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 |  Laika Registered Member

Date Joined Mar 2003 Total Posts : 2433 | Posted 3/22/2005 8:50 AM (GMT -6) |   |
themuzicman said...If I undersatnd atemporality correctly, God is completely immutable. Nothing changes for Him. Creation is a one time act that includes all of eternity, and all things are present and all time is "now" to God. (Correct me if I'm wrong.) Thus, God's relationship to all things is constant, as well, including Himself. So, my question is regarding the crucifixion. Is God the Son eternally united to or forsaken by God the Father? Muz
Not only would Jesus be eternally cursed and separated from God, eternally on the cross, creation would not be a "one time act". Creation would be eternal along with God. So everything, God included, would always have been and would always be.
Jesus would be cursed and not cursed simultaneously. God would be blessing and cursing Israel simultaneously. I would be a batchelor and married simultaneously. "It is finished" would be a lie because it would always eternally be simultaneously finished and not finished.
"atemporality" is contradictory and thus, idiotic.
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 |  themuzicman Always ready for lunch and the weekend

Date Joined Aug 2001 Total Posts : 48 | Posted 3/22/2005 8:56 AM (GMT -6) |   | | | |
    |  Grahaminator Registered Member

Date Joined Jan 2005 Total Posts : 70 | Posted 3/22/2005 4:12 PM (GMT -6) |   | | themuzicman,
Being one of the few atemporalists here, I thought I would join the conversation.
themuzicman said... If I undersatnd atemporality correctly, God is completely immutable. Nothing changes for Him. Creation is a one time act that includes all of eternity, and all things are present and all time is "now" to God. (Correct me if I'm wrong.) I am not clear what you mean when you say, "Creation is a one time act that includes all of eternity." You then asked if God the Son is eternally united to or forsaken by God the Father?
To the best of my understanding God is related to the world as cause is related to effect. The triune God, co-equal and whatnot are eternally united. Christ as man (Christ being fully God and fully man) was punished for sin in time. Their was a change in Christ as man, but not in Jesus as God. Would you not agree with this? If not, why not?
Matt
Man is the feeblest reed in existence, but he is a thinking reed. There is no need that the universe be armed for his destruction; a noxious vapour, a drop of water is enough to cause his death. But though the universe were to destroy him, man would be more noble than his destroyer. -Pascal | | Back to Top | | |
 |  themuzicman Always ready for lunch and the weekend

Date Joined Aug 2001 Total Posts : 48 | Posted 3/22/2005 7:31 PM (GMT -6) |   | Matt said... I am not clear what you mean when you say, "Creation is a one time act that includes all of eternity."
If God is truly atemporal, then creation must be in some way atemporal, as well, with time really just an illusion to us within it. Thus, all of creation is one action to God.
Matt said... You then asked if God the Son is eternally united to or forsaken by God the Father?
To the best of my understanding God is related to the world as cause is related to effect. The triune God, co-equal and whatnot are eternally united. Christ as man (Christ being fully God and fully man) was punished for sin in time. Their was a change in Christ as man, but not in Jesus as God. Would you not agree with this? If not, why not?
Matt
It would seem to deny the idea that Christ is truly one being, having two natures. If Christ is truly ONE being, then everything that happens to relationally Him happens to ALL of Him. To say that only the human part of Christ was forsaken splits the being of Christ into two separate, co-existant beings, which, I believe, is heresy.
Muz "God is dead" - Nietscke
"Nietscke is dead" - GodPost Edited (themuzicman) : 3/22/2005 6:34:00 PM (GMT-6) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Grahaminator Registered Member

Date Joined Jan 2005 Total Posts : 70 | Posted 3/22/2005 8:48 PM (GMT -6) |   | Muz,
You said,
"If God is truly atemporal, then creation must be in some way atemporal, as well, with time really just an illusion to us within it."
How does this follow? If God is atemporal, why must creation be atemporal?
Muz said... It would seem to deny the idea that Christ is truly one being, having two natures. If Christ is truly ONE being, then everything that happens to relationally Him happens to ALL of Him. To say that only the human part of Christ was forsaken splits the being of Christ into two separate, co-existant beings, which, I believe, is heresy.
Christ is one Person with two natures. Also, I don't understand your second sentence. Trinitarians have long understood that we can differentiate between various attributes of Jesus as man and Jesus as the second Person of the Trinity. Jesus as man could learn, Jesus as God could not learn. Jesus as man could bruise, Jesus as God could not. Jesus as man could die, Jesus as God could not. Jesus as man was temporal, Jesus as God (I would argue) is not temporal.
Matt
Man is the feeblest reed in existence, but he is a thinking reed. There is no need that the universe be armed for his destruction; a noxious vapour, a drop of water is enough to cause his death. But though the universe were to destroy him, man would be more noble than his destroyer. -Pascal | | Back to Top | | |
 |  themuzicman Always ready for lunch and the weekend

