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Laika
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   Posted 7/2/2003 7:21 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
PoW
quote:

But the Lewis quote serves to just show that "time" is not what we sometimes think: that it is somehow irreversable.



WE AGREE! Time is irreversable (sic). (It's actually "irreversible")

HOORAY!



"A fanatic is one who redoubles his effort when he has forgotten his aim."
-- George Santayana
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John Earp
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   Posted 7/2/2003 9:04 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:

For the most part I agree, except for "His atonement paid for the sins of none, yet provided for the salvation of all. "
Why didn't his atonement pay for the sins of any? I thought that was the whole point of his sacrifice?



Hi RD,

Thank you for your comments and questions. I will try and get back to this later tonight when I have time. But briefly let me just say that this very common understanding of the atonement that you express above is simply nowhere to be found in the Scriptures, and in fact is nothing more than the invention of Anselm. Nowhere does the Bible describe Christ's death as a "payment of debt" or "payment for sins."

What the Bible does say is that Christ's death was a ransom/redemption price. And anyone can see the clear difference between a ransom and a debt. If our debt is "paid in full," then God by definition would be legally required by his own law to save all mankind! It is not clear how this is not the case. (Incidentally, it was precisely this deterministic concept of the Atonement which spawned universalism in the late 1700s in America).

If on the other hand Christ's death paid a RANSOM, or price of redemption, the pervasive biblical metaphors of freedom from the bondage of sin and Satan are perfectly harmonized.

Romans 3:20 For no human being will be justified in his sight by works of the law, since through the law comes knowledge of sin. 21 But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from law, although the law and the prophets bear witness to it, 22 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction; 23 since all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 they are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus, 25 whom God put forward as an expiation by his blood, to be received by faith. This was to show God's righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins; 26 it was to prove at the present time that he himself is righteous and that he justifies him who has faith in Jesus. 27 Then what becomes of our boasting? It is excluded. On what principle? On the principle of works? No, but on the principle of faith. 28 For we hold that a man is justified by faith apart from works of law.

Christ's substitutionary death was in order that God could remain just (not breaking his own law and thus no hypocrite), while at the same time offering real and meaningful forgiveness to criminals/sinners. We are forgiven because of God's grace in Christ, when the conditions for forgiveness are met, these being repentance and faith.

Hope this helps clarify. Thanks again for asking you question, and please feel free to reply with more.

Sincerely,

John




"The Discovery of new truth will modify old views and opinions, and there is perhaps no end to this process with finite minds in any world." Charles G. Finney, Systematic Theology.

revivaltheology.net




Edited by - John Earp on 07/02/2003 2:26:38 PM
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John Earp
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   Posted 7/2/2003 9:16 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Terry
John,

Neat stuff. I always look for the threads you start and participate in.

John

Thanks. I always appreciate your input as well.

Terry

What's your take on how this plays out, for you or the folks creating the original site?

Theologically, is this "working out our salvation"? Does it entail that "once saved" is not "always saved"?

John

Yes, though I don't think "working out your salvation with fear and trembling" (which Paul emphatically tells us to do) equals working FOR your salvation. No amount of good works can EVER earn the grace of God that brings salvation.

Terry

Practically, what does this mean? What exactly is our experience of salvation and what are we being saved from presently.

John

Along with the Holiness tradition of Wesley and Finney, as I understand salvation, it is deliverance from sin by the power of the Holy Spirit. It is also restoration of the marred image of God by that same Spirit.

To the extent that we are delivered from sin, we are being saved. I understand salvation as a process/journey, not a "pray this little prayer and you'll be unconditionally guaranteed heaven forever" sort of thing.

Practically, this implies what I see is the clear point of Romans 8:1-14, for but one very illustrative example: "That the righteous requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit (v.4), and "If you live after the flesh you shall die, but if you through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, you shall live," (v.13), and "they that are led of the Spirit are the children of God." (v.14).

Essentially, all through this very instructive passage, Paul is showing two states of existance, one led by/minding the Spirit, and one led by/minding the flesh (which I'll call carnal or self-seeking impulses). Or, as stated in Heb. 12:14, "Follow after peace with all men, and holiness, without which no man shall see God. There are many other passages which say essentially this same thing--that to be saved one must be actively following Jesus.

