tainted with a propensity to sin by the very society in which we all participate. Dorothy Solle sums up our predicament well with her statement "I am also responsible for the house I did not build but in which I live."
God's prevenient grace is available to all as a lifeline but it is resistable.
I KNOW THESE WERE NOT WRITTEN TO ME. BUT PLEASE ACCEPT MY RESPONSE ANYWAYS. THANKS.
- The entire point of Psalm 51 is that of Davids fall.
YES.
- It opens with his petition for mercy, his confession of sin
- his cofession of ORIGINAL corruption and his acknowledgement of God's grace
NOT ORIGINAL corruption. GIVE THIS A CHANCE. CONSIDER THE ARTICLE QUOTED IN MY POST ABOVE. CONSIDER THAT TWO KINDS OF SIN ARE CITED BY DAVID (BLENDED TOGETHER) IN POETIC PARALLEL TO HIS OWN. HIS MOTHER'S SIN, AND THE WORLD'S SINFULL ONGOINGS/DOINGS ARE COUPLETTED WITH HIS OWN FALL. (THE THING THAT HE DOES NOT DO IS BLAME HIS MURDER AND ADULTERY ON ADAM.) - Do you feel the act of conception is sinful?
AUGUSTINE DID. THE EO DOES NOT. DAVID'S OWN CONCEPTION WAS THE RESULT OF A SIN--BUT A PARTICULAR ONE...NOT BECAUSE OF WHAT AUGUSTINE SAID ABOUT SEX. - Do you deny original sin?
ORIGINAL SIN CAUSED THE FALL. YES, I BELIEVE IT. BUT I DON'T ACCEPT "ORIGINAL GUILT" AS SOMETHING TRANSFERABLE. - I know of no openness author who does.
I'M NOT OPENNESS. - Our freedom is tainted with a propensity to sin by the very society in which we all participate.
EVEN BY THOSE WHO DO NOT ACCEPT AUGUSTINE'S ORIGINAL GUILT (THE OCA QUOTE ON THE LAST PAGE) THE VERSE IN PS.51 IS A GREAT REFLECTION ON THIS "propensity to sin (PRESSURED) by the very society in which we all participate." I ACCEPT THE EO's WITNESS THAT MARY OVERCAME THIS. YET--UNLIKE THE RCC--MARY STILL WAS A FALLEN (THOUGH "SINLESS") DAUGHTER OF EVE, IN NEED OF SALVATION JUST LIKE ALL THE REST OF US. (LET ALL PROTESTANTS PAUSE TO TRY TO COME UP TO A "LITERACY LEVEL" ON THAT ONE! ) - God's prevenient grace is available to all as a lifeline but it is resistable.
YEP!
Edited by - PotOnWheel on 06/15/2003 9:05:57 PM | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Tom Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 10353 | Posted 6/15/2003 4:19 PM (GMT -6) |   | POW: Pelagianism was mentioned. We only have a dread case of Pelagianism if someone is claiming their OWN POWER to avercome the frailties of their human condition brought on by the fall WITHOUT THE SPIRIT'S POWER. The Eastern view of "synergy" is NOT Pelagian. To say that accepting and asking for the Spirit's help and then being faithful in responding to that help, and asking for more is not Pelagian.
Tom: Yes, yes, yes, to syngergy.
We don't agree often, POW. When we do, savor it. 
Tom
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 |  John Earp Registered Member
 Date Joined Oct 2002 Total Posts : 1715 | Posted 6/16/2003 2:18 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote:
John:
Regarding an "age of acoutability", I know this idea is more palatable than the alterantive but how can you claim we are born innocent?
Psalm 51:5
"Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me."
Psalm 58:3
"The wicked are estranged from the womb; those who speak lies go astray from birth."
Hi anew,
My question is, how can you claim these verses express literal truth? Babies speaking at all as soon as they are born? David's conception being in and of itself sinful? While I realize these are some of the proof-texts used to support the Augustinian notion of Original Sin, to my mind it does not seem wise to take them as expressing literal truth.
Where my position differs from Pelagianism is that I do not believe that people's wills are quite as free as Pelagius taught (hero of faith and holiness though he was). As I said earlier in this thread, my views tend to agree with the historic Eastern Orthodox and pre-Augustine church fathers in this regard. As to "evangelical suicide" I guess I quit worrying a long time ago whether or not evangelicals liked me or wanted to burn me at the stake. Charles Finney denied the "born sinful" idea, and except for Calvinists, I don't hear evangelicals loudly disassociating themselves from him.
The idea of an "inherited sin nature" I find to be absolutely nonsensical. Sin as defined in the Bible is "a transgression of the law;" (1 John 3:4) that is, a word, thought, or deed that is willfully in violation of known divine law. How is being conceived or being born a violation of ANY divine law?
(I may not be able to get back here to answer any questions for a day or two. Please look at the articles at the link I posted above; they should answer any questions one might have about my position).
God bless,
John
"The Discovery of new truth will modify old views and opinions, and there is perhaps no end to this process with finite minds in any world." Charles G. Finney, Systematic Theology.
revivaltheology.net
Edited by - John Earp on 06/16/2003 07:21:48 AM | | Back to Top | | |
 |  PotOnWheel Registered Member