Date Joined Aug 2001 Total Posts : 48 | Posted 3/23/2005 8:21 AM (GMT -6) |   | Matt said...Muz, You said, "If God is truly atemporal, then creation must be in some way atemporal, as well, with time really just an illusion to us within it." How does this follow? If God is atemporal, why must creation be atemporal? Muz said...
It would seem to deny the idea that Christ is truly one being, having two natures. If Christ is truly ONE being, then everything that happens to relationally Him happens to ALL of Him. To say that only the human part of Christ was forsaken splits the being of Christ into two separate, co-existant beings, which, I believe, is heresy. Christ is one Person with two natures. Also, I don't understand your second sentence. Trinitarians have long understood that we can differentiate between various attributes of Jesus as man and Jesus as the second Person of the Trinity. Jesus as man could learn, Jesus as God could not learn. Jesus as man could bruise, Jesus as God could not. Jesus as man could die, Jesus as God could not. Jesus as man was temporal, Jesus as God (I would argue) is not temporal. Matt
First, I think we need to clarify what we mean by "nature." The nature of something comprises the attributes that describe it. A nature, in and of itself, doesn't physically exist, but it a conceptual organization of ideas. When we speak of the nature of something, we speak about what that something is or would be, and not about a specific instance of that thing. For instance, if I speak of the nature of a table, I'm not speaking of a specific table, but the essense of "tableness". Thus, when we speak of the nature of Christ, we're describing the essense of "Godness" or "humanness".
Also, the way you've expressed these things, once again, appears to split Christ into two beings. Let me see if I can reconcile them into one being, again.
Learning:
I'm going to address this from the context that I believe you're using for this, in that Jesus grew from an infant to an adult having to learn through teaching and experience all the things that humans learn while growing up. We'll leave whether God learns things for another thread.
As one being, the only way Jesus could learn while growing up is to veil Himself from His omniscience. How does He do that? Well, if you'll allow a human analogy, normally I'm a killer monopoly player. I know all the asset:money ratios, know the values of the properties and how desirable each one is to own. However, when I play with my kids, I choose not to use all those things, so they I'm not killing them every time we play. In a sense, I veil myself from my higher monopoly knowledge for the purpose of playing the game.
Similary, Jesus could veil Himself from His knowledge of all things, accepting the limitations of what it means to be human, and then, even as God, learn. You seem to be dividing Christ into two intellects. That would be inconsistent with His being one being.
Bruising:
This seems rather obvious, but spirits don't bruise. Your spirit doesn't bruise, either, but that doesn't mean that it isn't a part of the relational you. (In fact, the part of you that bruises is probably least involved in your relationships.) However, this suggestion leads me to think that you believe that Jesus' human nature was just a dead body that He inhabited. I don't think that makes Him fully human.
Dying:
In a real sense, your spirit isn't going to die, either, at least not as your body will. Certainly the whole being of Christ experienced the pain of His body on the cross and the separation of body and spirit upon the cessation of cellular mitosis in His physical being. So, the fact that His body could die doesn't speak to how separate the natures of Christ were when He was alive.
Temporal/Atemporal:
This is probably the biggest issue for me regarding your position. It would seem to me that the two natures would have to be fully compatible in order for them to be contained in one being. Being both temporal and atemporal seems to be an obvious contradiction. Not that they would both have to experience time in the same way to be compatible (especially if God is the controller of His time), but atemporality seems incompatible with a being that must be temporal.
However, perhaps the biggest problem of separation that you've expressed is that somehow God could have a different relationship to God the Son than Jesus the Human. That more than anything else smack of the kind of dualism that the Church has fought time and again.
Muz "God is dead" - Nietscke
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 |  Grahaminator Registered Member

Date Joined Jan 2005 Total Posts : 70 | Posted 3/23/2005 6:49 PM (GMT -6) |   | Muz,
Muz said...
First, I think we need to clarify what we mean by "nature."
True. By nature, I am refering to essence as it relates to a beings activities. By nature, I do NOT mean, "a conceptual organization of ideas". I would agree that nature is "whatness". It is "whatness" as it is related to activities. We are probably working from a different set of metaphysical viewpoints. For me, essence does exist as a metaphysical principle. An essence does not physically exist, to be sure. I would also disagree with the Platonic notion that essences exist as things in themselves.
I am not sure how I am splitting Christ into two beings. Could you elaborate? This was not really explained in your last post, it was asserted. You then went on to correct me based on the truth of your assertion.
Muz said... As one being, the only way Jesus could learn while growing up is to veil Himself from His omniscience.
After saying this, you proceed to give me an example of two distinct persons where one veils something from the other. I am not sure how this analogy helps. You say, "In a sense, I veil myself from my higher monopoly knowledge". You still have the skill, ability, KNOWLEDGE, etc. You choose to not do your best, but that is a very different thing from what we are talking about. Christ as a human could really die. As God He really could NOT die. I think your analogy breaks down at the very point is supposes to explain. Perhaps I misunderstand you. I'll wait for you post.
Muz said... In a real sense, your spirit isn't going to die, either, at least not as your body will. Certainly the whole being of Christ experienced the pain of His body on the cross and the separation of body and spirit upon the cessation of cellular mitosis in His physical being. So, the fact that His body could die doesn't speak to how separate the natures of Christ were when He was alive.
You are telling me that Christ's body died and Christ's spirit separated from His body at death. Was Christ two beings? A physical being and a spirit Being? If so, would that make you a dualist? Are you splitting Christs being into a physical being and a spiritual being? If you are not splitting His being into two distinct beings, why must I accept your charge that Christ as man and Christ as God (one may die, the other may not) is dividing Jesus into two beings?
Also, you did not respond to my first question. I would love to get your thoughts on that. My question was, If God is atemporal, why must creation be atemporal? How does God's atemporality necessitate His creation of an atemporal world?
Matt
Man is the feeblest reed in existence, but he is a thinking reed. There is no need that the universe be armed for his destruction; a noxious vapour, a drop of water is enough to cause his death. But though the universe were to destroy him, man would be more noble than his destroyer. -Pascal | | Back to Top | | |
 |  themuzicman Always ready for lunch and the weekend

Date Joined Aug 2001 Total Posts : 48 | Posted 3/23/2005 8:02 PM (GMT -6) |   | Matt said...
I am not sure how I am splitting Christ into two beings. Could you elaborate? This was not really explained in your last post, it was asserted. You then went on to correct me based on the truth of your assertion.
Well, you stated in your last post that God the Father had two different relationships with Jesus the human and Jesus, God the Son. How is it possible to have opposing relationships with one being?
Matt said...
After saying this, you proceed to give me an example of two distinct persons where one veils something from the other.
Huh?
Matt said... I am not sure how this analogy helps. You say, "In a sense, I veil myself from my higher monopoly knowledge". You still have the skill, ability, KNOWLEDGE, etc. You choose to not do your best, but that is a very different thing from what we are talking about. Christ as a human could really die. As God He really could NOT die. I think your analogy breaks down at the very point is supposes to explain. Perhaps I misunderstand you. I'll wait for you post.
Well, I wasn't dealing with DEATH, here. I was dealing with OMNISCIENCE and LEARNING.
Matt said...Muz said...
In a real sense, your spirit isn't going to die, either, at least not as your body will. Certainly the whole being of Christ experienced the pain of His body on the cross and the separation of body and spirit upon the cessation of cellular mitosis in His physical being. So, the fact that His body could die doesn't speak to how separate the natures of Christ were when He was alive.
You are telling me that Christ's body died and Christ's spirit separated from His body at death. Was Christ two beings? A physical being and a spirit Being? If so, would that make you a dualist? Are you splitting Christs being into a physical being and a spiritual being? If you are not splitting His being into two distinct beings, why must I accept your charge that Christ as man and Christ as God (one may die, the other may not) is dividing Jesus into two beings?
Are you two beings? Or is your spirit going to die and go into the ground when your body dies and does the same?
Matt said...Also, you did not respond to my first question. I would love to get your thoughts on that. My question was, If God is atemporal, why must creation be atemporal? How does God's atemporality necessitate His creation of an atemporal world? Matt
Well, if creation hasn't always existed, then God has experienced change, in that there was a time when creation did not exist, and now it does. If we speak of when creation didn't exist and when it does, then there is a change, which requires time.
Muz "God is dead" - Nietscke
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 |  Grahaminator Registered Member