It is very important to add that in my understanding (and I think in most MGTers understanding of salvation/sanctification), the maxim, one's choices when persisted in become habits, habits form character, and character determines destiny. On this model, the longer and more fully one lives in Christ by the Spirit, the more secure she becomes (in Boydian terms, "character solidification" occurs). Also, it is by means of the Holy Spirit appropriated by faith that the disciple is enabled to endure. Therefore, the idea is definitely not that one's salvation is perpetually in jeopardy in the Holiness paradigm, not in the least. In this aspect, my view is quite reminiscent of the Parable of the Sower, in which "some receive the word with joy for a short time, but when persecution or trouble comes, they fall away (or shrivel up like seed sown in rocky soil).

Hope this helps clarify. Please feel free to ask more.

God bless you,

John Earp




"The Discovery of new truth will modify old views and opinions, and there is perhaps no end to this process with finite minds in any world." Charles G. Finney, Systematic Theology.

revivaltheology.net


Edited by - John Earp on 07/02/2003 7:00:16 PM
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 7/2/2003 9:25 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Laika, did I use the wrong punctuation; or did you read what is "there" wrong?

quote:

PoW: But the Lewis quote serves to just show that "time" is not what we sometimes think: that it is somehow irreversable.

WE AGREE! Time is irreversable (sic). (It's actually "irreversible")


What I think I posted says: That TIME is somehow irreversable represents...what we sometimes think...and that is not true. what we sometimes think, is that time is irreversable.

You got me wrong. There are BOTH ways in which time IS irreversible and other ways in which time IS NOT irreversible. And in those ways it IS REVERSIBLE.


See what was added to the post after I got back from swimming with my kids!!!

quote:
**adding** While time does not go "backwards," we speak and think of it as going "towards". It does towards decay, or towards maturation, or towards metamorphosis. We, particularly in Western European culture, think of time as LINEAR. And again: the Lewis quote serves to just show that "time" is not what we sometimes think!


SO, WHAT THEN IS ANOTHER WAY TO THINK OF TIME BESIDES "LINEAR?" In a true sense, time is "irreversible." But in the sense of the effects of time, in the sense of developments "towards" which time "moves" it is not always linear! So, in THAt sense: "Winter is reversible." Spring comes. And actually, as cultures go, the cyclical conception of time is quite common. But cycles also include the Hindu and Pagan Greek concepts of reincarnation. So, what ELSE is there besides the hopeless linear desent to disolution, or the hopelessly endless "Groundhog Day" of cyclical time?

What is often offered is the idea of a spiral moving upwards. That's a good model. It has both a sustaining and a growing aspect to it.

Thinking within the spiral model it is not at all hard to picture the slow dying of a downward-spiral path being "reversed" into an upwards-spiral path. In that transition, in one sense no "reversal" was made--keeping the "irreversible" statement still true. But in a second way, that transition "reverses" the path from death-wards to life-wards. From disolution to growing.

Lewis' statement, BEING LITERATURE had the task of first stopping us in our tracks. Saying "Death worked backwards" does that. It arrests our thoughts so as to enable us to start thinking another way. (Art does this.)

And we can do the rest. And SO CAN the gradeschool kids who read the Narnia books too!




Edited by - PotOnWheel on 07/02/2003 2:32:55 PM
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Laika
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   Posted 7/2/2003 11:03 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
PoW
quote:

So, in THAt sense: "Winter is reversible." Spring comes. And actually, as cultures go, the cyclical conception of time is quite common.



Winter0 --> Spring0 --> Summer0 --> Fall0 -->
Winter1 --> Spring1 --> Summer1 --> Fall1 -->
Winter2 --> Spring2 --> Summer2 --> Fall2 -->
Winter3 --> Spring3 --> Summer3 --> Fall3 -->
Winter4 --> Spring4 --> Summer4 --> Fall4 -->
Winter5 --> Spring5 --> Summer5 --> Fall5 -->
Winter6 --> Spring6 --> Summer6 --> Fall6 -->

So now you're seven years older. It's called a "loop" and while it appears cyclical, the index progresses linearly.