Date Joined Jul 2001 Total Posts : 9890 | Posted 6/16/2003 3:07 AM (GMT -6) |   | John: The idea of an "inherited sin nature" I find to be absolutely nonsensical.
PoW: The matter of a "sin nature" is an important one to think about. What assumptions do we carry around with us. Romans says (non-NIV) that we have "sinful flesh," where "flesh" denotes our sinfulness; and "flesh" as created was, of course, good. So we were not created sinful. But the nature we have REMAINS our nature even when we sin. (Like a mirror with tarnish: underneith it still reflects.)
Some have had a REALLY HARD TIME "resolving" how Christ has BOTH a human nature and a divine nature. And a point of issue for them is what they suppose to be a problem in Christ's humanity WILLING to do what the Father wants (prayer in the Garden) even though his humanity feared death enough to sweat blood. How's that work? Well, humanity is, BY NATURE willing to follow its OWN NATURE as a worshipping and faithful being in God's creation.
Its "natural."
PoW | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Laika Registered Member

Date Joined Mar 2003 Total Posts : 2433 | Posted 6/16/2003 3:13 AM (GMT -6) |   | anewbeginning
quote:
Laika:
Please point me to a commentary that DOES NOT indicate that Psalm 51:5 is a reference to original sin.
I don't read commentaries much. How much do you want the ideas of others to influence your reading of scripture?
Again, I ask, who were the moral agents present at David's conception? Was David there? What sin did he commit during his own conception? Was the egg part of him sinning or the sperm part of him sinning? "In sin did my mother", ever consider the "mother" part of this verse? When Samuel came to Jesse for a replacement for Saul, and asked that ALL Jesse's sons be brought out, why was David left out?
quote:
Do you deny original sin? I know of no openness author who does. It would be evangelical suicide. This is PELAGIANISM!
What's "Pelagianism"? I guess I don't read enough commentaries to know what I'm supposed to believe. Yes, I deny that sin is inherited. Sin is an action against God. It is not a genetic trait that you can inherit. You can be born to bad parents, in a bad environment, with physical genetic defects and even some mental defects but God doesn't handicap you by imputing sinful actions to you before you can even start "acting".
quote:
Your either/or regarding Jesus does not follow. Please explain your reasons why EITHER we're sinless at birth OR He was a sinner.
Hebrews 4:15 For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin.
How can He claim to have been tempted "as we are"? Either He was born a sinner like you claim we are, or we are born sinless like you claim He was. If we sin because we're sinners from birth, then He couldn't sin, being sinless from birth. He became like us in all respects. Do you believe Jesus could have sinned?
Why did God become a man? To experience what we experience? Then why do you think He was born sinless when you also think we are born sinners?
quote:
Original sin is a cornerstone of CHISTianity, remove it and you remove the need for Christ, we should be able to do it on our own.
Original sin is a cornerstone of Calvinism. The only verses I've seen used to support it are Psalms 51:5 and Romans 5:12:
"Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned."
1. The Latin vulgate added "in Adam" after "all sinned" so it said "all sinned in Adam". But no modern translations have that as it was an incorrect addtion. 2. It doesn't say sin spread to all men, it says sin entered the world (became available). 3. Death is what spread to all men, why? Because all sinned. That's what sin is, a VERB. It's an action against God.
Paul compares and contrasts sin/Adam to salvation/Jesus. Through Jesus, salvation enters the world (and is available). Salvation doesn't automatically spread to all, it has to be chosen.
A common argument I hear from non-believers is this, if God makes us sinners with no input from us, then it's up to God to save us without any input from us. It's logical, how would a Calvinist respond?