Date Joined Jan 2005 Total Posts : 70 | Posted 3/23/2005 9:35 PM (GMT -6) |   | |
Muz,
You asked, "How is it possible to have opposing relationships with one being?"
I have several relationships with individual beings. My wife is related to me spacially and we are related as husband to wife. What about opposing relationships? I answer this knowing that I may not be addressing your particular concern. To be honest, I am still not clear about what you are asking. However, can't you both love and hate the same being? Surely God can hate depraved men and love them as well. He can hate my sin (which flows from my nature) and love me. So there is not a misunderstanding.... when I say that God hates my sin, I cannot totally divorce my sin from my being. So God is loving and hating me in a sense. God is not loving me and hating some abstract form called "sin" out there. Again, perhaps I am not understanding you.
You said,
"Well, I wasn't dealing with DEATH, here. I was dealing with OMNISCIENCE and LEARNING."
My point was that your analogy broke down in such a way as to render it unhelpful. Currently, I think that point still stands. In your analogy, you still knew how to win in monopoly. Christ as a man did learn, while Christ as God did not. Perhaps that is a point of disagreement between us. If so, we could talk about that too.
You asked,
"Are you two beings?"
No. I am one being. I was asking if you think we are two beings. Substance dualists (such as J.P. Moreland) believe that we are essentially a soul that has a body. I hold to a hylomorphic view which says that we are essentially body and soul.
You said,
"Well, if creation hasn't always existed, then God has experienced change, in that there was a time when creation did not exist, and now it does. If we speak of when creation didn't exist and when it does, then there is a change, which requires time."
This begs the question. Also, there are arguments (i.e. the kalam argument) that attempt to show that time must have had a beginning. If that is the case, we should not treat God as if He were in time, waiting for some point to create. Do you accept the arguments that time must have had a beginning?
Beyond that, the only thing you are saying in your above statement is that God is temporal and so is creation. You have not given an argument for why an atemporal God must create an atemporal world.
God Bless.
Man is the feeblest reed in existence, but he is a thinking reed. There is no need that the universe be armed for his destruction; a noxious vapour, a drop of water is enough to cause his death. But though the universe were to destroy him, man would be more noble than his destroyer. -PascalPost Edited (Matt) : 3/23/2005 8:56:43 PM (GMT-6) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  themuzicman Always ready for lunch and the weekend

Date Joined Aug 2001 Total Posts : 48 | Posted 3/24/2005 8:04 AM (GMT -6) |   | Matt said... Muz,
You asked, "How is it possible to have opposing relationships with one being?"
I have several relationships with individual beings. My wife is related to me spacially and we are related as husband to wife. What about opposing relationships? I answer this knowing that I may not be addressing your particular concern. To be honest, I am still not clear about what you are asking. However, can't you both love and hate the same being? Surely God can hate depraved men and love them as well. He can hate my sin (which flows from my nature) and love me. So there is not a misunderstanding.... when I say that God hates my sin, I cannot totally divorce my sin from my being. So God is loving and hating me in a sense. God is not loving me and hating some abstract form called "sin" out there. Again, perhaps I am not understanding you.
The original objection was about God the Father's relationship with Christ. Jesus, upon the cross, said that the Father had "forsaken" him. Now, given the supposed atemporal nature of God, and more specifically His relationship with Himself, which must be constant, and the doctrine that Jesus is one being having two natures (God the Son took to Himself a human nature), we must choose between God the Son being eternally forsaken by God the Father, or God the Son being eternally accepted (united with, relationally) God the Father.
You responded by saying that only the human nature of Jesus was forsaken. Thus, you are claiming that one being can be both accepted and forsaken by God. These are opposing and even contradictory relational states between two beings.
In your latest response, you tried to reply with relationships that are not opposed to each other. What you are failing to address is the core of the problem, which contains:
1) Is Christ one being?
and, if so,
2) Is Christ God?
and, if so,
3) Assuming atemporality, what is the nature of the eternal and atemporal (and thus unchangable) relationship between God the Father and God the Son?
Non-heretical answers to 1 and 2 can only lead us to conclude in #3 that God the Son is eternally forsaken by God the Father.
Matt said... This begs the question. Also, there are arguments (i.e. the kalam argument) that attempt to show that time must have had a beginning. If that is the case, we should not treat God as if He were in time, waiting for some point to create. Do you accept the arguments that time must have had a beginning?
That's an interesting question, but beyond the scope of this thread. If you'd like to start another thread on this topic, you're welcome to do so.
Matt said... Beyond that, the only thing you are saying in your above statement is that God is temporal and so is creation. You have not given an argument for why an atemporal God must create an atemporal world.
Atemporality includes absolute immutability, which precludes action, since acting would involve change which requires temporality. (Which is another issue regarding incarnation, but that's another thread,too.)
If creation didn't exist at some time, and God acts to bring it into being, then we don't have absolute immutability, nor do we have atemporality. In fact, it is impossible to talk about God acting to create without violationg atemporality.
Muz "God is dead" - Nietscke
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 |  Grahaminator Registered Member