"A fanatic is one who redoubles his effort when he has forgotten his aim."
-- George Santayana
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Tom
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   Posted 7/2/2003 3:21 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
PoW: So, in THAT sense: "Winter is reversible." Spring comes. And actually, as cultures go, the cyclical conception of time is quite common.

Tom: An excellent argument FOR the irreversibile arrow of time! You're making great progress bro!

Laika, you got it. Precisely. Or the cycle might look like this:

PoW argues time is reversible0 --> PoW argues time is reversible0 --> PoW argues time is reversible0
PoW argues time is reversible1 --> PoW argues time is reversible1 --> PoW argues time is reversible1
PoW argues time is reversible2 --> PoW argues time is reversible2 --> PoW argues time is reversible2
PoW argues time is reversible3 --> PoW argues time is reversible3 --> PoW argues time is reversible3
PoW argues time is reversible4 --> PoW argues time is reversible4 --> PoW argues time is reversible4


Smile PoW. I appreciate you!

Tom

Edited by - TGB on 07/02/2003 8:31:08 PM
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 7/2/2003 4:17 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
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Tom
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   Posted 7/2/2003 5:57 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:




Cheer up bro! This weekend I'm taking a break and you won't be bothered by me for a while.



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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 7/3/2003 9:29 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Repost:

    **adding** While time does not go "backwards," we speak and think of it as going "towards". It does towards decay, or towards maturation, or towards metamorphosis. We, particularly in Western European culture, think of time as LINEAR. And again: the Lewis quote serves to just show that "time" is not what we sometimes think!


    SO, WHAT THEN IS ANOTHER WAY TO THINK OF TIME BESIDES "LINEAR?" In a true sense, time is "irreversible." But in the sense of the effects of time, in the sense of developments "towards" which time "moves" it is not always linear! So, in THAt sense: "Winter is reversible." Spring comes. And actually, as cultures go, the cyclical conception of time is quite common. But cycles also include the Hindu and Pagan Greek concepts of reincarnation. So, what ELSE is there besides the hopeless linear desent to disolution, or the hopelessly endless "Groundhog Day" of cyclical time?

    What is often offered is the idea of a spiral moving upwards. That's a good model. It has both a sustaining and a growing aspect to it.

    Thinking within the spiral model it is not at all hard to picture the slow dying of a downward-spiral path being "reversed" into an upwards-spiral path. In that transition, in one sense no "reversal" was made--keeping the "irreversible" statement still true. But in a second way, that transition "reverses" the path from death-wards to life-wards. From disolution to growing.

    Lewis' statement, BEING LITERATURE had the task of first stopping us in our tracks. Saying "Death worked backwards" does that. It arrests our thoughts so as to enable us to start thinking another way. (Art does this.)

    And we can do the rest. And SO CAN the gradeschool kids who read the Narnia books too!



Not the two different ways (in bold).

(If that gives you a headache, then stay away.)

Edited by - PotOnWheel on 07/03/2003 2:38:56 PM
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Starkman
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   Posted 7/5/2003 4:53 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
John said,
quote:
Nowhere does the Bible describe Christ's death as a "payment of debt" or "payment for sins."


Though I see what you're after, I do believe the Bible teaches the concept of debt and payment, but more broadly than the concept of which you oppose. In the sense that God owes the debt, no; that we owe a debt, yes. We do owe God something for our sin: "The soul that sins shall die." That is our debt; we must die. And this is important in consideration to your posts I quote below.


quote:
What the Bible does say is that Christ's death was a ransom/redemption price. And anyone can see the clear difference between a ransom and a debt. If our debt is "paid in full," then God by definition would be legally required by his own law to save all mankind! It is not clear how this is not the case.


The teaching of a payment is in fact the very meaning of the word ransom. I mean, if we're going to say that Christ was a ransom ... a ramsom for what and to whom and from whom. What is a ransom if it is not a payment, a price paid for something in return. Why does Christ have to become the human offering if the ransom is not to be paid by humanity to God The issue in Scripture, in my opinion, has never been whether there was a debt owed or a payment made; it is in understanding those two terms. Without an understanding of those terms, we risk throwing the baby out with the bath water. Yes, humanity owed it, bigtime, to God; thus, the end of mankind. Christ becoming a human being is able to offer unto God the payment for "The soul that sins shall die," though He did not sin. That He was human AND DID NOT SIN is to have both met the debt AND to have transcended it: He comes back from the dead--something we could never do of our own, and we are free from death, our debt.