Even though the skies are blue, don't they let the sunshine through? | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Laika Registered Member

Date Joined Mar 2003 Total Posts : 2433 | Posted 6/16/2003 3:31 AM (GMT -6) |   | POW
quote: A Perspective on Psalm 51:5 http://www.biblical-theology.com/originalsin/ps51_5.htm
by William P. Murray, Jr.
Thanks POW! I was looking for that.
Come on in, the water's fine.

Even though the skies are blue, don't they let the sunshine through? | | Back to Top | | |
 |  ReasonableDoubt Registered Member
 Date Joined Jan 2003 Total Posts : 655 | Posted 6/16/2003 4:10 AM (GMT -6) |   | For the record - it is fine to deny original sin if that's what you believe. But that is not Christianity- original sin is a tenet of the Christian faith, from Roman Catholicism to Arminianism to Calvinism and everything in between. Certainly along the way there were Charles Finneys who denied it - but he was not really a theologian - more of an evangelist - and at any rate the official position of the Christian faith accepts original sin. I don't feel the need to quote verses trying to support this position - when there are myriad theological books out there explaining the doctrine and why it is a tenet of Christianity. | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Laika Registered Member

Date Joined Mar 2003 Total Posts : 2433 | Posted 6/16/2003 5:17 AM (GMT -6) |   | RD, we believe that people have a sinful nature. The genesis of that nature is what's questioned.