Date Joined Jan 2005 Total Posts : 70 | Posted 3/24/2005 10:43 AM (GMT -6) |   | Muz,
Muz said...
we must choose between God the Son being eternally forsaken by God the Father, or God the Son being eternally accepted (united with, relationally) God the Father.
I am not sure why this is the case. I think this is based on the notion that if God is atemporal, God must produce an atemporal effect. I think this notion is false. If God is atemporal, then it would be likely that His causal relationship to the world is different than ours. The fact that His relation to the world is different is so obvious that it seems silly to even mention it. We don't have any examples of finite creatures creating ex nihilo. We may change existing things substantially, but we do not cause beings to exist.
I think this fact is something that should cause one to consider how they make claims about God. For example, you are arguing that an immutable God must eternally accept and reject God the Son. First of all, this is not a contradiction. It would be contradictory to say that God eternally accepts and rejects God the Son in exactly the same way. That is yet to be seen.
But secondly, all I have to do make a single valid distinction to show that it is logically possible. One route may be that God the Son is two different beings. It would at least be possible then. But neither of us are wanting to make that distinction. Where then, is the distinction that I make so as to make my view non-contradictory?
I think I did this to some degree in my last post. When I said,
Matt said...
What about opposing relationships?... can't you both love and hate the same being? Surely God can hate depraved men and love them as well. He can hate my sin (which flows from my nature) and love me. So there is not a misunderstanding.... when I say that God hates my sin, I cannot totally divorce my sin from my being. So God is loving and hating me in a sense. God is not loving me and hating some abstract form called "sin" out there.
You said that I "tried to reply with relationships that are not opposed to each other." It is evident from the quote above that I did say something about it. Would you disagree that what I said was an example of the thing we are talking about ?
Muz said...
1) Is Christ one being? 2) Is Christ God? 3) Assuming atemporality, what is the nature of the eternal and atemporal (and thus unchangable) relationship between God the Father and God the Son?
Non-heretical answers to 1 and 2 can only lead us to conclude in #3 that God the Son is eternally forsaken by God the Father. Surely Christ is God. Surely He is one Person with two natures. The question is, as you say, what is the nature of the eternal and atemporal relationship between God the Father and God the Son? Perhaps we should discuss that more before concluding that only heretics would believe that God is immutable.
Let me ask a couple of questions.
1. Is Christ the man essential to the second Person of the Trinity? In other words, does the second Person of the Trinity require an additional nature in order to be the second Person of the Trinity?
2. Do you think that an atemporal God can be a Person?
Muz said... Atemporality includes absolute immutability, which precludes action, since acting would involve change which requires temporality. You say that this is another issue, but I think it very relevant to our current conversation. Perhaps it should be another thread though. I think this underpins your current problems with divine simplicity and immutability. I look forward to your post.
God Bless.
Matt
Man is the feeblest reed in existence, but he is a thinking reed. There is no need that the universe be armed for his destruction; a noxious vapour, a drop of water is enough to cause his death. But though the universe were to destroy him, man would be more noble than his destroyer. -Pascal | | Back to Top | | |
 |  themuzicman Always ready for lunch and the weekend

Date Joined Aug 2001 Total Posts : 48 | Posted 3/24/2005 12:19 PM (GMT -6) |   | Matt said...Muz, Muz said...
we must choose between God the Son being eternally forsaken by God the Father, or God the Son being eternally accepted (united with, relationally) God the Father.
I am not sure why this is the case. I think this is based on the notion that if God is atemporal, God must produce an atemporal effect. I think this notion is false. If God is atemporal, then it would be likely that His causal relationship to the world is different than ours. The fact that His relation to the world is different is so obvious that it seems silly to even mention it. We don't have any examples of finite creatures creating ex nihilo. We may change existing things substantially, but we do not cause beings to exist.
But we're not talking about God's relationship to the world. We're talking about God's relationship to HIMSELF.
Matt said... I think this fact is something that should cause one to consider how they make claims about God. For example, you are arguing that an immutable God must eternally accept and reject God the Son. First of all, this is not a contradiction. It would be contradictory to say that God eternally accepts and rejects God the Son in exactly the same way. That is yet to be seen.
But secondly, all I have to do make a single valid distinction to show that it is logically possible. One route may be that God the Son is two different beings. It would at least be possible then. But neither of us are wanting to make that distinction. Where then, is the distinction that I make so as to make my view non-contradictory?
So, you're saying that Christ is two different beings? Otherwise, I would think that you would be the one to answer that question.
[quote]I think I did this to some degree in my last post. When I said,
Matt said...
What about opposing relationships?... can't you both love and hate the same being? Surely God can hate depraved men and love them as well. He can hate my sin (which flows from my nature) and love me. So there is not a misunderstanding.... when I say that God hates my sin, I cannot totally divorce my sin from my being. So God is loving and hating me in a sense. God is not loving me and hating some abstract form called "sin" out there.
Well, let me deal with this further, then. Are you saying that you cannot divorce you sin from your being? Are you saying that sin is a necessary attribute of being human?
Muz said...
1) Is Christ one being? 2) Is Christ God? 3) Assuming atemporality, what is the nature of the eternal and atemporal (and thus unchangable) relationship between God the Father and God the Son?
Non-heretical answers to 1 and 2 can only lead us to conclude in #3 that God the Son is eternally forsaken by God the Father.
Surely Christ is God. Surely He is one Person with two natures. The question is, as you say, what is the nature of the eternal and atemporal relationship between God the Father and God the Son? Perhaps we should discuss that more before concluding that only heretics would believe that God is immutable.
I never made any such conclusion. Apparantly you have. Can you not answer the question?
Matt said... Let me ask a couple of questions.
1. Is Christ the man essential to the second Person of the Trinity? In other words, does the second Person of the Trinity require an additional nature in order to be the second Person of the Trinity?
No.
Matt said... 2. Do you think that an atemporal God can be a Person?
No. If we have two natures in one being, those natures need to be compatible, and temporality and atemporality simply are not.
Matt said...Muz said...
Atemporality includes absolute immutability, which precludes action, since acting would involve change which requires temporality.
You say that this is another issue, but I think it very relevant to our current conversation. Perhaps it should be another thread though. I think this underpins your current problems with divine simplicity and immutability. I look forward to your post.
What I said was that temporality and the Kalaam argument relative to the beginning of time were another thread.
Do you always have this much trouble following what I'm responding to?
Muz "God is dead" - Nietscke
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 |  Laika Registered Member