Having a proper understanding of the words ransom (a price indeed paid) and debt (something owed), and having an understanding of the context in which the action of "ransom" and "debt" takes place, God will only be found obligated to give everyone forgiveness ... IF it is asked for. He is obligated to offer the forgivness to whoever asks (it's not "whomever," is it?) That is where the power of freedom of choice steps in and thwarts universalism's obtrusion.


quote:
(Incidentally, it was precisely this deterministic concept of the Atonement which spawned universalism in the late 1700s in America).


That someone teaches a false doctrine doesn't discount the true doctrine. It simply means that someone--again--distorted the Bible's teaching on the subject. We should expect that!


quote:
If on the other hand Christ's death paid a RANSOM, or price of redemption, the pervasive biblical metaphors of freedom from the bondage of sin and Satan are perfectly harmonized ... Christ's substitutionary death was in order that God could remain just (not breaking his own law and thus no hypocrite), while at the same time offering real and meaningful forgiveness to criminals/sinners. We are forgiven because of God's grace in Christ, when the conditions for forgiveness are met, these being repentance and faith.


As I've noted above, "paid a RANSOM, or price of redemption" to whom? For what? I think this falls along the same lines as what many deny with regard to the legal or penal aspects of Christ's death on the cross; again, we tend to toss that baby out with the bathwater "The soul that sins shall die" is a moral and ethical violation. But, it is a legal violation also: the breaking of God's command/law. God is not one who will bond Himself to that which is contrary to His nature. He will not be united in fellowship with sin or sinners. He can't. THAT'S the legal end of it here, and that's the reason a legal document is used to introduce the futurity of earth's destiny in Revelation chapter 5. (Please note, I'm not talking about legal/penal from the traditional staunch approach as it's been presented in the past and resent it as the main course. I'm only trying to keep from denying that its flavor can be tasted in the teaching.)

The soul that sins shall die ... God is obgligated to seperate Himself from the sinner. Otherwise He must do something to save the sinner; THAT'S the legal aspect I'm after here. (Just like the concept of ransom and debt--not defined in the more confining sense, as I think you oppose, but in the broader sense.)

For the conversation,

Starkman




Edited by - Starkman on 07/05/2003 9:54:21 PM
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John Earp
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   Posted 7/5/2003 5:16 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
That there is a clear difference between a ransom and a debt would seem obvious. That's all I'm saying.

If Christ's death "paid the debt for all the sins of mankind, past, present and future" (which, by the way, the Bible never once indicates is true), then universalism by definition must follow. Further, if all one's sins, past, present, and future, are already paid for, hey, let's sin more and more, 'cause heck, Jesus already paid for it! (I recently heard a TV minister in my area say, "So you've had 20 abortions and you feel guilty about it? Go ahead and have 20 more! He's already paid the debt! Hallelujah!" The sin-debt theory is utterly licentious and a blasphemy against God and his holy law.

If on the other hand, Christ's death paid a ransom then the obvious implication is one of deliverance from the slavery of sin/Satan.



"The Discovery of new truth will modify old views and opinions, and there is perhaps no end to this process with finite minds in any world." Charles G. Finney, Systematic Theology.

revivaltheology.net


Edited by - John Earp on 07/05/2003 10:54:33 PM
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Starkman
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   Posted 7/5/2003 6:01 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
John (almost wrote Jpohn!),

Hey, I see your point, for sure. But let me ask this: Why is it that from the sin/debt perspective God, as you see it, is obligated to universalism, but from the ransome perspective He's not? God doesn't have to "save" all just becase He does so in a sin/debt context, anymore than He does from a ransom perspective. Two issues still remain that prohibit universalism: freedom of choice (to sin), and that we are to endure to the end to prove that our salvation is genuine (they went out with us but did not stay with us that it might be made known that they weren't of us).

We be trackin'!