Even though the skies are blue, don't they let the sunshine through? | | Back to Top | | |
 |  John Earp Registered Member
 Date Joined Oct 2002 Total Posts : 1715 | Posted 6/16/2003 6:54 AM (GMT -6) |   | quote:
For the record - it is fine to deny original sin if that's what you believe. But that is not Christianity- original sin is a tenet of the Christian faith, from Roman Catholicism to Arminianism to Calvinism and everything in between. Certainly along the way there were Charles Finneys who denied it - but he was not really a theologian - more of an evangelist - and at any rate the official position of the Christian faith accepts original sin. I don't feel the need to quote verses trying to support this position - when there are myriad theological books out there explaining the doctrine and why it is a tenet of Christianity.
If what you're saying is true, then:
1. There were no real Christians before Augustine copied this idea from the Manicheans.
and
2. None of the historic Eastern branches of Christianity are real Christians organizations, as none of them accept Augustine's ideas on this.
As to Finney, it should also be further added that he simply clarified and reiterated what was known of as New School Calvinism, a MAJOR group of Christian theologians beginning in the early 1800s. Albert Barnes, who wrote a commentary on the whole Bible that is still in print, denied the Augustinian notion of original sin. Several others in the New School wing of Calvinism denied the Augustinian invention of Original Sin. The idea that God condemns a person to hell for something that they inherited from Adam would present God as an impossible tyrant. Any and all true sense of morality is violated by such a concept. Ezekiel 18 specifically contradicts the idea that anyone but one's own self is responsible for one's sins.
It really seems funny to be being condemned as not a Christian by a universalist. 
RD, if you don't think Finney was a theologian, you obviously have never read his writings. A 1000+ page Systematic Theology, plus thousands of other sermons, lectures, and articles. He was also a lawyer; I really think you would find his writings interesting. Perhaps his biggest emphasis was on the Moral Law of God and how this differed from the Physical Law of God (i.e., gravity, inertia, etc.).
Finney's entire written works can be found at the following website:
http://www.gospeltruth.net
"The Discovery of new truth will modify old views and opinions, and there is perhaps no end to this process with finite minds in any world." Charles G. Finney, Systematic Theology.
revivaltheology.net
Edited by - John Earp on 06/16/2003 12:09:33 PM
Edited by - John Earp on 06/16/2003 12:30:36 PM | | Back to Top | | |
 |  John Earp Registered Member
 Date Joined Oct 2002 Total Posts : 1715 | Posted 6/16/2003 7:05 AM (GMT -6) |   | PoW:
I believe that a "sinful nature" is nothing other than an acquired trait, as in "he that committeth sin is a slave of sin," (John 8), and "he that committeth sin is of the devil." (1 John 3). (I don't have my Bible software available here at work, but the above chapter references contain the verses I am alluding to).
That said, I should hasten to add that with Finney, I think that one's physical depravity (mortality, tendency to sickness and death), brings about one's moral depravity, and that all those who have reached the age of moral accountability (varies depending on knowledge of good and evil) once they choose to obey the lusts of their flesh do in fact become totally morally depraved.
Very Important Point--Finney and the Moral Government/New School theologians ALL believed in total depravity, just not that it was a genetically passed down trait. They believed that it was something each moral agent entered into voluntarily, the same way Adam and Eve did. Sidetrack--How did Adam and Eve or some of the Angels sin, if sinning requires a sin nature?
The historical roots of the inherited sin nature idea really can be found in Tertullian's writings (traducianism), but Augustine was the one who really promoted this idea and became the most influential theologian in Church history. (A true tragedy, IMO).
"The Discovery of new truth will modify old views and opinions, and there is perhaps no end to this process with finite minds in any world." Charles G. Finney, Systematic Theology.
revivaltheology.net
Edited by - John Earp on 06/16/2003 12:15:04 PM | | Back to Top | | |
 |  John Earp Registered Member
 Date Joined Oct 2002 Total Posts : 1715 | Posted 6/16/2003 7:25 AM (GMT -6) |   | Below is an excerpt from Clark Pinnock's article, "From Augustine to Arminius, A Pilgrimage in Theology." The entire article may be found at the following link:
http://www.biblical-theology.com/calvinism/pilgrim.htm
(Begin quote of Pinnock's article)
Again, I had a choice of paths to follow. I knew that Wesley had opted for a doctrine of universal prevenient grace by which God enabled the spiritually dead sinner to respond to him in faith. The Fourth Gospel speaks of a universal drawing action of God (John 12:32). This move allowed him to retain his belief in total depravity and still avoid the Calvinistic consequences in terms of particularist election and limited grace. But I also knew that the Bible has no developed doctrine of universal prevenient grace, however convenient it would be for us if it did. Hence, I was drawn instead to question total depravity itself as a possible ambush designed to cut off non-Augustinians at the pass. Was there any evidence that Jesus, for example, regarded people as totally depraved? Does the Bible generally not leave us with the impression that one can progress in sin as in holiness, and that how total one's depravity is varies from person to person and is not a constant? Surely "total" depravity biblically would be the point beyond which it is not possible to go in realizing the full possibilities of sinfulness and not the actual condition of all sinners at the present time. In any case, what became decisive for me was the simple fact that Scripture appeals to people as those who are able and responsible to answer to God (however we explain it) and not as those incapable of doing so, as Calvinian logic would suggest. The gospel addresses them as free and responsible agents, and I must suppose it does so because that is what they are.
(End quote)
"The Discovery of new truth will modify old views and opinions, and there is perhaps no end to this process with finite minds in any world." Charles G. Finney, Systematic Theology.
revivaltheology.net
Edited by - John Earp on 06/16/2003 12:27:10 PM | | Back to Top | | |
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