Date Joined Mar 2003 Total Posts : 2433 | Posted 3/24/2005 12:26 PM (GMT -6) |   | Good stuff, Muz. The "atemporalists" have hugh logical problems.
To say that God exists eternally now sans creation AND God exists eternally now in relation to a creation is a contradiction.
Hence, creation has to be eternally now along with God making them equivalent, an eastern concept, God is creation.
No amount of b.s. and hand waving can obviate that.
When did the "atemporal" god create creation? Eternally simultaneously NOW. Same as the "atemporal" god. Eastern pantheism it is....
God existed alone without creation. Then He created. Now He's in relationship with a creation, a CHANGE in God. A sequence, a state change. Simple automata theory. God and NO creation simultaneously with God and a creation is a contradiction.
Still not seen a refutation that an "atemporal" God would experience Jesus eternally NOW on the cross, separated from God eternally NOW, cursed and laden with sin eternally NOW. Which contradicts an eternally NOW Jesus sinless and seated at the right hand of God eternally NOW.
Eternally NOW cursed and eternally NOW blessed, a contradiction.
Lord, is TGB married or a bachelor right now?
Yes.
Yes? Which is it?
Both. Dang it, I had to ENTER time in order to have this conversation with you. There goes my atemporality.
Remember, as soon as "atemporalists" say "God created", they are throwing away atemporality.
God, no creation ------>creation/state change-------------->God in relation to creation
 Post Edited (Laika) : 3/24/2005 12:50:00 PM (GMT-6) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Grahaminator Registered Member

Date Joined Jan 2005 Total Posts : 70 | Posted 3/24/2005 4:30 PM (GMT -6) |   | Muz,
It's interesting that you think I am having a hard time following you. In my mind, it was you that was having a difficult time following me and answering questions. Apparently it is easy for people to misunderstand each other.
Muz, I realize that we are talking about God's relationship to Himself, if you may speak like that of God. It seems to be more accurate to speak of the Father's relation to the Son, and the Son's relation to the Father. This is a relation among persons, not beings. I am not sure what one could say about God's being insofar as it relates to His own being.
Anyway, you agreed that Christ as man is not necessary for the second Person of the Trinity. Doesn't that imply a real distinction between Jesus as God and Jesus as man? It may not necessarily be a distinction of being, but it is a real distinction. You seem to think that if I talk of the Father relating differently to Jesus as God and Jesus as man that I am necessarily implying some sort of division in being, when I am merely distinguishing between two natures.
Muz said...
So, you're saying that Christ is two different beings?
No. And I said as much in the part you quoted. I said that "neither of us are wanting to make that distinction."
Muz said...
Are you saying that you cannot divorce you sin from your being? Are you saying that sin is a necessary attribute of being human?
I meant that you cannot "totally divorce" a persons sin from their being. I am not saying that sin is a necessary attribute of being human. It is a natural activity of human beings though. I said that sin flows from human nature because all actions flow from a things nature. According to my metaphysical position (Thomistic) action follows being. Actions arise from a nature. Our actions arise from human nature.
Quick question. Do you think that Jesus as God was infinite? Do you think that Jesus as man was finite?
Laika,
Thank you for using the term sans creation. However, I am not sure why it is a contradiction to say that God exists eternally both sans creation and after creation. Again, this is only the case if the following are true.
1. An atemporal being must create an atemporal world. 2. An eternal God must have a created order that is eternally now alongside with Him. 3. ***That God must enter into time because He created a temporal world. ***
Your comment that, "no amount of b.s. and hand waving can obviate that" is telling. Aparently you are very sure of your position. I certainly don't have a problem with people holding strongly to a belief. In fact, if what they believe is true, I admire a person that stands by their convictions.
Laika said...
When did the "atemporal" god create creation?
At this point, I would say that this is a complex question, on par with "When did you stop beating your wife?" To ask the question "when" assumes temporality. Dispite your claim that atemporality is eastern mysticism, I would beg to differ. You do realize that most of the church fathers believed that God was atemporal. I understand that I could not conclude that God is atemporal based on the pooled beliefs of the church fathers without committing an informal fallacy. I am just saying that what you said implies that most of the church fathers are eastern pantheists.
I do appreciate your giving reasons for you conclusion. I don't agree with them, but at least you are offering some arguments.
Laika said...
God existed alone without creation. Then He created. Now He's in relationship with a creation, a CHANGE in God.
I don't think this follows. When you say, God existed and then... you appear to be assuming that God is temporal "before" creation. I would imagine, that like Craig, you don't think you are assuming that. To the best of my understanding Craig argues that God was atemporal before creation, but entered into time subsequent to creation. However, I don't think that necessarily follows.
I have to go now. I'll respond later. My friend is waiting for me. Talk to you soon.
God Bless! Matt Man is the feeblest reed in existence, but he is a thinking reed. There is no need that the universe be armed for his destruction; a noxious vapour, a drop of water is enough to cause his death. But though the universe were to destroy him, man would be more noble than his destroyer. -Pascal | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Laika Registered Member

Date Joined Mar 2003 Total Posts : 2433 | Posted 3/24/2005 5:24 PM (GMT -6) |   |
Matt said...
Laika,
Thank you for using the term sans creation. However, I am not sure why it is a contradiction to say that God exists eternally both sans creation and after creation. Again, this is only the case if the following are true. An "atemporal" God would hold all things simultaneously including truths.
An "atemporal" God would hold the truths: "No creation exists" and "a creation exists" simultaneously, a contradiction.
An "atemporal" God would hold: "My Son is sinless" and "My Son is sin" 2 Corinthians 5:21 simultaneously, a contradiction.
An "atemporal" God would hold: "TGB is a happy bachelor" and "TGB is happily married" simultaneously, a contradiction.
(Some would say "happily married" is the world's shortest contradiction....  )
Something cannot be A and ~A simultaneously. Unless you're abandoning western logic.
Matt said...
Your comment that, "no amount of b.s. and hand waving can obviate that" is telling. Aparently you are very sure of your position.
Your saying Jesus was two persons fit the bill. I'm very sure of my position. 
Laika said...
When did the "atemporal" god create creation?
Matt said... At this point, I would say that this is a complex question, on par with "When did you stop beating your wife?" To ask the question "when" assumes temporality.
Which creation is, temporal. Nothing in scripture supports an atemporal God, God uses nothing but temporal language about creation and Himself. In fact, God being "eternal" and "everlasting" would be meaningless given "atemporality".
Matt said... Dispite your claim that atemporality is eastern mysticism, I would beg to differ. You do realize that most of the church fathers believed that God was atemporal.
So? That's an invalid argument, argument from "authority". The first three centuries the church believed in free will until Augustine's Manichaeism polluted Christian thought. I'm not surprised the Greek idea of "perfection" screwed their heads up as well.
If God experiences creation eternally simultaneously NOW, then creation is co-eternal and simultaneously present with Him. That is pantheism. You've not said anything to disprove that. I'm thinking you don't understand what atemporality is.
Laika said...
God existed alone without creation. Then He created. Now He's in relationship with a creation, a CHANGE in God.
Matt said... I don't think this follows. When you say, God existed and then... you appear to be assuming that God is temporal "before" creation. I would imagine, that like Craig, you don't think you are assuming that. To the best of my understanding Craig argues that God was atemporal before creation, but entered into time subsequent to creation. However, I don't think that necessarily follows.
God and no creation ------> God and a creation, that is a sequence and temporality "follows" from that state change.
God Bless! Matt
Thanks! A verb (implying duration, sequence) applied to a supposedly "atemporal" being.
Sorry, couldn't resist... Well, maybe I coulda
 Post Edited (Laika) : 3/24/2005 4:49:10 PM (GMT-6) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Grahaminator Registered Member