Starkman

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John Earp
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   Posted 7/5/2003 6:12 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
quote:

John (almost wrote Jpohn!),

Hey, I see your point, for sure. But let me ask this: Why is it that from the sin/debt perspective God, as you see it, is obligated to universalism, but from the ransome perspective He's not? God doesn't have to "save" all just becase He does so in a sin/debt context, anymore than He does from a ransom perspective. Two issues still remain that prohibit universalism: freedom of choice (to sin), and that we are to endure to the end to prove that our salvation is genuine (they went out with us but did not stay with us that it might be made known that they weren't of us).

We be trackin'!

Starkman





Hi Starkman,

If the sins of all mankind, past, present, and future, are all "paid for" then God is obligated to save all, for their is no sin left to charge them with, and thus absolutely no reason whatsoever why anyone deserves hell, on the scheme of sin-debt payment. If we grant the premise that Christ's death was a sin-debt payment, then either: (1) Limited atonement is true (i.e., Christ only paid for the sins of the elect) or; (2) Universalism is true, for no amount of sin by any individual can ever NOT be already paid for.

On the ransom/redemption price metaphor, the atonement becomes a great promise of freedom from sin for all who believe.




"The Discovery of new truth will modify old views and opinions, and there is perhaps no end to this process with finite minds in any world." Charles G. Finney, Systematic Theology.

revivaltheology.net
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Starkman
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   Posted 7/5/2003 6:24 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
John (you must be up late too, eh!)

So, you're saying that God HAS to save everyone if the sin/debt theology is true? I can't agree with that, because it's not just about the sin/debt (and again, I don't take that position in that ultra theological perspective); it's about freedom of choice also. God simply is not obgligated to save everyone simply because all their sin is addressed--Weeeell, from the perspective you're opposing, I can see your point though--anymore than He's required to save all those who He's paid the price via ransom. Nothing changes. It is still, as you said, for all who believe.

If under the modified concept--the view I hold to--of the sin/debt perspective Hitler dies, God doesn't have to let Him in, because the criterion isn't wether sin is present or not; it's whether that person loves God with all their heart, mind, soul and strength. The sin issue is no more of an issue here than it is under the ransom perspective. Otherwise, we're going to be writing off a lot of people to hell who never heard of Jesus; they weren't able to believe.

Starkman



Edited by - Starkman on 07/05/2003 11:24:57 PM
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John Earp
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   Posted 7/6/2003 4:23 PM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Hi Starkman,

I understand what you're saying about the potential, on each of these two theories, for one's sins to be dealt with. However, as the Bible itself never refers to Christ's death as a debt paid for the sins of all mankind, but instead refers repeatedly to Christ's death as a ransom paid to effect release from bondage, I would prefer to stay with the metaphor which is biblically attested. Also, it is a simple fact that something cannot be both forgiven and paid for.




"The Discovery of new truth will modify old views and opinions, and there is perhaps no end to this process with finite minds in any world." Charles G. Finney, Systematic Theology.

revivaltheology.net
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PotOnWheel
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   Posted 7/7/2003 6:43 AM (GMT -6)    Quote This PostAlert An Admin About This Post.
Starkman: Why does Christ have to become the human offering if the ransom is not to be paid by humanity to God

HELPFUL: "To whom did Christ pay the ransom?"

SOURCE: (I'll post the answer to that question below -- for those interested.) BUT... The answer, basically, is:

    "He "paid the price" rather, we might say, to Reality Itself. He "paid the price" to create the conditions in and through which man might receive the forgiveness of sins and eternal life by dying and rising again in Him to newness of life (See Rom 5-8; Gal 2-4). "



Starkman: That He was human AND DID NOT SIN is to have both met the debt AND to have transcended it: He comes back from the dead--something we could never do of our own, and we are free from death, our debt.

AGREEABLE: Yes.


........................quote.....................

quote:
(Hopko)

According to the scriptures, man's sins and the sins of the whole world are forgiven and pardoned by the sacrifice of Christ, by the offering of His life -- His body and His blood, which is the "blood of God" (Acts 20:28) -- upon the cross. This is the "redemption," the "ransom," the "expiation," the "propitiation" spoken about in the scriptures which had to be made so that man could be "at one" with God. Christ "paid the price" which was necessary to be paid for the world to be pardoned and cleansed of all iniquities and sins (1 Cor 6:20; 7:23).