Date Joined Jan 2005 Total Posts : 70 | Posted 3/24/2005 11:17 PM (GMT -6) |   | |
Laika,
Glad you are joining the conversation.
Laika said...
An "atemporal" God would hold all things simultaneously including truths.
You gave the examples, "no creation exists" and "creation exists". TGB is not married, TGB is married etc. I certainly don't want to abandon "western logic". I hold that contradictories cannot both be true and not true at the same time and sense. Let me frame your problem to make sure that I understand it.
You are trying to reduce my argument to absurdity by showing that atemporality is contradictory. You argue that atemporality entails the contradictory state of affairs where God believes contradictory statements at the same time and sense. Am I correct so far?
Your argument?? 1. If God is atemporal, He must hold all truths to be true at the same time. (which includes contradictory statements)
2. God cannot hold all truths to be true at the same time. (because some tensed truth claims held at the same time are contradictory)
Therefore, God is not atemporal.
If I have framed your argument incorrectly, please let me know. The problem with this, in my view, is that God may hold that 2004 is the year that George Bush will be, is, was re-elected and the war of 1812 will be, is, was fought in 1812. In this way, God may know all truths without holding contradictory statements to be true. God's knowledge is not contradictory, yet He still knows all truths. He simply does not know them in the same way we know them. He does not know them as one going through time. Only creatures that are in time say, "It is now 11:00", and then later say "It is not now 11:00". It would be the case that a creature in time could not hold both of those claims to be true at the same time, but it is not clear to me that an atemporal being must be in this situation.
Laika said...
If God experiences creation eternally simultaneously NOW, then creation is co-eternal and simultaneously present with Him. That is pantheism. You've not said anything to disprove that.
I have not said anything to disprove this because no argument has been offered in support of it. You are pushing the burden of proof onto me. The problem is this: YOU made the claim that if God is eternal, then creation must be co-eternal with God. I'll offer rebuttals to an argument you make in favor of your position when you make your argument.
You made claims about the temporal language used in scripture. I would rather not bring that up now, but since you brought it up I should say something about that. I don't know what your full argument is, but if you are arguing that because the Bible describes God in temporal language, God must be temporal, then I don't think that conclusion follows. Again, I would not like to go into that now because I think it will take us off topic, but if you insist on it, I'll discuss it with you.
Also, I thought you were somewhat uncharitable with my comments about the church fathers. In my post, I specifically said I was not arguing from the fact that the church fathers believed in atemporality to the truth of the conclusion that God is atemporal. I said to argue that way would be to commit an informal fallacy. (appealing to authority) Rather than acknowledging this, you simply pointed out the very thing I pointed out, namely that to argue that way is to argue from authority. My point, which I specifically spelled out, was that the implications of your view (that atemporality implies eastern mysticism) implies that most of the church fathers were eastern mystics.
Laika said...
God and no creation ------> God and a creation, that is a sequence and temporality "follows" from that state change.
I would like to talk about this in more depth. To the best of my understanding, all change implies a subject that undergoes a change and accidents that modify the substance. I think I can make an argument for the fact that God does not have to undergo a change to create the universe. If possible, I would like to stay as focused as possible on one or two issues. Again, thanks for your thoughts. I look forward to your post.
God Bless.
Matt
Man is the feeblest reed in existence, but he is a thinking reed. There is no need that the universe be armed for his destruction; a noxious vapour, a drop of water is enough to cause his death. But though the universe were to destroy him, man would be more noble than his destroyer. -PascalPost Edited (Matt) : 3/24/2005 10:21:36 PM (GMT-6) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  themuzicman Always ready for lunch and the weekend

Date Joined Aug 2001 Total Posts : 48 | Posted 3/25/2005 9:17 AM (GMT -6) |   | Matt said... Muz,
Muz, I realize that we are talking about God's relationship to Himself, if you may speak like that of God. It seems to be more accurate to speak of the Father's relation to the Son, and the Son's relation to the Father. This is a relation among persons, not beings. I am not sure what one could say about God's being insofar as it relates to His own being.
Seems to me that for this particular issue, Jesus said it for us.
Matt said... Anyway, you agreed that Christ as man is not necessary for the second Person of the Trinity. Doesn't that imply a real distinction between Jesus as God and Jesus as man?
Why would it? I believe the church's position is that God the Son took to Himself a human nature. Thus, remaining one being with two natures, I don't thinkwe can say that there is a distinction between the two beyond their history.
Matt said... It may not necessarily be a distinction of being, but it is a real distinction. You seem to think that if I talk of the Father relating differently to Jesus as God and Jesus as man that I am necessarily implying some sort of division in being, when I am merely distinguishing between two natures.
Our natures make a distinction between Christ and me, because I am not God, but without dividing the being of Christ, I don't see how the natures (which we defined as the attributes that describe a type or category of something) can be distinguished relationally within one being.
Are you saying that God relates differently to different attributes within Christ? That seems an odd way for anyone to relate.
Matt said...Muz said...
So, you're saying that Christ is two different beings? No. And I said as much in the part you quoted. I said that "neither of us are wanting to make that distinction."
But yet you claim it as a possible solution to your problem.
Matt said...Muz said...
Are you saying that you cannot divorce you sin from your being? Are you saying that sin is a necessary attribute of being human?
I meant that you cannot "totally divorce" a persons sin from their being. I am not saying that sin is a necessary attribute of being human. It is a natural activity of human beings though.
Sin was a natural activity of Adam before the fall?
Matt said... I said that sin flows from human nature because all actions flow from a things nature. According to my metaphysical position (Thomistic) action follows being. Actions arise from a nature. Our actions arise from human nature.
So, God created Adam with a sinful nature?
Matt said... Quick question. Do you think that Jesus as God was infinite? Do you think that Jesus as man was finite?
Yes and Yes. And those are not incompatible.
The problem with being temporal and atemporal is that the former inherently changes, and the latter is inherently immutable.
Muz "God is dead" - Nietscke
"Nietscke is dead" - God | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Grahaminator Registered Member