In the history of Christian doctrine there has been great debate over the question of to whom Christ "pays the price" for the ransom of the world and the salvation of mankind. Some have said that the "payment" was made to the devil. This is the view that the devil received certain "rights" over man and his world because of man's sin. In his rebellion against God, man "sold himself to the devil" thus allowing the Evil One to become the "prince of this world" (Jn 12:31). Christ comes to pay the debt to the devil and to release man from his control by sacrificing Himself upon the cross.

Others say that Christ's "payment" on behalf of man had to be made to God the Father. This is the view which interprets Christ's sacrificial death on the cross as the proper punishment that had to be paid to satisfy God's wrath over the human race. God was insulted by man's sin. His law was broken and His righteousness was offended. Man had to pay the penalty for his sin by offering the proper punishment. But no amount of human punishment could satisfy God's justice because God's justice is divine. Thus the Son of God had to be born into the world and receive the punishment that was rightly to be placed on men. He had to die in order for God to receive proper satisfaction for man's offenses against Him. Christ substituted Himself on our behalf and died for our sins, offering His blood as the satisfying sacrifice for the sins of the world. By dying on the cross in place of sinful man, Christ pays the full and total payment for man's sins. God's wrath is removed. Man's insult is punished. The world is reconciled with its Creator.

Commenting on this question about to whom Christ "pays the price" for man's salvation, St. Gregory the Theologian in the fourth century wrote the following in his second Easter Oration:

    Now we are to examine another fact and dogma, neglected by most people, but in my judgment well worth enquiring into. To whom was that Blood offered that was shed for us, and why was It shed? I mean the precious and famous Blood of our God and High Priest and Sacrifice.

    We were detained in bondage by the Evil One, sold under sin, and receiving pleasure in exchange for wickedness. Now, since a ransom belongs only to him who holds in bondage, I ask to whom was this offered, and for what cause?

    If to the Evil One, fie upon the outrage! If the robber receives ransom, not only from God, but a ransom which consists of God Himself, and has such an illustrious payment for his tyranny, then it would have been right for him to have left us alone altogether!

    But if to God the Father, I ask first, how? For it was not by Him that we were being oppressed. And next, on what principle did the Blood of His only-begotten Son delight the Father, who would not receive even Isaac, when he was being sacrificed by his father, [Abraham,] but changed the sacrifice by putting a ram in the place of the human victim? (See Gen 22).

    Is it not evident that the Father accepts Him, but neither asked for Him nor demanded Him; but on account of the incarnation, and because Humanity must be sanctified by the Humanity of God, that He might deliver us Himself, and overcome the tyrant (i.e., the devil) and draw us to Himself by the mediation of His Son who also arranged this to the honor of the Father, whom it is manifest He obeys in all things.


In Orthodox theology generally it can be said that the language of "payment" and "ransom" is rather understood as a metaphorical and symbolical way of saying that Christ has done all things necessary to save and redeem mankind enslaved to the devil, sin and death, and under the wrath of God. He "paid the price," not in some legalistic or juridical or economic meaning. He "paid the price" not to the devil whose rights over man were won by deceit and tyranny. He "paid the price" not to God the Father in the sense that God delights in His sufferings and received "satisfaction" from His creatures in Him. He "paid the price" rather, we might say, to Reality Itself. He "paid the price" to create the conditions in and through which man might receive the forgiveness of sins and eternal life by dying and rising again in Him to newness of life (See Rom 5-8; Gal 2-4).

By dying on the cross and rising from the dead, Jesus Christ cleansed the world from evil and sin. He defeated the devil "in his own territory" and on "his own terms." The "wages of sin is death" (Rom 6:23). So the Son of God became man and took upon Himself the sins of the world and died a voluntary death. By His sinless and innocent death accomplished entirely by His free will -- and not by physical, moral, or juridical necessity -- He made death to die and to become itself the source and the way into life eternal. This is what the Church sings on the feast of the Resurrection, the New Passover in Christ, the new Paschal Lamb, who is risen from the dead:

    Christ is risen from the dead!
    Trampling down death by death!
    And upon those in the tombs bestowing life!
    (Easter Troparion)




So, If you don't have an allergy to Eastern Orthodoxy -- there it is.
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