Date Joined Jan 2005 Total Posts : 70 | Posted 3/25/2005 11:38 AM (GMT -6) |   | |
Muz,
I will respond to what I can respond to. Honestly, it is becoming more evident that you are not familiar with my termenology. Also, you are making claims that show that you merely skimmed through my posts. When I respond, I usually try to read your post several times.
Muz said...
Our natures make a distinction between Christ and me, because I am not God, but without dividing the being of Christ, I don't see how the natures (which we defined as the attributes that describe a type or category of something) can be distinguished relationally within one being.
First, I distinguished between your view of a nature and my view. I did not define nature as "the attributes that describe a type or category of something." That is how you defined it. As I explained early in this thread...
Matt said...
By nature, I am refering to essence as it relates to a beings activities. By nature, I do NOT mean, "a conceptual organization of ideas". I would agree that nature is "whatness". It is "whatness" as it is related to activities... For me, essence does exist as a metaphysical principle. An essence does not physically exist, to be sure. I would also disagree with the Platonic notion that essences exist as things in themselves.
You asked, "Are you saying that God relates differently to different attributes within Christ?" No. I am not.
Matt said...
Muz said...
So, you're saying that Christ is two different beings? No. And I said as much in the part you quoted. I said that "neither of us are wanting to make that distinction."
You then said, "But yet you claim it as a possible solution to your problem."
So what? If you read my post, my point was not to solve the problem by positing two seperate beings. I merely said that one could resolve it that way. You even reposted my post that said, "NEITHER OF US ARE WANTING TO MAKE THAT DISTINCTION.
Muz said...
Sin was a natural activity of Adam before the fall?
No. It was possible though.
Muz said...
So, God created Adam with a sinful nature?
No. But currently our natures are fallen so sinful actions do naturally flow from our nature.
Finally, you said that Jesus was both finite and infinite. You do realize that infinite means not-finite. Is that a contradiction?
Jesus as man = finite
Jesus as God = infinite
Such that Jesus is both finite and not-finite at the same time and sense.
I understand that you think there is a difference here. You posted that temporal and not-temporal are incompatible because one is inherently changeable and the other is inherently not-changable. However, I don't think this resolves the above tension. It is also the case that the finite is inherently limited and the infinite is inherently not-limited. This being the case, I don't see how, on your way of thinking, the infinite and finite are compatible, while the temporal and the atemporal are incompatible.
God Bless.
Man is the feeblest reed in existence, but he is a thinking reed. There is no need that the universe be armed for his destruction; a noxious vapour, a drop of water is enough to cause his death. But though the universe were to destroy him, man would be more noble than his destroyer. -PascalPost Edited (Matt) : 3/25/2005 10:41:40 AM (GMT-6) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  themuzicman Always ready for lunch and the weekend

Date Joined Aug 2001 Total Posts : 48 | Posted 3/25/2005 1:02 PM (GMT -6) |   | Muz said... Is God the Son eternally united to or forsaken by God the Father?
Matt said... To the best of my understanding God is related to the world as cause is related to effect. The triune God, co-equal and whatnot are eternally united. Christ as man (Christ being fully God and fully man) was punished for sin in time. Their was a change in Christ as man, but not in Jesus as God. Would you not agree with this? If not, why not?
Matt said... Anyway, you agreed that Christ as man is not necessary for the second Person of the Trinity. Doesn't that imply a real distinction between Jesus as God and Jesus as man?
Matt said... It may not necessarily be a distinction of being, but it is a real distinction. You seem to think that if I talk of the Father relating differently to Jesus as God and Jesus as man that I am necessarily implying some sort of division in being, when I am merely distinguishing between two natures.
OK, these are the three quotes I want to deal with, because I'm unclear about what you think the distinction between God the Son and Jesus the Human is. You keep calling it "natures", but then you define nature as:
Matt said... I would agree that nature is "whatness". It is "whatness" as it is related to activities... For me, essence does exist as a metaphysical principle. An essence does not physically exist, to be sure. I would also disagree with the Platonic notion that essences exist as things in themselves.
I agree that essense is a metaphyscial principle, and that they don't exist as things in and of themselves. However, that would seem to bring the "nature" of something to be a collection of attributes necessary to a being's "whatness". (I want to call this an abstract collection, but in abstract only in the sense that it doesn't exist beyond being a list of attributes that happen describe something. By abstract, I DON'T mean random.)
Are you saying that the essense of something is anything more than this?
If not, why must we separate the list of attributes that describe the one being, Jesus Christ, keeping his attributes as deity and human distinct, if all they are is an abstract list of attributes that describe him?
Furthermore, how does keeping these lists distinct create the possibility that part of this being paid the price for sin, in part by being forsaken by God, and another part did not?
And if that IS the case, how exactly did God demonstrate His love for us by sending His Son to die, if only the human part actually paid that price, and God the Son was apparantly just along for the ride, but never really suffered being forsaken?
This is potentially another thread. We'll see:
Muz said... Sin was a natural activity of Adam before the fall?
Matt said... No. It was possible though.
Muz said... So, God created Adam with a sinful nature?
Matt said... No. But currently our natures are fallen so sinful actions do naturally flow from our nature.
Do you mean to say that the Adam that God created was ontologically different from the Adam that was kicked from the garden?
If so, who was able to alter God's Word as revealed in the creation of man?
Furthermore, if God the Son took a human nature to Himself, was it the human nature of Adam before the fall, or the human nature of Adam after the fall?
Muz "God is dead" - Nietscke
"Nietscke is dead" - God | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Laika Registered Member

Date Joined Mar 2003 Total Posts : 2433 | Posted 3/25/2005 1:35 PM (GMT -6) |   |
Matt said...
If I have framed your argument incorrectly, please let me know. The problem with this, in my view, is that God may hold that 2004 is the year that George Bush will be, is, was re-elected and the war of 1812 will be, is, was fought in 1812. In this way, God may know all truths without holding contradictory statements to be true. God's knowledge is not contradictory, yet He still knows all truths. He simply does not know them in the same way we know them. He does not know them as one going through time. Only creatures that are in time say, "It is now 11:00", and then later say "It is not now 11:00". It would be the case that a creature in time could not hold both of those claims to be true at the same time, but it is not clear to me that an atemporal being must be in this situation.
Right now, to an atemporal God, it is 1812 and 2004 and 390 B.C. The Keltoi are sacking Rome in 2004, George Bush is president in 1812 and the British are marching on New Orleans in 390 B.C. That's the absurdity of an atemporal view of God. To an eternal NOW it God, all propositions are true and false all at once simultaneously.
Temporality says, at time ti, this happens. But to an atemporal God, all times tn are simultaneous. And there are NO sequences.
Laika said...
If God experiences creation eternally simultaneously NOW, then creation is co-eternal and simultaneously present with Him. That is pantheism. You've not said anything to disprove that.
Matt said...
I have not said anything to disprove this because no argument has been offered in support of it. You are pushing the burden of proof onto me. The problem is this: YOU made the claim that if God is eternal, then creation must be co-eternal with God. I'll offer rebuttals to an argument you make in favor of your position when you make your argument.
You just don't get it do you? To an eternal NOW God, there is NO creation, right now. But there is also, right now, to an eternal NOW God, a creation. Simultaneously. That's a contradiction. You believe God exists in the past present and future all at once. Eternal NOW. That's contradictory and I don't see anything posted by you to refute these contradictions.
Matt said...
You made claims about the temporal language used in scripture. I would rather not bring that up now, but since you brought it up I should say something about that. I don't know what your full argument is, but if you are arguing that because the Bible describes God in temporal language, God must be temporal, then I don't think that conclusion follows. Again, I would not like to go into that now because I think it will take us off topic, but if you insist on it, I'll discuss it with you.
If the bible describes God as a spirit, does it also "not follow" that He is a spirit? Or if the bible describes God as a personality that loves, it also doesn't "follow" that He loves? Where did your atemporality come from? Because it's not in scripture and it is illogical. Put something up.
Matt said...
Also, I thought you were somewhat uncharitable with my comments about the church fathers. In my post, I specifically said I was not arguing from the fact that the church fathers believed in atemporality to the truth of the conclusion that God is atemporal. I said to argue that way would be to commit an informal fallacy. (appealing to authority) Rather than acknowledging this, you simply pointed out the very thing I pointed out, namely that to argue that way is to argue from authority.
Yeah, I don't know why you bring the "church fathers" into it and then apologize for your invalid argument. Certainly many of the "church fathers" didn't believe in an atemporal God. That probably came into the church with Augustine's Manichaeism.
To me, the atemporal view of God is rife with inherent contradictions and isn't in scripture. You have to look to the greek ideas of perfection to find it's genesis.
To summarize: the atemporal view of God has God experiencing NO creation and a creation in one eternal instance, a contradiction. The atemporal view of God has God separated from His Son who is sinless and sin in one eternal instance, a contradiction. The atemporal view of God is NO WHERE in scripture and is logical nonsense.
 Post Edited (Laika) : 3/25/2005 2:21:51 PM (GMT-6) | | Back to Top | | |
 |  Grahaminator Registered Member

Date Joined Jan 2005 Total Posts : 70 | Posted 3/26/2005 12:04 AM (GMT -6) |   | |
Muz,
Thanks for your response! Right now it's late and I can't give you much of a response. Also, I will be going out of state for the week so I probably won't be able to say much this week. (unless I find an internet connection) I really appreciate your thoughtfulness in your post. I want to return a post thoughtfully. I'll formulate my thoughts as best I can and explain what I believe an essence is, what a nature is, and what it means for the issue we are talking about. (Christs two natures) I also find your thoughts / questions about Adam and our fallen nature interesting. I'll think more about it and respond. Thanks again!
Laika,
You said, "You just don't get it do you?"
You seem to be rather impatient. You have made a total of 3 posts on this thread, and because I haven't accepted your conclusion you say something like, "You just don't get it". Perhaps I do get it and I don't agree. In which case we could discuss the issue. Or perhaps, I don't get it, in which case you could explain it to me.
You said,
"Yeah, I don't know why you bring the "church fathers" into it and then apologize for your invalid argument."
I never apologized for my comments about the church fathers. I said that your view ends in the conclusion that most of the church fathers are eastern mystics. If you are fine with that outcome, then so be it. That is all I was saying.
Did you agree that my framing of your argument was accurate? Is that an accurate portrail of your argument? I'll post it again.
Matt said...
1. If God is atemporal, He must hold all truths to be true at the same time. (which includes contradictory statements)
2. God cannot hold all truths to be true at the same time. (because some tensed truth claims held at the same time are contradictory)
Therefore, God is not atemporal.
William Lane Craig argues for this in a slightly different way. He argues that if God is atemporal, then God could not be all-knowing. For He could not know what time it is now. In other words, an atemporal God could not know tensed facts. His argument seems to rely on reducing the atemporal view to the absurd conclusion that God would not know what time it is.
My contention is that God may know all truths eternally. It is only a contradiction for God to hold contradictory beliefs at the same TIME if He is in TIME. Also, why must God "NOW" believe that it is 8:00, and at the same time believe that it is not "NOW" 8:00? It is contradictory for us to say it is now 2005 and not 2005 at the same time. God, being outside of time, has eternal knowledge of temporal events. He does not go through time so as to be able to affirm contradictory statements at the same TIME. I believe this is a category error on par with asking "What caused God"?
I understand that this needs to be fleshed out and discussed more thoroughly. I am more than willing to do this. However, there is no need to be impatient with people who honestly disagree with you.
In Christ,
Man is the feeblest reed in existence, but he is a thinking reed. There is no need that the universe be armed for his destruction; a noxious vapour, a drop of water is enough to cause his death. But though the universe were to destroy him, man would be more noble than his destroyer. -PascalPost Edited (Matt) : 3/25/2005 11:10:09 PM (GMT-6) | | Back to Top | | |
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